Microbiology Pt 1 Study Guide Flashcards
Eukaryotes
True Nucleus, Organelles, Human Cells, protozoa like GIARDIA and AMOEBA
Prokaryotes
NO True Nucelus, NO Organelles (No Mitochondria) ex: Bacteria
Type of Bacilli for Anthrax (wool Sorta disease) Gram + Rods
Bacillaceae (spore-formers)—> Bacillus, Clostridium- anaerobic
Leprocy= Hanson’s Disease
Lactobacillaceae–> Lactobacillus
Mycobacteriaceae (Acid-Fast Bacilli)
Mycobacteria
Neisseriaceae (Gram -)
Neisseria (coffee bean shaped org) Diplacoccus
Legionelaceae - Legionella
Legionaires Disease (SPREAD by Water Droplets)
Paramyxoviridae
-Measles Virus -Mumps Virus -Respiratory Syncytial Virus
Orthomyxoviridae
-Influenza Virus A -Influenza Virus B -Influenza Virus C
Coronaviridae
Corona Virus - Epidemic in CHINA 2002 (SARS)
Rhabdoviridae
Rabies Virus
Filoviridae
Ebola Virus Marburg Virus (Causes Hemmorhagic Fever)
Bunyaviridae
Hantavirus (Spread by Chipmunks or PRAIRIE DOGS)
Reoviridae
Revirus, Rotavirus (MCC of Diarrhea in Children)
Picornaviridae
-Rhinovirus -Poliovirus -ECHO Virus -Coxsackie
Togaviridae
Rubella Virus Western & Eastern Equine Encephalitis
Flaviviridae
Dengue Virus Yellow Fever Virus (Virus that causes JAUNDICE)
Caliciviridae
Norwalk Virus (Causes Gastroenteritis) - Cause of Diarrhea on Cruise Ships
Out of the 5 types of Ebola, how many of them cause Diarrhea?
4/5
How many binding sites are on IgA antibodies?
8
IgA is responsible for______
-Secretory Antibody(Mucosal Antibody) -Mucous Membrane (Saliva, Tears) (Buys time to ID Invader) -Breast Milk (This is how baby will get its protection): Baby will have ‘Leaky Gut’ for up to a year, so its important they get Mothers Breast Milk)
IgD does what?
Helps IgG become stimulated
IgE is seen where and involved with what rxs?
Seen in Type I Hypersensitivity w/ - Parasitic Infections - Allergic Rxns - Increases in Hodgkin’s Disease (Intense Itching ‘Puritis’) *Reed-Sternberg Cells*
IgG antibodies is involved in what?
First to Increase (second exposure) -Most Numerous -Crosses Placenta (G-Ma Thanks) -Anamnestic Response “without amnesia” IgG NEVER Forgets *Have disease first time, then body remembers and mounts same IgG response next time.*
What antibody is made in the baby first?
IgM
IgM has how many binding sites?
10 (Pentamer) Non-Specific
IgM is…. a. Largest and Heaviest b. Smallest and Lightest c. Largest and Fastest d. Smallest and Heaviest
a. Largest and Heaviest *Because it has NO idea what it is going to fix or attack*
Interleukin I (Lymphocyte Activating Factor) is made by _____ and primarily for ______ and ______ tissue.
-Made by Macrophages -For Brain and Nervous Tissue
Interleukin II (T-Cell Growth Factor) is made by _______ cells which is shut down by the AIDS virus. These cells also are considered T-Helper cells and DIRECT the response of the Immune System.
CD4 cells
Interleukin III is made by _______, and is in Blood and Lymphatic System.
Big Bone Marrow
MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) has 4 Major Functions…. *Hint* Each is involved with Type 4 Hypersensitivity Rxn/ Delayed Type Hypersensitivity
-Act as a post on Surface (self vs. non-self) -Involved with tissue graft rejection & organ rejection -T-Cells recognize MHC I - B-Cells recognize MHC I & II
5 Diseases Caused by Staph Aureus sn: SA produces alpha toxin aka alpha hemolysin Pneumonic: S.T.O.I.C
-Scalded Skin Syndrome -Toxic Shock -Osteomyelitis (SA Mcc of this)(Dead Bone=Sequestrium/ New Bone= Involucrum/ Sinus Drainage= Colca) -Impetigo (#1) (Infection of child around mouth, honey crusted lesion around mouth) -Carbuncles (Furuncles ‘infected hair follicles’ or BOIL a ‘Car…Load of furuncles’
6 Diseases Caused by Strep Pyogenes Pnemonic: S.E.R.G.I.S
-Strep Throat (Imbalance in Immune System) -Erysipelas (Superficial Cellulitis ‘inflammation of Dermis’) -Rheumatic Fever -Glomerulonephritis (RBC’s in Urine w/ mild Proteinuria) -Impetigo (#2) -Scarlet Fever (Strawberry Tongue)
Complement Systems purpose is to Enhance_____ or _____ _______
… enhance Phagocytosis or cellular lysis
Pathway of the Complement System (Antigen - Antibodies)
-The Classical (Ag-Ab) and Alternate (e.g. Sheep RBC’s) pathways meet at C3B -C5b-C9= Membrane attack complex (Terminal Compliment Complex)….This Attacks the Bacteria
Aschoff (Inclusion Bodies) gives rise to
Rheumatic Fever (McCallums Patch)
Councilman Cells gives rise to _____
Viral Hepatitis
****DOWNEY CELL gives rise to ______
Mononucleosis (Don’t Let Mono get you DOWN) -Atypical Lymphocytes are seen with Mono
Epithelioid Hystiocyte is seen with_____
TB (Giant Epitheliod cells)
Ghon Complex is seen with ______
TB (Inactive Phase)… Calcium ‘jail’ around mycobacterium
Guarneri Bodies is seen with ______
Small Pox (Variola)
Gummas is seen with _______
Tertiary Syphilis
Koplik Spots is seen with ______
Measles (Rubeola/red measles) On Bucal Mucosa –> White/Bluish spots
**Lipofuscin is associated with ____
Old Age Pigment… Lipid Residue
Build up = “BROWN’S ATROPHY”
A build up of Lipofuscin in the organ will cause what pathology?
Brown Atrophy
Lewy Bodies is associated with ______
Parkinson’s aka Paralysis Agitans
***Negri Bodies is associated with _____
Rabies (Hydrophobia)
Reed Sternberg is seen with____
Hodgkin’s
Russell Bodies is seen where and associated with what?
In Plasma Cells. Consists of Antibodies. Is commonly associated with Multiple Myeloma (Plasma Cell Leukemia)
T-Cells are from that organ?
Thymus
B-Cells are from where?
Bone Marrow (Makes the Plasma Cells which in turn makes the Globulins)
Active Immunity_____
…Must actively make Antibodies (Ab) (MAKES OWN ANTIBODIES)
Passive Immunity______
….person is GIVEN the Antibodies (RECEIVES ANTIBODIES FROM OUTSIDE)
Natural Active immunity…..
