Microbiology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main categories of microbes?

A
  • Prokaryotes that include virtually all bacteria/archaea
  • Viruses
  • Eukaryotes including yeast, most fungi, protozoa, other “higher” multicellular organisms
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2
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

It was initially thought that living organisms are “spontaneously generated” from non-living matter. Pasteur (and Lazzaro Spallanzani) debunked spontaneous microbe generation. Pasteur also developed the germ theory of disease, rabies vaccination, pasteurization, and identified yeast as an agent in the fermentation of wine

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3
Q

Joseph Lister

A

Made connection between Pasteur’s germ theory and deaths from surgery/amputations (operative sepsis). Used carbolic acid to sterilize surgical instruments and clean wounds. Using this approach sepsis deaths were significantly reduced

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4
Q

Robert Koch

A

Developed many techniques to grow microbes, pioneered streaking techniques, isolation of single bacterial colonies, and the growth of pathogens in pure culture.

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5
Q

What were the postulates Robert Koch used to identify M. tuberculosis as the cause of TB.

A

Postulate 1: Suspected pathogenic organism should be present in all cases of disease and absent from healthy animals

Postulate 2: Suspected organism should be grown in pure culture

Postulate 3: Cells from a pure culture of suspected organism should cause disease in a healthy animal

Postulate 4: Organism should be reisolated and shown to be the same as the original pathogenic organism

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6
Q

How were Koch’s postulates used to identify TB in particular?

A

A method of staining M. tuberculosis was developed, solid media was used to grow it, and guinea pigs were infected.

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7
Q

What is the difference between phylogeny and taxonomy?

A

Phylogenetic trees show the evolutionary development of a history of species while taxonomic trees classify organisms by distinguishable characteristics.

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8
Q

How were bacteria classified into taxonomic trees based on phenotypes?

A
  • Growth requirements (aerobic vs anaerobic)
  • Ability to be stained by a specific dye acid (gram-positive vs gram-negative)
  • Lytic/reproductive properties
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9
Q

What are the criteria for the molecular clock based on genome sequencing to classify organisms?

A

It is based on the principles that all life is related, genotypes are the basis for phenotypic diversity, and classification is based on evolutionary relationships

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10
Q

Why was 16s rRNA useful for developing a phylogeny for life on earth?

A

It encodes ribosomes and is highly conserved throughout all forms of life and alignment of base pairs is also straightforward.

It is additionally universally distributed, functionally homologous, easily aligned base pair for base pair, and changes at a rate commensurate with evolutionary distance

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11
Q

How can Epulopiscium show why phenotype is a poor means for determining which group a given organism belongs to?

A

They were originally thought to be protists due to their large size (up to a million times larger than E. Coli), but they turned out to be closely related to Clostridia, an anaerobic spore organism.

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12
Q

Lag phase

A

When a fresh culture is inoculated with cells from an older or stationary phase culture cells need time to resynthesize essential components before beginning growth again. If inoculated with exponential phase cells generally no lag

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13
Q

Exponential phase

A

Population doubles in mass per unit of time (Km and Vmax measure this). Growth rate is dependent on nutrients, temperature, ionic strength (salt), etc and is plotted on a semi log scale

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14
Q

Stationary phase

A

Period which growth slows down dramatically. Occurs when cells either run out of nutrients, a waste product builds up and inhibits growth, or sometimes both

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15
Q

Death phase

A

Density of bacterial culture decreases, but a lot of times bacterial cells are still viable because they can eat each other

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16
Q

What are the functions of the cell membrane?

A
  • maintains an electrochemical gradient
  • key for selective import and export
  • site of protein secretion
  • allows for signal sensing and transduction
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17
Q

What tend to be the differences in the lipid bilayers of archaea and bacteria?

A
  • Archaea tend to have a partial monolayer and ether linkages
  • Bacteria tend to have a bilayer with ester linkages
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18
Q

What key differences are observed between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria?

A
  • Gram reaction: gram positive bacteria stain purple and gram negative bacteria stain pink/red due to the presence of a membrane
  • Gram positive bacteria have a thicker cell wall
  • Gram positive bacteria have a thick and multilayered peptidoglycan layer
  • Gram positive bacteria are more rigid and less elastic
  • Gram positive bacteria do not have an outer membrane but gram negative do
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19
Q

bactoprenol

A

type of riboswitch that “flips” a hydrophilic precursor molecule across a bacterial plasma membrane outside the cell in order to initiate cell wall synthesis

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20
Q

glycotransferase

A

polymerizes glycan strands to form a peptide chain that is key in producing a cell wall

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21
Q

transpeptidase

A

crosslinks peptide chains using B-Lactams to assemble the cell wall. B Lactam antibiotics like penicillin, cephalexin, and ampicillin target this step in cell wall synthesis.

