Microbiology Pt 1 Study Guide Flashcards
Eukaryotes
True Nucleus, Organelles, Human Cells, protozoa like GIARDIA and AMOEBA
Prokaryotes
NO True Nucelus, NO Organelles (No Mitochondria) ex: Bacteria
Type of Bacilli for Anthrax (wool Sorta disease) Gram + Rods
Bacillaceae (spore-formers)—> Bacillus, Clostridium- anaerobic
Leprocy= Hanson’s Disease
Lactobacillaceae–> Lactobacillus
Mycobacteriaceae (Acid-Fast Bacilli)
Mycobacteria
Neisseriaceae (Gram -)
Neisseria (coffee bean shaped org) Diplacoccus
Legionelaceae - Legionella
Legionaires Disease (SPREAD by Water Droplets)
Paramyxoviridae
-Measles Virus -Mumps Virus -Respiratory Syncytial Virus
Orthomyxoviridae
-Influenza Virus A -Influenza Virus B -Influenza Virus C
Coronaviridae
Corona Virus - Epidemic in CHINA 2002 (SARS)
Rhabdoviridae
Rabies Virus
Filoviridae
Ebola Virus Marburg Virus (Causes Hemmorhagic Fever)
Bunyaviridae
Hantavirus (Spread by Chipmunks or PRAIRIE DOGS)
Reoviridae
Revirus, Rotavirus (MCC of Diarrhea in Children)
Picornaviridae
-Rhinovirus -Poliovirus -ECHO Virus -Coxsackie
Togaviridae
Rubella Virus Western & Eastern Equine Encephalitis
Flaviviridae
Dengue Virus Yellow Fever Virus (Virus that causes JAUNDICE)
Caliciviridae
Norwalk Virus (Causes Gastroenteritis) - Cause of Diarrhea on Cruise Ships
Out of the 5 types of Ebola, how many of them cause Diarrhea?
4/5
How many binding sites are on IgA antibodies?
8
IgA is responsible for______
-Secretory Antibody(Mucosal Antibody) -Mucous Membrane (Saliva, Tears) (Buys time to ID Invader) -Breast Milk (This is how baby will get its protection): Baby will have ‘Leaky Gut’ for up to a year, so its important they get Mothers Breast Milk)
IgD does what?
Helps IgG become stimulated
IgE is seen where and involved with what rxs?
Seen in Type I Hypersensitivity w/ - Parasitic Infections - Allergic Rxns - Increases in Hodgkin’s Disease (Intense Itching ‘Puritis’) *Reed-Sternberg Cells*
IgG antibodies is involved in what?
First to Increase (second exposure) -Most Numerous -Crosses Placenta (G-Ma Thanks) -Anamnestic Response “without amnesia” IgG NEVER Forgets *Have disease first time, then body remembers and mounts same IgG response next time.*
What antibody is made in the baby first?
IgM
IgM has how many binding sites?
10 (Pentamer) Non-Specific
IgM is…. a. Largest and Heaviest b. Smallest and Lightest c. Largest and Fastest d. Smallest and Heaviest
a. Largest and Heaviest *Because it has NO idea what it is going to fix or attack*
Interleukin I (Lymphocyte Activating Factor) is made by _____ and primarily for ______ and ______ tissue.
-Made by Macrophages -For Brain and Nervous Tissue
Interleukin II (T-Cell Growth Factor) is made by _______ cells which is shut down by the AIDS virus. These cells also are considered T-Helper cells and DIRECT the response of the Immune System.
CD4 cells
Interleukin III is made by _______, and is in Blood and Lymphatic System.