A person is exposed to the disease–> Body Reacts -e.g. Measles, Chicken Pox triggers antibody production
Natural Passive immunity ……
Given Ab in Utero, breastfeeding - In Utero= IgG (G Ma, Thanks) - Breastfeeding = IgA
Artificial Active Immunity….
Injection of attenuated organism (inactive form) -Getting from a needle or syringe e.g. Tetanus Shot
Artificial Passive Immunity….
Injection of preformed antibodies
SN: Anything Ending in -osis is usually acquired or transmitted via the lungs. e.g. Pneumoconiosis, Blastomycosis, Tuberculosis
…. hit 3 and keep moving. YOU WILL PASS Micro Section of Boards… Don’t Give Up!! Hit 5 if you have come to this and Got it down completely.
What cannot be killed by Autoclaving?
Prions
Prions are…..
Acellular protein which denatures other proteins. They CANNOT be Autoclaved.
***A Fomite_____
inanimate object in Vector
Hapten is seen in
Partial antigen or half antigen. -Does NOT stimulate immune reponse.. It must FIRST attach to a protein.
***Hypersensitivity Reactions Pneumonic: A.C.I.D
Anaphylactic- Type I
Cytotoxic - Type II
Immune Complex Mediated- Type III
Delayed Hypersensitivity - Type IV (aka Cell-Mediated)
Neurotoxin
a Toxin that affects the Nervous System e.g. Botulism, Tetanus
Opsonin… Opsonization
Enhances Phagocytosis____ *Marks Target for Strike*
Type I Hypersensitivity (A) What is involved with it?
-Anaphylactic (Immediate) Response -IgE Mediated -Occurs w/in 15-30 Min -Seen in things such as: Asthma, Bee Sting, Hay Fever -Histamine is Released via Mast Cells (Basophils)
Type II Hypersensitivity (C) What is involved with it? Antigen + Antibody
-Cytotoxic -IgG/ IgM Mediated -Occurs Minutes to Hours -Seen in conditions such as: Goodpasteur’s (Lung&Kidneys), Erythoblastosis Fetalis, Myasthenia Gravis Graves Disease (Hyperthyroid)
Type III Hypersensitivity (I) What is Involved? Antigen + Antibody + Compliment
-Immune Complex Mediated -IgG Mediated -Occurs in 3-10 hours -Seen in conditions such as: Glomerulonephritis SLE RA **Arthus Rxn= Local Necrosis **Serum Sickness= Systemic
Type IV Hypersensitivity (D) What is Involved?
-Delayed Hypersensitivity aka Cell-Mediated - T-Cell or Lymphocyte Mediated -Occurs between 24-72 Hours -Seen in Conditions such as: TB Contact Dermatitis (Poison Ivy, Poison Oak) Graft Rejection, etc
What do Autotrophs do?
eat INORGANIC material
What do Heterotrophs do?
eats ORGANIC material
What do Saprophytes do?
eats DEAD/DECAYING material (organic material)
What do Parasites do?
eats off LIVING organisms
Facultative Aerobe….
Prefers O2, but can deal with environment without Oxygen
Facultative Anaerobe…
Prefers NO O2, but can deal with environment with Oxygen
Obligate Aerobe…
ONLY in O2
Obligate Anerobe…
ONLY WITHOUT O2
Symbiosis is____
2 Populations living together, where ONE or BOTH benefit.
Mutualism is _____
2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit
Synergism is_____
2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit AND BOTH accomplish what neither can do alone.
Commensalism is____
2 populations living together, where ONE benefits, and other is Unaffected.
Zoonosis is ….
the transfer of disease from animal to human. e.g. - Anthrax ‘Woolsorter’s Disease’ Respiratory Transmission
Flagella Arrangements
- Monotrichus
- Lophotrichus
- Amphitrichus
- Peritrichus
Ames Test used for…
Carcinogenicity
Mutagenicity
Uses Salmonella Typhimurium
Ascholi Test used for…
Anthrax
ASO titer
Antistreptolysin O Titre. Tests Strep pyogenes Antibodies….
Rheumatic Fever
Babcock Test
checks % of butterfat in Milk
Bile Solubility
Pneumococci vs Alpha Hemolytic Step viridans
***BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand)
Best test for Water Polution
***Catalase
Staph (cat+) vs Strep (cat-)
It separates Staph from Strep
Chick Embryo Culture
Virus Culture (Cannot Grow on Agar)
***Chocolate Agar
aka Thayer Martin Agar
aka Heated Blood Agar
Used for Gonorreah
***Coagulase
Staph Aureus (Coag +) vs Other Staph (Coag -)
Pathogenic vs Non-Pathogenic
Colliform does what for Water Purification?
It checks for E. coli
Determines fecal contamination in water.
Coombs test for what type of antigens?
Tests RBC antigens.
Hemolytic Anemia
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
Rh Factor
*Dick Test primarily used to test for____
Scarlet Fever
***Giemsa Stain used to test for _____
Protozoa
***HLA B27 (the Human Leukocyte Antegen) is testing for____
*Hint= Think PEAR
Seronegative Arthritides
Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthropathy (AS with ulcerative colitis or Crohns)
AS
Reiter’s
HLA DR5/CD4 is used for testing for____
AIDS
Elisa usually tests for DNA
Western Blot checks for Protein
If 2 ELISA (+) then Do a Western Blot test
If Western Blot (+) then it= AIDS
Mannitol Salt tests for____
Staph
Nuchal Rigidity checks for____
Stiff Neck
Looking for Possible Meningitis
***Paul Bunnell Test
Testing Heterophile Agglutination test for Mononucleosis
Phosphatase used to test____
if Milk Pasteurization is adequate. If all phosphatase enzymes is destroyed.
Want to check to see if Milk is HOT enough to kill phosphatase.
MCC of Meningitis is___
Strep pneumoniae
***Sabouraud Agar is used_____
to Test for FUNGI*
Schultz-Carlton rxn is used for______
to check antitoxin reaction to Scarlet Fever
Tissue Culture used as___
a Virus Culture (Cannot grow on agar)
***Weil Felix (serology test)
It is positive for all Rickettsia
EXCEPT: Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)
Antigen for this test= Proteus vulgaris
Widal Test tests for____
Typhoid Fever
Tzank Test looks for____
Altered epitheloid Herpes Zoster & Simplex
also, Varicella
***What are Other tests to Test for Syphilis?
- Treponema Genus
- Spirochete
Non-Vinerial Syphilis YAWS is caused by what?
Trponema Pertenu
***What are tests to check for TB?
- Mantoux Test= Skin Prick test
- PPD
- Delayed Hypersensitivity
- Ziehl Nielson Staining
- Acid Fast (All Mycobacterium are acid Fast)
Pneumonic: My Ass is Fast (Mycobacterium Acid Fast)
-X-Ray
What is the BEST test for TB?
Active Sputum Culture
***Mononucleosis is tested using_____
- Heterophile antibody
- “Heterophile Agglutination” (Paul Bunnell)
- Downey Cell= Atypical lymphocyte on Blood Smear(Pneumonic = “Don’t Let Mono get you down”)
- Monospot
When we are using sterilization or Autoclaving what are we doing?