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22
Q

Why do cell wall synthesis enzymes exhibit redundancy?

A

This allows for overlapping activity in order to allow robust activity even across different environmental conditions (such as salt and pH). This is why extracellular enzymes tend to be more abundant than intracellular ones.

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23
Q

What is the importance of the periplasm?

A

It contains hydrolytic enzymes, binding proteins, chemoreceptors, secretion systems

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24
Q

How would we know if LPS complexes contribute to cell rigidity?

A

Loss of LPS should be lethal at high osmolarity but tolerated at low osmolarity since water would flow outwards cell towards high osmolarity boosting the turgor pressure and lysing cells if LPS does not maintain cell rigidity.

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25
Q

Turgor pressure

A

force that pushes the cytoplasm outwards towards the cell envelope and is driven by the difference between cytoplasmic and environmental osmolarity. A cell is hypertonic when there is low turgor pressure (result of low osmolarity outside cell), isotonic when there is equal turgor pressure, and hypotonic when there is high turgor pressure (result of high osmolarity outside cell).

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26
Q

What did CHIR-090 treatment reveal about whether or not LPS complexes contribute to cell rigidity?

A

LPxC catalyzes LPS synthesis and CHIR-090 inhibits LPxC and therefore reduces the amount of LPS. At low osmolarity the cell envelope remained unchanged and at high osmolarity the cells lysed. This indicates that LPS works together with the cell wall to boost cell rigidity and prevent turgor pressure from getting too high.

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27
Q

magnetosomes

A

tiny particles of magnetite are encased in a lysosome and surrounded by a membrane. This allows A. magnetotacum to remain along a geomagnetic field line.

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28
Q

What kinds of compounds produce CO2 and organic compounds?

A
  • Lithotrophs and autotrophs produce CO2 (phospho and chemo)
  • Organotrophs and heterotrophs produce organic compounds (phospho and chemo)
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29
Q

Carboxylation (calvin cycle)

A
  • first step of the calvin cycle, catalyzed by RuBisco
  • involves the addition of CO2 to ribulose biphosphate “fixing the CO2”
  • ribulose biphosphate then splits into 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate using H2O
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30
Q

Reduction (calvin cycle)

A
  • second step of calvin cycle
  • Phosphorylate 3-phosphoglycerate becomes 1,3 biphosphoglycerate
  • 1,3-biphosphoglycerate is then reduced to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
  • One ATP and one NADPH is used
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31
Q

Regeneration of ribose biphosphate

A

pentose phosphate shunt is used to create glucose from glyceraldehyde 3P

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32
Q

What are the requirements for nitrogen fixation?

A

ATP is necessary and fixation cannot occur in the presence of O2

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33
Q

What is the purpose of glycolysis?

A
  • It generates pyruvate from glucose which is important in fermentation and the generation of acetyl-coA, which is key in the citric acid cycle and lipid synthesis.
  • It has a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 NADH
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34
Q

What are the preparatory reactions for glycolysis?

A
  • Fructose-1,6-biphosphate is generated from glucose. 2 ATP are burned
  • hexokinase and ATP is first used to produce Glucose-6-phosphate from glucose
  • Isomerase is used to produce Fructose-6-phosphate
  • Phosphofructokinase and ATP is used to produce Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
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35
Q

What happens during the oxidation phase of glycolysis?

A
  • 2 2-phosphoglycerate becomes into pyruvate. 2 ATP and 2 NADH are gained
  • Adolase is first used to produce 2 glyceraldyde-3-phosphate
  • Glyceraldehyde-3-dehydrogenase is used to make 2 glyceraldehyde-3-dehydrogenase, 2 Pi, and 2 NAD+ into 2 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate, 2 NADH, and 2 electrons and protons
  • Phosphoglycerokinase generates 2 ATP and 2 3-phosphoglycerate from 2 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate
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36
Q

What happens during the pyruvate generation step of glycolysis?

A
  • enolase is used to turn 2 2-phosphoglycerate into 2 2-phosphoenolpyruvate
  • pyruvate kinase is then used to generate pyruvate and 2 ATP from 2 phosphoenolpyruvate
37
Q

Under what conditions does glucogenesis (glycolysis run backward) tend to occur even though it is energetically expensive?

A

Serves as a way to generate glucose in order to store energy so that glycolysis can occur in different environments such as environments that are protein rich but carbohydrate/sugar poor.

38
Q

Why is glycolysis inhibited by ATP and why is gluconeogenesis inhibited by AMP?