Big Bone Marrow
MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) has 4 Major Functions…. *Hint* Each is involved with Type 4 Hypersensitivity Rxn/ Delayed Type Hypersensitivity
-Act as a post on Surface (self vs. non-self) -Involved with tissue graft rejection & organ rejection -T-Cells recognize MHC I - B-Cells recognize MHC I & II
5 Diseases Caused by Staph Aureus sn: SA produces alpha toxin aka alpha hemolysin Pneumonic: S.T.O.I.C
-Scalded Skin Syndrome -Toxic Shock -Osteomyelitis (SA Mcc of this)(Dead Bone=Sequestrium/ New Bone= Involucrum/ Sinus Drainage= Colca) -Impetigo (#1) (Infection of child around mouth, honey crusted lesion around mouth) -Carbuncles (Furuncles ‘infected hair follicles’ or BOIL a ‘Car…Load of furuncles’
6 Diseases Caused by Strep Pyogenes Pnemonic: S.E.R.G.I.S
-Strep Throat (Imbalance in Immune System) -Erysipelas (Superficial Cellulitis ‘inflammation of Dermis’) -Rheumatic Fever -Glomerulonephritis (RBC’s in Urine w/ mild Proteinuria) -Impetigo (#2) -Scarlet Fever (Strawberry Tongue)
Complement Systems purpose is to Enhance_____ or _____ _______
… enhance Phagocytosis or cellular lysis
Pathway of the Complement System (Antigen - Antibodies)
-The Classical (Ag-Ab) and Alternate (e.g. Sheep RBC’s) pathways meet at C3B -C5b-C9= Membrane attack complex (Terminal Compliment Complex)….This Attacks the Bacteria
Aschoff (Inclusion Bodies) gives rise to
Rheumatic Fever (McCallums Patch)
Councilman Cells gives rise to _____
Viral Hepatitis
****DOWNEY CELL gives rise to ______
Mononucleosis (Don’t Let Mono get you DOWN) -Atypical Lymphocytes are seen with Mono
Epithelioid Hystiocyte is seen with_____
TB (Giant Epitheliod cells)
Ghon Complex is seen with ______
TB (Inactive Phase)… Calcium ‘jail’ around mycobacterium
Guarneri Bodies is seen with ______
Small Pox (Variola)
Gummas is seen with _______
Tertiary Syphilis
Koplik Spots is seen with ______
Measles (Rubeola/red measles) On Bucal Mucosa –> White/Bluish spots
**Lipofuscin is associated with ____
Old Age Pigment… Lipid Residue
Build up = “BROWN’S ATROPHY”
A build up of Lipofuscin in the organ will cause what pathology?
Brown Atrophy
Lewy Bodies is associated with ______
Parkinson’s aka Paralysis Agitans
***Negri Bodies is associated with _____
Rabies (Hydrophobia)
Reed Sternberg is seen with____
Hodgkin’s
Russell Bodies is seen where and associated with what?
In Plasma Cells. Consists of Antibodies. Is commonly associated with Multiple Myeloma (Plasma Cell Leukemia)
T-Cells are from that organ?
Thymus
B-Cells are from where?
Bone Marrow (Makes the Plasma Cells which in turn makes the Globulins)
Active Immunity_____
…Must actively make Antibodies (Ab) (MAKES OWN ANTIBODIES)
Passive Immunity______
….person is GIVEN the Antibodies (RECEIVES ANTIBODIES FROM OUTSIDE)
Natural Active immunity…..
A person is exposed to the disease–> Body Reacts -e.g. Measles, Chicken Pox triggers antibody production
Natural Passive immunity ……
Given Ab in Utero, breastfeeding - In Utero= IgG (G Ma, Thanks) - Breastfeeding = IgA
Artificial Active Immunity….
Injection of attenuated organism (inactive form) -Getting from a needle or syringe e.g. Tetanus Shot
Artificial Passive Immunity….
Injection of preformed antibodies
SN: Anything Ending in -osis is usually acquired or transmitted via the lungs. e.g. Pneumoconiosis, Blastomycosis, Tuberculosis
…. hit 3 and keep moving. YOU WILL PASS Micro Section of Boards… Don’t Give Up!! Hit 5 if you have come to this and Got it down completely.
What cannot be killed by Autoclaving?
Prions
Prions are…..
Acellular protein which denatures other proteins. They CANNOT be Autoclaved.
***A Fomite_____
inanimate object in Vector
Hapten is seen in
Partial antigen or half antigen. -Does NOT stimulate immune reponse.. It must FIRST attach to a protein.
***Hypersensitivity Reactions Pneumonic: A.C.I.D
Anaphylactic- Type I
Cytotoxic - Type II
Immune Complex Mediated- Type III
Delayed Hypersensitivity - Type IV (aka Cell-Mediated)
Neurotoxin
a Toxin that affects the Nervous System e.g. Botulism, Tetanus
Opsonin… Opsonization
Enhances Phagocytosis____ *Marks Target for Strike*
Type I Hypersensitivity (A) What is involved with it?