Steam heat under pressure, this denatures the membranes.
What is Sterilization and Autoclaving innefective against?
Prions
Different Types of Vaccinations include:
- Inactivated (Salk, Rabies)
- Tetanus, Botulism
- Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin
Manufacturing of Vaccines come from:
- Chick Embryo (Measles and Mumps vaccines)
- Human Diploid cells (rubella, rabies, Hep A)
- Monkey Kidney Tissue (Polio)
What type of study is a Case Control?
it ID’s Risk Factors
What does a Double Blind Study do?
Eliminates the Placebo
A Retrospective Study ____
goes back in time.
**When Pus (Purulent) is Blue/Green it indicates____
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (#1 thing seen w/ Cystic Fibrosis)
**When Pus (Purulent) is Red, this indicated ____
Serratia marcenscens
**A White discharge could indicate
Candida albicans
**A White PURULENT Discharge indicates____
Chlamydia
**A Yellow Pus (Purulent) discharge indicates___
Staph Aureus
**A Yellow/Green Pus (Purulent) indicates____
Gonorrhea
Formaldehyde is used for____
to fix Gross Specimens
Iodine (Mordant) is used for____
Pre-op disinfectant
Penicillin (for gram+) does what?
inhibits cell wall synthesis (Peptidoglycan Synthesis)
Tetracycline (for gram- and +) inhibits what?
Protein Synthesis
Also Turns Teeth Gray or Yellow /Brown
_A Broad Spectrum Antibiotic_
Burnet/Metchinkoff did what?
He developed humoral “Phagocytic” theory of immune response
D’Herelle, Felix did what?
Discovered bacteriophage, altered Virus
Ehrlich did what?
Discovered Magic Bullet… First Tx for Syphilis
**What was Flemming Known for?
Discovered Penicillin
**Iwanowski was known for what?
He discovered the First Virus. Tobacco mosaic
***Koch Discovered what? and proved what?
He Proved bacteria “causes” disease
discovered the Anthrax Vaccine
Koch’s 4 Postulates
**Lancefield, Rebecca did what?
classified Streptococcus
Leeuwenhoek did what?
Developed first microscope, and first to see microorganisms
***Pasteur is considered_____
the Father of Pathology, Father of Germ Theory(most famous)
- Came up with Rabies Vaccine
- Pasteurization of wine, then Milk
Walter Reed known for____
Yellow Fever
Sabin is associated with ____
Live Polio vaccine, given orally
Mr. Salk was responsible for____
Dead Polio vaccine, by injection, done before Sabin
Semmelweiss did what?
Came up with washing of hands before delivering baby and significantly reduced Puerperal Fever (aka Childbed Fever).
-Contracted by women after childbirth
Colony Variations: When examining an agar plate, the description of the morphology is:
- D
- H
- M
- O
- R
- S
What do these stand for?
D= Dwarf
H= Spreading
M= Mucoid capsule forming: related to virulence
O= Compact (O vs H)
R= Rough
S= Smooth
R & S stands for Colony Variations
Acid Fast staining is used for____
Mycobacterium
What type of Hemolysis is Alpha?
Partial
Green Ring
E.g. Strep pneumoniae
E.g. Strep viridans= SBE
What type of hemolysis is Beta?
Complete
Clear Ring “Beta is Bad”
E.g. Strep pyogenes
What type of hemolysis is Gamma?
None
Red Ring
E.g. Strep Mutans
Choclate agar is used for?
aka Heated Blood agar
aka Thayer Martin Agar
to check for Gonorrhea
Giemsa used for?
Protozoa
For Gram Staining, what is the Primary Stain?
Crystal violet or methylene blue.
-(Gram -) stains purple/blue
For Gram Staining, what is the Fixer?
Iodine= “Mordant”
For Gram Staining, what is the Decolorizer?
Acetone or Ethyl alcohol (Alcohol wash)
It removes teh crystal violet from thin walled (Gram -) organisms
In Gram Staining, what is the Counterstain?
Saffarin (red/pink color that goes into the Gram(-) organisms
Mannitol Salt is used for?
Staphylococcus
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Conjugation stage?
the Plasmid DNA transfers via sex pilus.
Bestows antimicrobial resistance
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transduction stage?
When the Bacteriophage transfers genetic material between baceria
-Bacteriophage=Altered virus
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transformation stage for?
for Direct uptake of Free DNA
What Does CDC stand for and what is it used for?
Center for Disease Control
- Statistics, NOT RESEARCH
- Compiles Morbidity & Epidemiological Statistics
- Located in Atlanta, GA
- CDC DOES NOT EDUCATE!
What does EPA stand for and what does it do?
Environmental Protection Agency
-Monitors Soil, Air, and Water Quality
**What does FDA stand for and what does it do?
Food & Drugs Administration
-Regulates Health Products Released to the Public
*What is HHS?
Department of Health and Human Services
-Controls FDA, CDC, USPHS (US Public Health Services)
*What is NIH?
National Institute of Health.
- RESEARCH!
- NOT STATISTICS
- Located in Bethesda, Maryland
**What is OSHA?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
- Makes rules concerning occupational toxicity levels of hazardous materials.
- Responsible to Health Services Administration
*What is USDA?
US Department of Agriculture.
-Responsible for milk and milk products.
Emerging Cases?
New Disease or rapid increase of a disease
-AIDS, and EBOLA in USA were examples
An Endemic is_____
Small number of cases in Specific location. Present all the time
An Epidemic is when ____
something Rapidly affects many persons in a certain area within a few days or weeks.
Etiology?
The Study of the cause of disease.
***An Incidence is____
of New cases in a given time period.
-e.g. how many new cases last year?
Pandemic means?
more then expected # of cases of a disease worldwide.
***Prevalence is____
Total # of cases at a particular point in time.
-e.g. Total cases right now?