A

Glycolysis leads to ATP production so when there is an excess of ATP it is not as necessary and will be inhibited. Gluconeogenesis stores energy and an excess of AMP indicates a need for ATP, so AMP will cause gluconeogenesis to shut down.

39
Q

What is the Cori cycle?

A

Shows how byproducts of gluconeogenesis in the liver and glycolysis in the muscle can be exchanged to create a cycle. This occurs during anaerobic exercise to contribute to an increased production of energy.

40
Q

What are the intermediate products and byproducts to the Entner-Doudoroff pathway?

A

In the Entner-Doudoroff pathway 6-P gluconate is produced from sugar acids and glucose-6P and is used. Net yield of around 1 ATP, 1 NADPH, 1 NADH per glucose molecule with same e- transferred. Used in gut microbes where sugar acids from intestinal mucous are the primary source of energy.

41
Q

What are the intermediate products and byproducts of the Pentose phosphate shunt?

A

In the Pentose-Phosphate Shunt the 6-P gluconate produces Ribulose 5-P and sugar phosphates that lead to pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH. It additionally generates a lot of sugar diversity (C3-C7, hexoses, pentoses, etc) along with NADPH.

42
Q

What happens during the initiation step in fatty acid synthesis?

A
  • Acetoacetyl ACP is produced from Acetyl-CoA using FabH
  • Malonyl CoA is produced from Acetyl CoA using AccABCD
  • These serve as the building blocks for fatty acid chains
43
Q

What happens during the elongation cycle of fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetoacetyl-ACP is added to B-Ketoacyl-ACP and it turns into B-Hydroxyacyl-ACP. This turns into trans-2-Enoyl-ACP which turns into Acyl-ACP. Then Malonyl-ACP is added to Acyl-ACP which becomes B-Ketoacyl-ACP and the cycle repeats

44
Q

Why does Streptoccus mutans degrade the enamel of human teeth?

A

It co-evolved with humans and developed the ability to metabolize varied carbohydrates, but it has an incomplete TCA cycle and can only synthesize some amino acids. Because of this, it metabolizes sucrose into lactic acid rather than glucose to CO2 and degrades the enamel on teeth.

45
Q

Why are lactate and ethanol common byproducts of glycolysis?

A

Glycolysis involves the reduction of 2 NAD+ into 2 NADH and the reduction of pyruvate into lactose and ethanol involve the oxidation of NADH into NAD+ which can be used for another round of glycolysis. This allows reducing equivalents to be regenerated without respiration.

46
Q

What are the steps of yogurt production?

A
  • Glucose is converted to pyruvate through glycolysis
    Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi —-> 2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2H + 2 ATP
  • NADH is oxidized as pyruvate is reduced to lactate
    2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2H —> 2 lactate + 2 NAD+
  • Overall
    Glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi —> 2 lactate + 2 ATP + 2 H2O
47
Q

What are the steps of alcohol production?

A
  • Glucose is converted to pyruvate through glycolysis
    Glucose + 2 NAD+ + 2 ADP + 2 Pi —> 2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2H + 2 ATP
  • Pyruvate is decarboxylated into acetaldehyde and CO2 then acetaldehyde is reduced to ethanol as NADH oxidizes but not always
    2 pyruvate + 2NADH + 2H+ —> 2 ethanol + 2CO2 + 2NAD+
  • Overall ethanol reaction
    Glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi —> 2 ethanol + 2CO2 + 2ATP + 2H2O

For tequila same byproducts except 1 ATP is yielded since Entner-Dourdoroff pathway is used, made by bacteria

48
Q

What are other ways carbon is fixed besides the calvin cycle?

A
  • Reductive TCA cycle
  • Reductive acetyl-CoA pathway
  • 3-hydroxyproionate cycle
49
Q

What are the oxidation/reduction pairs involved in generating a proton motor force in respiration

A
  • NAD+/NADH serve as the primary electron donor and are at the lowest energy
  • FAD/FADH2
  • NO3/N2 + H2O serve as the terminal electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration in E. Coli
  • O2/H2O serve as the terminal electron acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation and are at the highest energy
50
Q

How does E. Coli recycle NADH and allow it to oxidize when there are acetate byproducts?

A

Excess NADH can serve as an electron donor to form a proton gradient and this has the effect of recycling NAD+ which can be used again in glycolysis.

51
Q

How do the principles of the electron tower relate to the generation of a proton gradient and motive force?

A

An electron is donated from a redox couple low on the electron tower when an electron can be easily donated (NAD+/NADH) and is accepted by an electron acceptor higher on the electron tower (O2/H2O). This allows enough energy to be generated to transport protons across a (periplasmic) membrane in bacteria and intermembrane space in mitochondria to form a gradient.