-Anaphylactic (Immediate) Response -IgE Mediated -Occurs w/in 15-30 Min -Seen in things such as: Asthma, Bee Sting, Hay Fever -Histamine is Released via Mast Cells (Basophils)
Type II Hypersensitivity (C) What is involved with it? Antigen + Antibody
-Cytotoxic -IgG/ IgM Mediated -Occurs Minutes to Hours -Seen in conditions such as: Goodpasteur’s (Lung&Kidneys), Erythoblastosis Fetalis, Myasthenia Gravis Graves Disease (Hyperthyroid)
Type III Hypersensitivity (I) What is Involved? Antigen + Antibody + Compliment
-Immune Complex Mediated -IgG Mediated -Occurs in 3-10 hours -Seen in conditions such as: Glomerulonephritis SLE RA **Arthus Rxn= Local Necrosis **Serum Sickness= Systemic
Type IV Hypersensitivity (D) What is Involved?
-Delayed Hypersensitivity aka Cell-Mediated - T-Cell or Lymphocyte Mediated -Occurs between 24-72 Hours -Seen in Conditions such as: TB Contact Dermatitis (Poison Ivy, Poison Oak) Graft Rejection, etc
What do Autotrophs do?
eat INORGANIC material
What do Heterotrophs do?
eats ORGANIC material
What do Saprophytes do?
eats DEAD/DECAYING material (organic material)
What do Parasites do?
eats off LIVING organisms
Facultative Aerobe….
Prefers O2, but can deal with environment without Oxygen
Facultative Anaerobe…
Prefers NO O2, but can deal with environment with Oxygen
Obligate Aerobe…
ONLY in O2
Obligate Anerobe…
ONLY WITHOUT O2
Symbiosis is____
2 Populations living together, where ONE or BOTH benefit.
Mutualism is _____
2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit
Synergism is_____
2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit AND BOTH accomplish what neither can do alone.
Commensalism is____
2 populations living together, where ONE benefits, and other is Unaffected.
Zoonosis is ….
the transfer of disease from animal to human. e.g. - Anthrax ‘Woolsorter’s Disease’ Respiratory Transmission
Flagella Arrangements
- Monotrichus
- Lophotrichus
- Amphitrichus
- Peritrichus
Ames Test used for…
Carcinogenicity
Mutagenicity
Uses Salmonella Typhimurium
Ascholi Test used for…
Anthrax
ASO titer
Antistreptolysin O Titre. Tests Strep pyogenes Antibodies….
Rheumatic Fever
Babcock Test
checks % of butterfat in Milk
Bile Solubility
Pneumococci vs Alpha Hemolytic Step viridans
***BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand)
Best test for Water Polution
***Catalase
Staph (cat+) vs Strep (cat-)
It separates Staph from Strep
Chick Embryo Culture
Virus Culture (Cannot Grow on Agar)
***Chocolate Agar
aka Thayer Martin Agar
aka Heated Blood Agar
Used for Gonorreah
***Coagulase
Staph Aureus (Coag +) vs Other Staph (Coag -)
Pathogenic vs Non-Pathogenic
Colliform does what for Water Purification?
It checks for E. coli
Determines fecal contamination in water.
Coombs test for what type of antigens?
Tests RBC antigens.
Hemolytic Anemia
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
Rh Factor
*Dick Test primarily used to test for____
Scarlet Fever
***Giemsa Stain used to test for _____
Protozoa
***HLA B27 (the Human Leukocyte Antegen) is testing for____
*Hint= Think PEAR
Seronegative Arthritides
Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthropathy (AS with ulcerative colitis or Crohns)
AS
Reiter’s
HLA DR5/CD4 is used for testing for____
AIDS
Elisa usually tests for DNA
Western Blot checks for Protein
If 2 ELISA (+) then Do a Western Blot test
If Western Blot (+) then it= AIDS
Mannitol Salt tests for____
Staph
Nuchal Rigidity checks for____
Stiff Neck
Looking for Possible Meningitis
***Paul Bunnell Test
Testing Heterophile Agglutination test for Mononucleosis
Phosphatase used to test____
if Milk Pasteurization is adequate. If all phosphatase enzymes is destroyed.