Leading Causes of Death in Infants
- Congenital Malformations
- Prematurity
Leading Causes of Death in Adults in the US
- Heart Disease
- Cancer
- Stroke
- Respiratory Infection
- Accidents
Leading causes of Death Worldwide
- TB
- Malaria
Water Purification Process Steps
F
F
S
S
S
A
C
Filtration (Filter BIG stuff w/screens)
**Flocculation** (Aluminum trichloride)
Sedimentation (Precipitate Falls)
**Sludge Digestion** (Adds anaerobic bacteria)
Sand Filtration (Removes anaerobic bacteria/ Trickling Filter)
Aeration (adds O2 to Water to improve color and Taste)
Chlorination (Kills Remaining Bacteria)
Worm Types
Pneumonic* Try Ronney First
Tapeworm= Cestodes
Roundworms= Nematodes
Fluke worms= Trematodes
Tapeworms Description
Head
Body
Head= Scolex
Body= Proglottids-egg generating segment
Types of Tapeworms (Cestodes)
Type–> Organism–> Vector–> S/Sx, Notes
Dwarf–> Hymenolepis nana –>Mouth–> Diarrhea
Beef–> Taenia saginata–> Uncooked Beef–>
Pork–> Taenia solium–> Uncooked Pork–> Causes Cysticercosis
Fish–> Diphyllobothrium latum (Fresh Water Fish)–> Mouth, contaminated Sushi–> Causes Pernicious Anemia(B12 def)
Dog/Humans–> Echinococcus granulosus–> Canine Feces–> Hydatid Cysts in liver and Lung
Types of Roundworms (Nematodes)
A
F
H
P
R
R
T
W
Ascariasis–> Oral-Fecal–> Colicky pain, lives in Small intestine
Filiariasis–> Wuchereria bancrofti–>Mosquitoes
Hookworm–> Necator americanus(Bare Foot)–> Fecal Contaminated Soil–> m/c hookworm in US
Pinworm(threadworm)–> m/c helminth in US–> butt itching
River blindness–> Onchocerca volvulus–> Flies–> In Africa
River Eye worm–> Loa Loa–> Flies–. aka “African Eyeworm”
Trichinosis–> Raw Pork–> Lives in Striated Muscles, Dx on X-ray, Biopsy of muscle confirms
Whipworm–> Trichuris Trichura–> oral-fecal–> Weight Loss
Type of Flukes (Trematodes)
B
I
L
P
*Blood–> Shistosoma japonicum–> Infested water, Host Snail–> SWIMMER’s ITCH–> mcc of death by a paracytic worm helminth worlwide!!
Intestinal–> Fasciolopsis buski–> Aquatic Plants–> Contaminated snail feces in plants
Liver–> Clonorchis sinensis–> Raw Contaminated Fish
Pulmonary(Lung)–> Paragonimus westermani–> Crayfish, mouth
What is a Capsomere?
a subunit of a protein coat (“Capsid”) of a virus particle
- Viral envelope= trilamina lipid membrane
What is a Viroid?
ssRNA (single stranded RNA). Infects plants
- Smaller than a virus
Viruses are most commonly transmitted or acquired via?
Respiratory System
EXCEPTIONS:
- Arboviruses/Arthropod borne viruses= Mosquitoes/Encephalitis
- AIDS= Sexual Transmission, IV
- POLIO= oral/fecal
- RABIES= bite from infected animal
- WARTS= skin contact/ casual contact
- HEP A= Oral/Fecal, Humans not carriers
- HEP B= sexual transmission, IV
- HEP C= Transfusion, tattooing
Herpes Simplex:
2 Types
Type 1: Fever Blisters(Cold Sores) ABOVE BELT, can be Trigeminal/Gasserion ganglion
Type 2: Genital Herpes BELOW BELT
What causes shingles in Adults, doesn’t cross the midline, and hides in the DRG? This also follows the dermatome.
HERPES ZOSTER
A pink cauliflower lesion on the female genitalia
Molluscum contagiosum
What causes German measles aka “3-day measles”?
This also causes limb malformation and is most susceptible in 1st trimester.
Rubella
What is considered RED measles?
Causes Koplik spots on buccal mucosa.
“3 Cs: Cough, Coryza(runny nose), Conjunctivitis”
RUBEOLA
***What causes Cow Pox?
**Vaccinia
***What causes maculopapularvesicular rashes, red, elevated and fluid-filled skin lesions?
***Varicella (Chicken Pox)
What causes Small Pox, and are Guarneri bodies?
Variola
Hantavirus is spread by what?
Rodents, including chipmunks (Prairie Dogs)
Polio is spread by
Oral/Fecal contamination.
- Affects the anterior horn (alpha motor)
- Bulbar type produces respiatory paralysis–> MC of Death
- Bulbar–> Brainstem
What virus causes conjunctivitis, pharyngitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
Adenovirus
What virus causes the flu? Has antigenic shift (BIG) and/or drift (small)
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
Influenza
Which of the following is caused by Sidomegalic paramyxoid virus?
This also Causes parotiditis which leads to LMN disease of CN VII (Bells Palsy)
Complications include Sterility from oophritis or orchitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
MUMPS
Which of the following causes croup & bronchiolitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
RSV
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
DO YOU NEED A BREAK FROM THIS CRAP?!
I KNOW I DO!!!
HECK YEA!!!
A mannitol salt augar is used for ______________.
Staphylococcus
Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits ___________.
Transformation
Which of the following are negri bodies seen in?
Rabies
Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity?
Rapid availability of protection
Which of the following release interleukin II?
T-lymphocytes
Which of the following does a virus cause?
Measles
Which of the following describes destruction of all microorganisms?
Sterilization
Fever blisters are associated with which of the following?
Herpes Simplex Type I
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacterium?
Mycobacterium
Which of the following is coagulase positive?
Staph aureus
Which of the following has no cell wall?
Mycoplasma
Peritrichous is a pattern of ____________.
Flagella
Which of the following causes yaws?
Treponema pertenunez
A rapid loss of fluids is associated with which of the following?
Cholera
Which of the following is Reye?s Syndrome associated with?
Influenza
Which of the following is associated with mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr
Which of the following causes atypical primary pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following causes Osteomyelitis?
Staph aureus
Which type of milk is the most apt to cause disease?
Raw
Which of the following organisms causes hemorrhagic jaundice?
Leptospira ictohemorrhagiea
A throat culture predominantly pinpoints beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble is indicative of which of the following pathogens?
Strep pyogenes
Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following cells?
Plasma Cells
The best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea is which of the following?
Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)
If a urine sample contains white blood cells white blood cell casts and bacteria it would indicate which of the following?
Acute Pyelonephritis
Which of the following does the greatest damage to the ozone layer?
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
Trismus is a characteristic finding in which of the following?
Tetanus
Which of the following cell types contain heparin?
Basophil
Which part of complement is the 1st to affix to the cell membrane?
C3B
Which of the following produces helper substances?
CD4
Which infection predisposes a child to Reye?s Syndrome?
Influenza
Which of the following bacteria transmit drug resistors?
Plasmids
Which of the following cause hookworm disease?
Necator americans
Which of the following cause pinworm disease?
Enterohius vermicularis
Which of the following cause round worms?
Ascariasis lumbricoides
Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?
IgG
Which of the following cell types work together with T-lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?
Macrophages
Which of the following government agencies is not a part of the US Public Health Service?
Communicable disease Center
Which of the following diseases cause weight loss abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?
Giarada
Which of the following is responsible for lymes disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following etiological agents causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazeki
Which genera are responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?
Escherichia (E. coli)
Which of the following parasites causes blackwater fever?
Plasmodium falciparum
Which factor is responsible for making influenza pandemic?
Antigenic Shift
Which of the following routes transmits mycoplasma hormone?
Sexual
____________ causes childhood dysentery.
Coxsackie Virus B
_________ is a eukaryotic organism.
Protozoa
The DPT vaccine offers which type of immunity?
Artificial Active
Organism of which genera usually cause allergic reactions?