52
Q

What else is a proton motive force used for?

A

The flagella of bacteria is run on proton motive force not ATP and some transport proteins also use pmf and an F1F0ATPase

53
Q

How much does the citric acid cycle generate from 1 pyruvate and how much ATP does that generate through pmf?

A

4 NADH and 1 FADH are produced via the citric acid cycle

Through PMF
4 NADH —> 12 ATP
1 FADH —> 2 ATP
1 GTP —> 1 ATP

In total 38 ATP are produced from 1 glucose (2 ATP directly from glycolysis, 6 from 2 NADH via glycolysis, 28 from NADH and FADH via TCA since there are 2 pyruvate, 2 from the conversion of GTP to ATP)

54
Q

What makes O2 a better terminal electron acceptor than NO3+?

A

O2 has a higher affinity for electrons which means it is more likely to take on electrons from the electron transport chain which has the effect of producing a more concentrated proton gradient and more ATP (~2800 kJ)

55
Q

Why does lactate tend to build up under anaerobic conditions?

A

Under anaerobic conditions O2 is not as available to serve as a terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain which means NAD+ is more likely to be regenerated from lactate production rather than from serving as an electron donor in ETC.

56
Q

Why do some organisms use inorganic electron donors/acceptors for respiration?

A

Some species are able to separate respiration and carbon metabolism/energy generation under conditions where carbohydrates or carbon sources aren’t as prevalent.

57
Q

How do Methosarcina produce energy?

A

It runs anaerobic respiration and gets energy from the breakdown of methanol or acetate to produce methane as the final product. CH3COOH is both the electron donor and terminal electron acceptor

Electron and proton are donated from the COOH group to the methyl CH3 group through an etc generating CO2 and methane
CH3COOH + H2O —> CH4 + CO2

58
Q

Methanogens

A

Archaea that make “combustible air” by converting substrates to methane to produce energy. Found in environments where they can convert cellulose to methane and CO2.

59
Q

How do methanobacterium and thermoautotrophicum produce energy?

A

4 electrons and protons are donated from H2 to CO2 through an etc to produce methane and water. It fixes carbon via a non-canonical pathway (not the calvin cycle)

4H2 + CO2 —> CH4 + 2H2O

60
Q

How does Thiomargarita namibiensis produce energy and why is energy produced in this way?

A

They live in conditions where sulfide and nitrate are prevalent and therefore use sulfide as an electron donor in the etc. and NO3- as an electron acceptor since they move between sulfur and nitrate rich areas.

61
Q

What are examples of oxygenic and anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria and what are the differences/similarities between them?

A

Cyanobacteria such as synechocystis sp are oxygenic and purple phototropic bacteria such as rhodobacteria capsulatus are anoxygenic

Oxygenic bacteria use water and light to produce ATP and provide NADPH for CO2 fixation. Light energy generates a proton motive force through photophosphorylation for ATP synthesis, similar to green plants.

Photosynthesis in anoxygenic bacteria uses reduced sulfur compounds such as H2S to provide NADPH for CO2 fixation through PMF via a reverse electron transport. Light energy not NAD+ is used to generate a pmf and produce ATP, but both use light and the calvin cycle.

62
Q

What occurs during cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

During cyclic phosphorylation, an electron from the lysis of water is excited by a photon and put through a redox chain generating ATP through a pmf and the electron is then reused and excited again. Photosystem I is the primary electron donor and terminal electron acceptor.

63
Q

What occurs during non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

During non-cyclic phosphorylation, the photolysis of water means 2 electrons and 2 protons are used in water for photosynthesis and O2 is produced. The electrons are excited via photosystem II and sent through a redox chain producing ATP then sent to photosystem I. The electron is then excited via photosystem I and the excited electron triggers an NADP+ and 2 protons to be reduced into NADPH and H+ for the calvin cycle.

64
Q

What occurs during the bacterial cell cycle?

A

There is an initiation of DNA replication, elongation and origin separation of the replicated DNA, an assembly of an FtsZ ring where grooves are embedded in the cell, nucleoid segregation and then the termination of replication, and finally cell division.

65
Q

How does replication occur in prokaryotic cells?