Want to check to see if Milk is HOT enough to kill phosphatase.
MCC of Meningitis is___
Strep pneumoniae
***Sabouraud Agar is used_____
to Test for FUNGI*
Schultz-Carlton rxn is used for______
to check antitoxin reaction to Scarlet Fever
Tissue Culture used as___
a Virus Culture (Cannot grow on agar)
***Weil Felix (serology test)
It is positive for all Rickettsia
EXCEPT: Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)
Antigen for this test= Proteus vulgaris
Widal Test tests for____
Typhoid Fever
Tzank Test looks for____
Altered epitheloid Herpes Zoster & Simplex
also, Varicella
***What are Other tests to Test for Syphilis?
- Treponema Genus
- Spirochete
Non-Vinerial Syphilis YAWS is caused by what?
Trponema Pertenu
***What are tests to check for TB?
- Mantoux Test= Skin Prick test
- PPD
- Delayed Hypersensitivity
- Ziehl Nielson Staining
- Acid Fast (All Mycobacterium are acid Fast)
Pneumonic: My Ass is Fast (Mycobacterium Acid Fast)
-X-Ray
What is the BEST test for TB?
Active Sputum Culture
***Mononucleosis is tested using_____
- Heterophile antibody
- “Heterophile Agglutination” (Paul Bunnell)
- Downey Cell= Atypical lymphocyte on Blood Smear(Pneumonic = “Don’t Let Mono get you down”)
- Monospot
When we are using sterilization or Autoclaving what are we doing?
Steam heat under pressure, this denatures the membranes.
What is Sterilization and Autoclaving innefective against?
Prions
Different Types of Vaccinations include:
- Inactivated (Salk, Rabies)
- Tetanus, Botulism
- Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin
Manufacturing of Vaccines come from:
- Chick Embryo (Measles and Mumps vaccines)
- Human Diploid cells (rubella, rabies, Hep A)
- Monkey Kidney Tissue (Polio)
What type of study is a Case Control?
it ID’s Risk Factors
What does a Double Blind Study do?
Eliminates the Placebo
A Retrospective Study ____
goes back in time.
**When Pus (Purulent) is Blue/Green it indicates____
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (#1 thing seen w/ Cystic Fibrosis)
**When Pus (Purulent) is Red, this indicated ____
Serratia marcenscens
**A White discharge could indicate
Candida albicans
**A White PURULENT Discharge indicates____
Chlamydia
**A Yellow Pus (Purulent) discharge indicates___
Staph Aureus
**A Yellow/Green Pus (Purulent) indicates____
Gonorrhea
Formaldehyde is used for____
to fix Gross Specimens
Iodine (Mordant) is used for____
Pre-op disinfectant
Penicillin (for gram+) does what?
inhibits cell wall synthesis (Peptidoglycan Synthesis)
Tetracycline (for gram- and +) inhibits what?
Protein Synthesis
Also Turns Teeth Gray or Yellow /Brown
_A Broad Spectrum Antibiotic_
Burnet/Metchinkoff did what?
He developed humoral “Phagocytic” theory of immune response
D’Herelle, Felix did what?
Discovered bacteriophage, altered Virus
Ehrlich did what?
Discovered Magic Bullet… First Tx for Syphilis
**What was Flemming Known for?
Discovered Penicillin
**Iwanowski was known for what?
He discovered the First Virus. Tobacco mosaic
***Koch Discovered what? and proved what?
He Proved bacteria “causes” disease
discovered the Anthrax Vaccine
Koch’s 4 Postulates
**Lancefield, Rebecca did what?
classified Streptococcus
Leeuwenhoek did what?
Developed first microscope, and first to see microorganisms
***Pasteur is considered_____
the Father of Pathology, Father of Germ Theory(most famous)
- Came up with Rabies Vaccine
- Pasteurization of wine, then Milk
Walter Reed known for____
Yellow Fever
Sabin is associated with ____
Live Polio vaccine, given orally
Mr. Salk was responsible for____
Dead Polio vaccine, by injection, done before Sabin
Semmelweiss did what?
Came up with washing of hands before delivering baby and significantly reduced Puerperal Fever (aka Childbed Fever).