Aspergillus
Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
Bacterium
______ is the usual cause of bladder infections.
E. coli
________ is the immunoglobulin which can be detected early in an infectious process.
IgM
Motor viruses primarily affect which system?
Nervous
Which of the following most commonly causes impetigo contagious?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Blue green pus in a wound indicates the presence of which of the following organisms?
Pseudomonas aeriginosa
What is the most common organism to affect a patient with AIDS?
Pneumocytstic carinii
The helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide belongs to which genera?
Schistosoma (found in water)
________ cells process antigen.
Macrophages
_________ can penetrate unbroken skin.
Schistosoma mansoni
Which of the following does a vector not transmit?
Fever
Which of the following is a result of the reaction between soluble antigen and a specific antibody?
Precipitation
Vitamin B12 deficiency often results from which worm infestation?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Organisms from which genera are used as antigen in the diagnosis of Rickettsia disease?
Proteus
Destroying the larva of parasites from the genera Ascariasis Schistosoma and Trichinella is a distinctive function of ___________.
Eosinophils
Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?
Staph aureus
Which parasite is most apt to infect the person who has been walking barefoot in a pile of feces?
Necatur americans
Which of the exhibits a gray pseudomembrane?
Diphtheria
Pasteurization is complete when the ___________ organism has been killed.
Brucellosis
What is the purpose of pasteurization?
To stop the growth of Bacteria
Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?
Pus Formation
Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?
Leptospira interrogans
Which of the following causes Legionnaire?s Disease?
Bacteria
Which of the following sexually transmitted organisms causes Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and infertility?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following causes Bacillary Dysentery?
Shigella
What is a common characteristic of diphtheria?
Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane
Which of the following increases when a parasitic infection is present?
Eosinophils
Which of the following is the primary pathological consequence of Malarial infection?
Erythrocyte Destruction
Which of the following diseases is a result of phage induction in Staphylococci?
Osteomyelitis
Bacterial capsules are generally composed of a high molecular weight. Which of the following is one?
Polysaccharides
Respiratory syncytial virus is the major cause of Bronchiolitis and Pneumonia in which of the following?
Infants
Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik spots?
Rubella
Bacteria which grows @ 55øc or higher are known as __________.
Thermophile
Which of the following organisms cause hard black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?
Piedri hortae
Which of the following is primarily found in hard water?
Calcium Magnesium and Salts
Which of the following conditions is caused by Clostridium perfungies?
Gas Gangrene
Which of the following immunoglobulins mediates type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgE
Which of the following has been implicated in river blindness?
Onchocerca
The Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine provided immunity against which of the following?
Tuberculosis
What is the virus that causes Gengivostomatitis?
Herpes Simplex I
Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?
Respiratory Inhalation
Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Influenza pandemic occurs because of which of the following?
Antigenic shift
Which of the following parasites causes Cysticercosis?
Taenia solium
Which of the following increases the immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?
Immunoglobulins
Which of the following is associated with an encapsulated Diplococcus?
Neisseria
Chlorinated hydrocarbons that are stored in the bone can be most destructive to which of the following?
CNS
Which of the following organisms is most responsible for fecal contamination of water?
E. coli
Which of the following sources of water contain the most sulfur?
Rain Water
Which of the following is the step before flocculation in water treatment?
Filtration
Which of the following elements is prevalent in significant amounts in ground water?
Radon
Which of the following cells in the plasma contain interleukin II?
T-lymphocytes
Which of the following is involved in the transmission of Hepatitis A?
Ingestion
The causative agent of ringworm is a ______________.
Fungus
Which of the following organisms cause thrush?
Candida albicans
Coccidioidomycosis is a fungus that affects which of the following?
Lungs
Which of the following can aggravate C-3?
Plasmin
Which of the following is found in the infectious stage of Necator americanus?
Trophozoite
Which of the following cells produce interleukin I?
Mononuclear Phagocytes
Which of the following cells produce Histamine?
Mast Cells
Scolex on a tapeworm is for which of the following?
Attachment to Intestinal Mucosa
Transmission of Herpes II from mother to newborn is _____________.
Perinatal
Secondary amoebic infection will spread to which organ?
Liver
What causes Otitis media?
Hemophiles influenza
Conjugation involves which of the following structures?
Pilus
What is the cause of a heroin addict who has fever tremors muscles spasms and red streaks over the injection site?
Strep pyogenes
Which of the following causes stomach ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
Which of the following is the vector of St. Louis encephalitis?
Mosquito
Which of the following is found in farmers who breathe in hay or grain dust?
Farmers Lung
Ringworm is diagnosed using which of the following?
Ultra Violet (woods lamp)
In what phase do bacteria divide @ a constant rate?
Log
Which of the following is the Vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Tick
What has been responsible for the greatest increase in life expectancy?
Control of Infectious Disease
Which of the following is most apt to be found in a muscle biopsy?
Trichimonis
Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
Shigella (contaminated soil)
Zehl Nelson stain is used to detect which of the following?
Acid Fast Bacilli
Which of the following diseases is spread via the fecal/oral route?
Polio
Which of the following strains of E. coli cause travelers diarrhea?
Entertoxogenic
Schistosoma affects what part of the body?
Blood
Which of the following causes fungal infection of the lung?
Histoplasmosia and Coccidiomycosis
Which of the following causes acute Osteomyelitis?
Staph aureus
Clostridium ___________ causes gas gangrene and myconecrosis.
Perfringens
Which of the following is a process by which colloidal particles settle out from solution?
Flocculation
Penicillin acts by preventing formation of _______ in bacteria.
Peptioglycans
Which of the following pathogens causes Colitis secondary to antibiotic treatment?
Clostridium difficile
Which of the following is in saliva and tears?
IgA
Which of the following U.S. Government Agency compiles data on outbreaks of disease?
CDC (center for disease control)
Which of the following is a cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Strep viridians
Epidemic parotitis is associated with ___________.
Mumps
What organism causes diphtheria?
Bacterium
What cells produce antibodies in response to an antigen?
Plasma Cells
What is the most common hookworm in the U.S.?
Necator americanus
Tetanus toxoid neutralizes _________________.
Circulating Toxins
Active digestion of organic material occurs @ which stage of sewage treatment?
Trickling
Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall?
Mycoplasma
Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for lab experiment standards?
NIH (nation institute of health)
Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Erythromatous ring seen in scarlet fever comes from which of the following?
Strep
Which organism is responsible for common form food poisoning?
Staph aureus
Trypansoma gambiense primarily affects what?
Brain
Which of the following cells produces Interleukin II?
T-Helper Cells
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most predominant in the neonate?
IgG
Which scientist is credited with bacterial transformation?
Griffith
Recent outbreaks from E. coli are due to which of the following?
Enteropathogenic
The incidence of disease is best defined as the total number of ____________.
New Cases Appearing In A Given Time
What type of food poisoning is obtained from improperly canned foods?
Botulism
Which of the following is toxic does not have DNA but still has protein?
Prion
Which of the following organisms causes Rheumatic Fever?