-Contracted by women after childbirth
Colony Variations: When examining an agar plate, the description of the morphology is:
- D
- H
- M
- O
- R
- S
What do these stand for?
D= Dwarf
H= Spreading
M= Mucoid capsule forming: related to virulence
O= Compact (O vs H)
R= Rough
S= Smooth
R & S stands for Colony Variations
Acid Fast staining is used for____
Mycobacterium
What type of Hemolysis is Alpha?
Partial
Green Ring
E.g. Strep pneumoniae
E.g. Strep viridans= SBE
What type of hemolysis is Beta?
Complete
Clear Ring “Beta is Bad”
E.g. Strep pyogenes
What type of hemolysis is Gamma?
None
Red Ring
E.g. Strep Mutans
Choclate agar is used for?
aka Heated Blood agar
aka Thayer Martin Agar
to check for Gonorrhea
Giemsa used for?
Protozoa
For Gram Staining, what is the Primary Stain?
Crystal violet or methylene blue.
-(Gram -) stains purple/blue
For Gram Staining, what is the Fixer?
Iodine= “Mordant”
For Gram Staining, what is the Decolorizer?
Acetone or Ethyl alcohol (Alcohol wash)
It removes teh crystal violet from thin walled (Gram -) organisms
In Gram Staining, what is the Counterstain?
Saffarin (red/pink color that goes into the Gram(-) organisms
Mannitol Salt is used for?
Staphylococcus
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Conjugation stage?
the Plasmid DNA transfers via sex pilus.
Bestows antimicrobial resistance
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transduction stage?
When the Bacteriophage transfers genetic material between baceria
-Bacteriophage=Altered virus
***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transformation stage for?
for Direct uptake of Free DNA
What Does CDC stand for and what is it used for?
Center for Disease Control
- Statistics, NOT RESEARCH
- Compiles Morbidity & Epidemiological Statistics
- Located in Atlanta, GA
- CDC DOES NOT EDUCATE!
What does EPA stand for and what does it do?
Environmental Protection Agency
-Monitors Soil, Air, and Water Quality
**What does FDA stand for and what does it do?
Food & Drugs Administration
-Regulates Health Products Released to the Public
*What is HHS?
Department of Health and Human Services
-Controls FDA, CDC, USPHS (US Public Health Services)
*What is NIH?
National Institute of Health.
- RESEARCH!
- NOT STATISTICS
- Located in Bethesda, Maryland
**What is OSHA?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
- Makes rules concerning occupational toxicity levels of hazardous materials.
- Responsible to Health Services Administration
*What is USDA?
US Department of Agriculture.
-Responsible for milk and milk products.
Emerging Cases?
New Disease or rapid increase of a disease
-AIDS, and EBOLA in USA were examples
An Endemic is_____
Small number of cases in Specific location. Present all the time
An Epidemic is when ____
something Rapidly affects many persons in a certain area within a few days or weeks.
Etiology?
The Study of the cause of disease.
***An Incidence is____
of New cases in a given time period.
-e.g. how many new cases last year?
Pandemic means?
more then expected # of cases of a disease worldwide.
***Prevalence is____
Total # of cases at a particular point in time.
-e.g. Total cases right now?