Group A Lancefield
Hepatic Whitlow occurs in which of the following?
Fingers
Which of the following agencies writes and publishes literature?
WHO
Salk vaccine is considered to be ______________.
Inactive Polio
How does UV radiation destroy organisms?
Destroys The DNA
Which of the following causes Scalded Skin Syndrome?
Staph aureus
When there is an epidemic spread of a disease which of the following is most important?
The Vector
Which of the following transmits Hepatitis A?
Fecal/Oral
Which of the following causes rice water stools?
Cholera
Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat resistant strains of Staph aureus?
Vancomycin
Iodine used in gram staining is considered a __________.
Modant
Which of the following causes symptoms similar to Mono?
Cytomegalovirus
Which of the following produces a toxin that does not allow Ach to be released @ the myoneural junction?
Clostridium tetani
Which of the following is catalase and coagulase negative?
Staph aureus
Which of the following parasites is found around the anus and is detected by the scotch tape test?
Enterobius vermicu
Which of the following is the most common PID?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Exposure to chickenpox and measles will impart which of the following immunities?
Natural Active
Which of the following is the organism most responsible for urinary tract infection?
E. coli
Trypanosonia cruzi is the organism that causes ______________.
Chagas Disease
The etiological agent of Lymes Disease is _______________.
Borrelia Burgdorferi
Which of the following is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE
Salmonella poisoning is most commonly due to ingestion of ______ and ________.
Eggs and Poultry
Which process has contributed to the decline in the incidence of food poisoning?
Proper Cooking
Which organism most commonly affects AIDS patients?
Fungus
Lymphocytes release _________ in response to a viral infection.
Interferon
Which of the following is a causative agent in smallpox?
Variola
Candylomata lata are found in what stage of Syphilis?
Secondary
Which of the following is used to measure sewage contamination?
Coliforms
Which of the following Rickettsia diseases is found in contaminated milk?
Q Fever
Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction?
B-Lymphocytes
What is the most common way to be infected by Toxoplasmosis?
Feline Feces
The presence of a red streak that appears along the course of a blood vessel would indicate development of ____________.
Bacteremia
Which of the following is the Federal Agency that sets lab standards?
NIH
The ELISA Test is for ________.
AIDS
Which of the following Federal Agencies sets the standards for the work place?
OSHA
Which of the following has pear shaped double nuclei and 4 pair of flagella?
Giardia lamblia
Which of the following Federal Agencies funds research?
NIH
Which of the following is a characteristic of Staph aureus?
Active and Invasive Opportunist
What zoonosis disease do spores spread?
Anthrax
What is the mode of transmission for German Measles?
Respiratory Droplets
Which scientist is responsible for the prevention of food borne disease?
Pasteur
Which of the following Government Agencies focuses on biomedical research?
NIH
A 10 year old with a stiff neck severe headache nausea vomiting 104ø temperature tachycardia and meningitis without a rash has what?
Equine encephalitis
Which of the following results in passive naturally acquired immunity?
Breast Feeding
What is the 1st line of human cellular defense against viral infection?
Humoral Response
Which bacteria are primarily responsible for spontaneous abortion in cattle?
Brucclia
What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?
Intestine
Which of the following consumes inorganic material?
Autotroph
The brain and the peripheral nervous system produce which of the following immunoregulatory chemicals?
Interleukin I (macrophage) Gamma Globulins (B-cells)
Which of the following does Herpes Simplex Type II cause?
Genital Herpes
The rash caused by Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever originates in which of the following areas of the body?
Ankles and Wrist
Which of the following conditions are caused by Staph aureus?
Carbuncles Emphentygo Osteomyelitis Scalded Skin Syndrome Toxic Shock
A mature adult parasite makes its permanent home in the ______________.
Definitive Host
The common cold is spread via _________.
Air
AIDS virus attacks which of the following?
CD4 and Cytotoxic T-Cells
What is the most common fungal condition in the Ohio Valley and Mississippi Valley areas?
Histoplasmosis
Protozoa are found in water in which of the following forms?
Cyst Form
What is the function of a bacterial capsule?
Prevents Bacterial Phagocytosis
Delayed hypersensitivity is _______________.
Cell Mediated
Which of the following fluoresces under light?
Pseudomonas aeriginosa
Which of the following is associated with childhood dysentery?
Coxsackie Virus
What is the most likely outcome of a Hepatitis A Virus infection?
Full Recovery
What is the most likely cause if a patient presents with blurred vision 103ø temperature fever diarrhea and headache?
Clostridium botulinum
What is the mode of transmission for Wool Sorters Disease?
Inhalation of Bacillus anthrax spores
Trismus (lock jaw) is caused by which of the following?
Clostridium Tetani
Extrinsic asthma is characterized by increased _____________.
Serum IgE Levels
What is the most common cause of lead poisoning in the U.S.?
Industrial Waste
Parasitic infections will increase which of the following?
Eosinophils
What type of immunity is imparted to a person who has taken DPT vaccine?
Artificial Active
Ingestion and digestion of solid foods by cells of the body is ____________.
Phagocytosis
Which of the following causes Baciliary dysentery?
Shigella
Iodine functions as a ______________ in gram staining procedure.
Mordant
Which of the following causes Thrush?
Candida albicans
Which of the following is Acid Fast?
Mycobacterium
Which of the following causes blue-green pus?
Pseudomonas aeriginosa
Which of the following is the most appropriate test to determine acid-fast bacilli?
Ziehl Nielson
What is the function of a bacterial capsid?
Protects Nuclear material
What is the probable cause of a 4 year old that presents with upper respiratory infection pharyngitis laryngitis a red pharynx and a 102ø fever?
Hemophilus influenza
What is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea?
Reovirus
Antibodies which provide immunity against Streptococcus pneumoniae react with the __________________.
Capsular Polysaccharide
What is the best way to test for Typhus?
Blood
What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?
Sandfly
Negri bodies are found in ____________.
Rabies
Which of the following does not produce an exotoxin?
Baciliary dysentery
Which of the following produce exotoxin?
Clostridium tetani Staph aureus Strep pyogenes
Water borne infections are derived mostly from _______________.
Giardia lamblia
Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following?
Pathogenic Staph
How is Hepatitis Virus vaccine produced?
Synthetically Manufactured
A patient with koplik spots probably is infected with what?
Rubella
A Darkfield microscope is used to identify which of the following?
Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
Coliform count is used to detect which of the following?
Inadequate Sewage Disposal
Microorganisms that live @ 20-45ø C are classified as which of the following?
Mesophiles
BCG vaccine is used to prevent which of the following?
TB
Who is the scientist responsible for categorizing Streptococci?
Lancefield
Which of the following produces hard red non-painful lesions on the penis?
Syphilis
Which of the following is responsible for San Joaquin Valley Fever?
Coccidiodes immitis
Which portion of the body is most affected by the Herpes Virus?
Nervous System
What is the most common method of transmission for hookworm infection?
Through the Skin
Precipitation from solution in the form of fleecy masses is the definition for which of the following?
Flocculation
Which of the following carries Equine encephalitis?
Mosquito
What is the worst form of malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium fits into which of the following categories?
Protozoa
A severe lack of both B and T lymphocytes is associated with which of the following?
Leukemia
Retrovirus is typically ____ to ______.
RNA DNA
Which of the following is the reason that the FDA requires pasteurization of eggs across state lines?
To Prevent Salmonella
The Fluke known as Paragonia westermani is found in the _______.
Lung
A rash on the hands and feet is characteristic of which of the following?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Which of the following does not display immunoglobulin?
Type IV
Ascariasis lumbricoides is transmitted via which of the following?
Fecal/Oral
Mast cells are most closely correlated with which of the following?
Basophiles
Which of the following is not fully funded by the Federal Government?
CDC
Genital Herpes is associated with which of the following?
Type II Herpes
Herpes Simplex I is associated with which of the following?
Sores
Which of the following fungi cause jock itch?
Tinea cruris
The largest portion of air pollution in the U.S. comes from _______________.
Carbon Monoxide
Which of the following organisms is associated with Lymes disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following have flagella @ both ends?
Peritrichous
Vibrio cholera will produce which of the following?
Water and Mucous in the Stool
Which of the following is associated with inflammation of the nerves in the face and brain?
Herpes
What is the secondary step in sewage treatment?
Use of Microorganisms to Digest Materials
Which of the following cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsia rickettsia
Chloride plus water results in which of the following?
Hydrochloric Acid
Putting in ____________ cleans a septic tank.
Microorganisms
Which of the following is an immune complex performed by the body?
C1-C4-C3-C5
Delayed hypersensitivity is associated with which of the following?
Type IV Cell Mediated Response
What is the diagnosis for a 30-year-old male who presents with a fever and skin lesions that appear as eccentric rings on the trunk?
Lymes Disease
Which of the following is associated with Gas Gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following does a vector not transmit?
Q Fever
Which of the following is associated with the common cold?
Rhinovirus
Hemophilus influenza is most dangerous for ____________.
Newborns
Shigella causes which of the following?
Bacillary dysentery
Rose-colored spots on the abdomen are associated with which of the following?
Salmonella Typhosa
T-helper cells activate which of the following?
B-lymphocytes
Which of the following immunological reactions does not display immunoglobulin response?
Type IV
What is the fungus that affects the body?
Tinea corporis
Which of the following can spread the common cold?
Air and Fomites
A foul smelling fishy discharge is associated with which of the following?
Gardenella Vaginalis
What are plantar warts caused by?
Virus
Which of the following is the diagnostic test for Tb?
Mantoux
Which of the following spreads epidemic typhus?
Body Lice
What is the etiological agent that causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazeki
What are the genera responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?
E. coli
Which of the following cause Black Water Fever?
Plasmodium falciforum
How is Mycoplasma homonis transmitted?
Sexually
Which of the following is a Eukaryotic organism?
Protozoa
Which genera cause allergic reactions?
Aspergillus
Which of the following causes whooping cough?
Bacterium
Which of the following is detected earliest in the infection process?
IgM
Motor viruses primarily affect which of the following?
Nervous System
Impetigo contagiosa is most commonly caused by ____________.
Strep pyogenes
What is the most common organism to affect a person with AIDS?
Pneumolcystis carinii
Which of the following is the Helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide?
Schistosoma
Which of the following cells process antigen?
Macrophages
Which of the following can penetrate unbroken skin?
Schistosoma mansoni
Which of the following results in a reaction between a soluble antigen and a specific antibody?
Precipitation
Which of the following causes a B12 deficiency?
Diphyllobothrium latum (fishworm)
A throat culture that produces pinpoint beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and in chains which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble would indicate which of the following?
Strep pyogenes
Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following?
Plasma Cells
What is the best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea?
Chocolate Agar
If a urine sample has WBC?s WBC casts RBC?s and Bacteria in it you should investigate for which of the following?
Acute Pyelonephritis
Which of the following contain heparin?
Basophiles and Mast Cells
Which is the 1st part of the complement to affix to the cell membrane?
C3B
Which of the following produces helper substances?
CD4
Which of the following infections predisposes a child to Reye?s Syndrome?
Influenza
Which of the following transmits drug resistors?
Plasmids
Which of the following cause hookworm disease?
Necator americanus
Which of the following crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?
IgG
Which of the following work with T-Cells to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?
Macrophages
Which of the following is not part of the U.S. Public Health Services?
CDC
Which of the following causes weight loss abdominal pain mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?
Giardia lamblia
Which of the following is TB in the spine?
Pott?s
What is the envelope around the capsid derived from?
Host Cell Membrane
What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?
Intestine
Which of the following causes a fungus ball in the lung?
Aspergillus
Where does the highest number of anaerobic bacterial growth occur in sewage treatment?
Sludge
Which of the following is associated with the causative agent of mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr
Which of the following causes hemorrhagic jaundice?
Leptospira ictohemorrhagea
Which of the following is associated with encapsulated diplococcus?
Neisseria
Chlorinated hydrocarbons that enter the body through the bone can be most destructive to the ___________.
CNS
Which of the following water sources contain the most sulfur?
Rain Water
What is the step subsequent to (after) flocculation in water treatment?
Sedimentation
What are the steps of water treatment in order?
Flocculation Sedimentation Filtration Aeration
At what stage is backwashing used in drinking water treatment?
Filtration
Which of the following is present in significant amounts in ground water sources?
Radon
Which cells in plasma contain interleukin II?
T- lymphocytes
Where do malarial parasites reproduce?
Inside RBC?s
Which of the following can activate C3?
Plasmin
Which of the following is found in the infective stage of Necator americanus?
Trophozoite
Which of the following is a result of phage induction in Staphylococcus?
Osteomyelitis
Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in which of the following?
Infants
What is the etiological agent of mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr
A patient from South America presents with coffee ground vomiting and severe nosebleeds. He relates a history of severe headaches for the past 4 days jaundice body aches insomnia and nausea. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
Yellow Fever
Bacteria which grow @ 55øC or higher are _____________.
Thermophiles
Which of the following cause black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?
Piedri hortae
What are the properties of Streptococcus as a result of lysogenic conversion?
Erythrogenic Toxin
Which Federal Agency regulates the management of hazardous waste?
EPA
Which of the following mediate Type I hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE
Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine (BCG) provides immunity against which of the following?
TB
Which virus causes gengivostomatitis?
Herpes Simplex I
Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?
Inhalation
Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?
Neisseria gonorrhea
Which of the following causes cysticercosis?
Taenia solium
What is the most common cause of death in the U.S.?
Heart Disease
What would be the diagnosis for a child who presents with a rash around the buttocks due to a parasitic condition?
Enterobius vermicularis
What is the most common symptom of Cholera?
Rice Water Stools
Which of the following is the vector for Western Equine Encephalitis?
Mosquito
A gray pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is associated with which of the following?
Diphtheria
Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?
Pus Formation
Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?