Leading Causes of Death in Infants
- Congenital Malformations
- Prematurity
Leading Causes of Death in Adults in the US
- Heart Disease
- Cancer
- Stroke
- Respiratory Infection
- Accidents
Leading causes of Death Worldwide
- TB
- Malaria
Water Purification Process Steps
F
F
S
S
S
A
C
Filtration (Filter BIG stuff w/screens)
**Flocculation** (Aluminum trichloride)
Sedimentation (Precipitate Falls)
**Sludge Digestion** (Adds anaerobic bacteria)
Sand Filtration (Removes anaerobic bacteria/ Trickling Filter)
Aeration (adds O2 to Water to improve color and Taste)
Chlorination (Kills Remaining Bacteria)
Worm Types
Pneumonic* Try Ronney First
Tapeworm= Cestodes
Roundworms= Nematodes
Fluke worms= Trematodes
Tapeworms Description
Head
Body
Head= Scolex
Body= Proglottids-egg generating segment
Types of Tapeworms (Cestodes)
Type–> Organism–> Vector–> S/Sx, Notes
Dwarf–> Hymenolepis nana –>Mouth–> Diarrhea
Beef–> Taenia saginata–> Uncooked Beef–>
Pork–> Taenia solium–> Uncooked Pork–> Causes Cysticercosis
Fish–> Diphyllobothrium latum (Fresh Water Fish)–> Mouth, contaminated Sushi–> Causes Pernicious Anemia(B12 def)
Dog/Humans–> Echinococcus granulosus–> Canine Feces–> Hydatid Cysts in liver and Lung
Types of Roundworms (Nematodes)
A
F
H
P
R
R
T
W
Ascariasis–> Oral-Fecal–> Colicky pain, lives in Small intestine
Filiariasis–> Wuchereria bancrofti–>Mosquitoes
Hookworm–> Necator americanus(Bare Foot)–> Fecal Contaminated Soil–> m/c hookworm in US
Pinworm(threadworm)–> m/c helminth in US–> butt itching
River blindness–> Onchocerca volvulus–> Flies–> In Africa
River Eye worm–> Loa Loa–> Flies–. aka “African Eyeworm”
Trichinosis–> Raw Pork–> Lives in Striated Muscles, Dx on X-ray, Biopsy of muscle confirms
Whipworm–> Trichuris Trichura–> oral-fecal–> Weight Loss
Type of Flukes (Trematodes)
B
I
L
P
*Blood–> Shistosoma japonicum–> Infested water, Host Snail–> SWIMMER’s ITCH–> mcc of death by a paracytic worm helminth worlwide!!
Intestinal–> Fasciolopsis buski–> Aquatic Plants–> Contaminated snail feces in plants
Liver–> Clonorchis sinensis–> Raw Contaminated Fish
Pulmonary(Lung)–> Paragonimus westermani–> Crayfish, mouth
What is a Capsomere?
a subunit of a protein coat (“Capsid”) of a virus particle
- Viral envelope= trilamina lipid membrane
What is a Viroid?
ssRNA (single stranded RNA). Infects plants
- Smaller than a virus
Viruses are most commonly transmitted or acquired via?
Respiratory System
EXCEPTIONS:
- Arboviruses/Arthropod borne viruses= Mosquitoes/Encephalitis
- AIDS= Sexual Transmission, IV
- POLIO= oral/fecal
- RABIES= bite from infected animal
- WARTS= skin contact/ casual contact
- HEP A= Oral/Fecal, Humans not carriers
- HEP B= sexual transmission, IV
- HEP C= Transfusion, tattooing
Herpes Simplex:
2 Types
Type 1: Fever Blisters(Cold Sores) ABOVE BELT, can be Trigeminal/Gasserion ganglion
Type 2: Genital Herpes BELOW BELT
What causes shingles in Adults, doesn’t cross the midline, and hides in the DRG? This also follows the dermatome.
HERPES ZOSTER
A pink cauliflower lesion on the female genitalia
Molluscum contagiosum
What causes German measles aka “3-day measles”?
This also causes limb malformation and is most susceptible in 1st trimester.
Rubella
What is considered RED measles?
Causes Koplik spots on buccal mucosa.
“3 Cs: Cough, Coryza(runny nose), Conjunctivitis”
RUBEOLA
***What causes Cow Pox?
**Vaccinia
***What causes maculopapularvesicular rashes, red, elevated and fluid-filled skin lesions?
***Varicella (Chicken Pox)
What causes Small Pox, and are Guarneri bodies?
Variola
Hantavirus is spread by what?
Rodents, including chipmunks (Prairie Dogs)
Polio is spread by
Oral/Fecal contamination.
- Affects the anterior horn (alpha motor)
- Bulbar type produces respiatory paralysis–> MC of Death
- Bulbar–> Brainstem
What virus causes conjunctivitis, pharyngitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
Adenovirus
What virus causes the flu? Has antigenic shift (BIG) and/or drift (small)
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
Influenza
Which of the following is caused by Sidomegalic paramyxoid virus?
This also Causes parotiditis which leads to LMN disease of CN VII (Bells Palsy)
Complications include Sterility from oophritis or orchitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
MUMPS
Which of the following causes croup & bronchiolitis?
a. Adenovirus
b. Influenza
c. Mumps
d. RSV
RSV
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
DO YOU NEED A BREAK FROM THIS CRAP?!