Leptospira interrogans
Fungi imperfecti are so named because of what reason?
No Sexual Spores
Which of the following is a common characteristic of diphtheria?
Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane
What is the primary pathological consequence of malaria?
Erythrocyte Destruction
What is the primary allergen to which a child reacts in barley rye and wheat?
Gluten
The toxoid for tetanus produces which of the following forms of immunity?
Artificial Active
The TB skin test represents which of the following responses?
Type IV Delayed
Which of the following kills all microbes?
Autoclaving
Which of the following do mites transmit?
Scabies
What substance found in milk determines if pasteurization has been properly accomplished?
Phosphatase
Where does a mature tapeworm live?
Small Intestine
What is the diagnosis for a person who has just moved to Arizona and develops a dry cough associated with climatic conditions?
Coccidiomycosis
Which of the following passes through the placenta?
IgG
Which of the following is most prevalent?
IgG
Which of the following best describes the TB test?
Delayed Hypersensitivity
Which of the following supplies money to local doctors for research?
NIH
What is the stage of water purification that removes most of the bacteria?
Sedimentation
Which type of sterilization is most suited for instruments used in surgery?
Moist Heat
What does an excessive amount of fluoride in drinking water cause?
Mottled Teeth
Which of the following is a fungus of the scalp?
Tinea Capitis
Which of the following is most dangerous to newborns?
Staph aureus
What is the most common way that Legionnaire?s disease is spread?
Respiratory Droplets
Which of the following causes Chaga?s disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
A patient presents with normal body temperature widespread muscle spasm and muscle guarding in the abdominal area. What do these symptoms suggest?
Botulism
Type IV delayed immunological reaction will affect which of the following?
Lymphocytes
What do T-helper cells activate?
B-lymphocytes
What is the best test to perform to determine the pollution of water?
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
Which of the following is an example of a Type I reaction?
Bronchial Asthma
Which of the following is an immunoglobulin associated with Type I?
IgE
Which immunoglobulin is found in Gastric Mucosa?
IgA
Methyl gas causes cancer of the __________.
Kidney
There is no vaccine for which of the following?
Rhinovirus
Cook pork to avoid which of the following?
Trichinella spiralis
Antibodies respond to antigens via _____________.
B-lymphocytes
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
IgG
Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type II hypersensitivity?
IgG and IgM
Which of the following has both endotoxin and exotoxin?
Shigella dysentery
Pink Eye is associated with which of the following?
Haeomphilus aegypticus
Which of the following is an air-borne carcinogen?
Benzopyrene
Which of the following is associated with infant botulism?
Raw Honey
Which of the following has been eliminated from society?
Variolla
Which of the following secrete histamine?
Basophiles
What is the result of warm moist heat on cell membranes?
Protein Denaturization
Which types of Hepatitis can you get from a blood transfusion?
Hepatitis B and C
Soap added to a sterilizing agent will do which of the following?
Increase The Bacteriocidal Potential
Who is considered to be the father of immunology?
Pasteur
Which of the following is associated with muscle spasms and calcification of skeletal muscle?
Trichimonis spiralis
Which of the following produce the most circulating antibodies?
Plasma Cells
Infant methemoglobinemia is due to which of the following?
Nitrate
Which of the following is a lung disease due to iron dust inhalation?
Siderosis
The most effective sterilization technique in a lab is ___________.
Autoclaving
Which of the following is an air pollutant that causes headaches and dizziness?
Carbon Monoxide
Contaminated milk transmits which of the following?
Q Fever
Herpes Simplex does not create which of the following?
Lifetime Immunity
Flocculation is involved in which of the following?
Colloid Aggregation During Sewage Treatment
Bladder infections are most commonly due to which of the following?
E. coli
Opsonins agglutinins lysins and precipitins are which of the following?
Antibodies
Which of the following diminishes riboflavin?
Milk Left Standing in Light
Black death is due to which of the following?
Yersenia pestis
Which of the following can be found in unpasteurized milk?
Brucella abortis
Why are flu vaccines sometimes not effective?
Different Strains
Why is a vaccine for the common cold not feasible?
The multiplicity of it
What type of organism uses molecular O2 as the final electron acceptor?
Obligate Aerobe
An autotroph consumes which of the following?
Inorganic Materials
Neisseria gonorrhea can be best identified in which of the following?
Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)
Childhood dysentery is due to which of the following?
Coxsackie Virus
Safarin is used in which staining technique?
Gram Stain
Herpes Simplex produces a latent infection where?
Nervous System
What is the purpose of iodine use in gram staining?
Fixer (mordant)
A virus capsid is made up of which of the following?
Protein
Which of the following are classified by their method of locomotion?
Protozoa
What is the test to determine whether or not complete pasteurization has been achieved?
Phosphatase Test
Q Fever is due to which of the following?
Coxiella burnetti
What is the name of the serology test for Rickettsia?
Weil felix
Histoplasma is a fungal infection that mimics which of the following?
TB
Bacterial cell walls are made up of __________________.
Peptidoglycans
What is iodine used for in pre-op?
Disinfectant
Lymph node enlargement is not associated with ________.
Cholera
The heaviest and largest immunoglobulin is ____.
IgM
Microbial pollution is eliminated via which of the following?
Sand Filtration
Who discovered yellow fever?
Reed
Chymosis (bruising) is seen with which of the following?
Scurvy
Which of the following increases immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?
Immunoglobulins
Which of the following can cross the placenta and affect the fetus?
Rubella
Exotoxins can act upon ____________ cell walls.
Phospholipid
Which of the following contributes to environmental problems?
Automobiles
Which of the following is an arbovirus?
Western Equine Encephalitis
Penicillin affects bacteria by interfering with synthesis of ______________.
Peptidoglycans
The kissing bug causes which of the following?
Chaga?s Disease
The State Health Department is responsible for maintaining which of the following?
Mortality Rates
Where are nosocomial infections acquired?
Hospitals
Why is chlorine added to treated sewage?
To Destroy Residual Microbes
Red spots on the face are associated with which of the following?
Cutaneous Anthrax Infection
Streptobacillus is the agent of which of the following?
Rat Bite Fever
The sedimentation stage of water purification removes most of the _________.
Bacteria
Anaphylaxis is associated with which of the following?
Type I Hypersensitivity
Which of the following organisms oxidize inorganic matter for energy?
Autotrophs
Which of the following organisms require organic matter for energy?
Heterotrophs
Which of the following use dead decaying matter for energy?
Saprophytes
Which of the following feed on living matter for energy?
Parasites
Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which 1 or both benefit?
Symbiosis
Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit?
Mutualism
Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit and both accomplish what neither can do alone?
Synergism
Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which one benefits and the other is unaffected?
Commensalism
Which of the following are tests for syphilis?
Darkfield Kahn Kline TPI VDRL Wasserman
Which of the following are tests for tuberculosis?
Acid Fast = Ziehl Nielson Stain BCG = TB vaccine Mantoux Test Tine Test
Which of the following are pasteurization methods?
Flash Holding Method Ultrahigh Method