I KNOW I DO!!!
HECK YEA!!!
A mannitol salt augar is used for ______________.
Staphylococcus
Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits ___________.
Transformation
Which of the following are negri bodies seen in?
Rabies
Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity?
Rapid availability of protection
Which of the following release interleukin II?
T-lymphocytes
Which of the following does a virus cause?
Measles
Which of the following describes destruction of all microorganisms?
Sterilization
Fever blisters are associated with which of the following?
Herpes Simplex Type I
Which of the following is an acid-fast bacterium?
Mycobacterium
Which of the following is coagulase positive?
Staph aureus
Which of the following has no cell wall?
Mycoplasma
Peritrichous is a pattern of ____________.
Flagella
Which of the following causes yaws?
Treponema pertenunez
A rapid loss of fluids is associated with which of the following?
Cholera
Which of the following is Reye?s Syndrome associated with?
Influenza
Which of the following is associated with mononucleosis?
Epstein Barr
Which of the following causes atypical primary pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following causes Osteomyelitis?
Staph aureus
Which type of milk is the most apt to cause disease?
Raw
Which of the following organisms causes hemorrhagic jaundice?
Leptospira ictohemorrhagiea
A throat culture predominantly pinpoints beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble is indicative of which of the following pathogens?
Strep pyogenes
Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following cells?
Plasma Cells
The best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea is which of the following?
Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)
If a urine sample contains white blood cells white blood cell casts and bacteria it would indicate which of the following?
Acute Pyelonephritis
Which of the following does the greatest damage to the ozone layer?
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
Trismus is a characteristic finding in which of the following?
Tetanus
Which of the following cell types contain heparin?
Basophil
Which part of complement is the 1st to affix to the cell membrane?
C3B
Which of the following produces helper substances?
CD4
Which infection predisposes a child to Reye?s Syndrome?
Influenza
Which of the following bacteria transmit drug resistors?
Plasmids
Which of the following cause hookworm disease?
Necator americans
Which of the following cause pinworm disease?
Enterohius vermicularis
Which of the following cause round worms?
Ascariasis lumbricoides
Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?
IgG
Which of the following cell types work together with T-lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?
Macrophages
Which of the following government agencies is not a part of the US Public Health Service?
Communicable disease Center
Which of the following diseases cause weight loss abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?
Giarada
Which of the following is responsible for lymes disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Which of the following etiological agents causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazeki
Which genera are responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?
Escherichia (E. coli)
Which of the following parasites causes blackwater fever?
Plasmodium falciparum
Which factor is responsible for making influenza pandemic?
Antigenic Shift
Which of the following routes transmits mycoplasma hormone?
Sexual
____________ causes childhood dysentery.
Coxsackie Virus B
_________ is a eukaryotic organism.
Protozoa
The DPT vaccine offers which type of immunity?
Artificial Active
Organism of which genera usually cause allergic reactions?
Aspergillus
Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?
Bacterium
______ is the usual cause of bladder infections.
E. coli
________ is the immunoglobulin which can be detected early in an infectious process.
IgM
Motor viruses primarily affect which system?
Nervous
Which of the following most commonly causes impetigo contagious?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Blue green pus in a wound indicates the presence of which of the following organisms?
Pseudomonas aeriginosa
What is the most common organism to affect a patient with AIDS?
Pneumocytstic carinii
The helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide belongs to which genera?
Schistosoma (found in water)
________ cells process antigen.
Macrophages
_________ can penetrate unbroken skin.
Schistosoma mansoni
Which of the following does a vector not transmit?
Fever
Which of the following is a result of the reaction between soluble antigen and a specific antibody?
Precipitation
Vitamin B12 deficiency often results from which worm infestation?
Diphyllobothrium latum
Organisms from which genera are used as antigen in the diagnosis of Rickettsia disease?
Proteus
Destroying the larva of parasites from the genera Ascariasis Schistosoma and Trichinella is a distinctive function of ___________.
Eosinophils
Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?
Staph aureus
Which parasite is most apt to infect the person who has been walking barefoot in a pile of feces?
Necatur americans
Which of the exhibits a gray pseudomembrane?
Diphtheria
Pasteurization is complete when the ___________ organism has been killed.
Brucellosis