A
  • DNA is unwound near oriC-topoisomerases which nick and unwind DNA
  • There is an origin recognition where DnaA is bound to ATP but DnaA is the rate limiting component for initiating DNA replication
  • Helicase and SSB forms an open complex to open DNA
  • RNA primer then forms a primosome where there is a primase and RNA polymerase that move in 5’-3’ direction (in segments in the lagging strand)
66
Q

What is the role of each protein in DNA replication

A

Topoisomerse - unwinds DNA and cuts/reseals it to relieve supercoils

Helicase - unwinds DNA in front of a replication fork but doesn’t cut DNA

SSB - single stranded binding protein that prevents the DNA from reannealing complementary DNA

Primase - RNA polymerase that uses a DNA template to lay down the RNA primer and start replication

DNA Polymerase III - polymerase has proof reading ability and can “back up” and remove an incorrect nucleotide

DNA Polymerase I - removes RNA primers in the lagging strand and replaces them with DNA. The gap left by the removal of the primer is replaced

67
Q

What is the role of the prokaryotic accessory proteins?

A

sliding clamp - holds polymerase to DNA. Beta subunit of the DNA Pol III increases the rate and processivity (ability to add chains w/o dissociating) of DNA replication

tau - holds the core polymerases together

DNA ligase - seals the fragments of DNA in the lagging strand

68
Q

How was a biochemical approach used to identify the proteins involved in DNA replication?

A

Fractions of extracts from wild type cells containing a protein were added to mutant cells where proteins involved in DNA replication are knocked out and DNA replication does not occur. The fraction of wild type extracts that restore DNA replication contains important identifiable DNA proteins.

69
Q

How was it tested whether or not the polymerase remains stationary during replication or if it moves along the DNA?

A

GFP was used to visualize DNA Pol III and the responses to certain wavelengths of light were observed. The scientists took snapshot photos of the cell during replication and since dots were present rather than streaks of green this indicates that the polymerase remained mostly stationary. This ended up supporting a Factory Model of replication where DNA mostly moves through the polymerase rather than polymerase moving. Snapshots of slow growing cells were used to prove the dots represented the polymerase.

70
Q

What occurs during chromosome separation?

A
  • Topoisomerases unlink chromosome dimers
  • SMC and HU proteins help keep DNA condensed
71
Q

Why are smc mutants sicker when grown in rich media but not minimal media?

A

In rich media replication is more likely to occur which means DNA is more likely to uncondense inhibiting protein expression?

72
Q

What is hypothesized to drive chromosome separation in bacteria/prokaryotes?

A

The extrusion-capture model for bacterial chromosome partitioning posits that after an a stationary replisome is activated an origin region is replicated and sister origins are formed. They are then captured and relocated to opposite halves of the cell as the DNA replicates and the terminus region remains in the middle of the cell until replication is complete and it is duplicated.

73
Q

What is the role of FtsZ?

A
  • It is an essential cell division protein that establishes the location of the cell division site
  • It is conserved in bacteria, archaea, and plants
  • GTPase has a similar crystal structure to tubulin
  • It is able to assemble into a ring at the nascent division site, visible during exponential growth
74
Q

What is the role of the MinCD protein and how does it work?

A

It is concentrated at cell poles and functions to prevent FtsZ ring formation/elongation at cell poles. In E. Coli but not B. subtilis MinE assists in this process by preventing MinCD from localizing to the midcell in E. Coli, which causes MinCD to oscillate from pole to pole.

75
Q

Why do minCD mutations result in minicells?

A

When minCD is unable to function, it is unable to prevent FtsZ formation at cell poles and therefore unable to help FtsZ to establish the location of the cell division point at the midcell. This means FtsZ is more likely to establish the location of cell division at the poles resulting in minicells.

76
Q

What are the functions of the RNAP subunits?

A
  • a (alpha) RNA assembly region
  • B (beta) binds nucleotides together
  • B (beta prime) binds template strands together
  • o (sigma) binds to promoter region at the Pribnow box (-10 region) and -35 sequence

Sigma is included in the holoenzyme but not the core

77
Q

What are consensus promoters? What kind of genes would have them and what kinds of genes would have promoters that diverge?

A

Consensus promoters have sequences that are close to or match the consensus sequences for the -10 and -35 promoter regions. Genes that produce proteins that are abundant or necessary under most conditions tend to have consensus promoters and genes that produce proteins that are not as abundant or necessary under most conditions tend to have promoters that diverge. The lac operon is only expressed under conditions where glucose is low and lactose is high so it diverges since proteins that digest lactose are not always necessary.

78
Q

What occurs during the initiation of transcription?

A
  • Sigma binds to RNAP core resulting in a conformational change where RNAP goes from a closed hand to an open hand allowing it to bind to DNA
  • The DNA wraps around the holoenzyme and the holoenzyme closes around the DNA allowing it to unwrap and become single stranded
79
Q

What occurs during the elongation stage of transcription in prokaryotes?

A
  • Monomers of RNA are incorporated into a polymer and it loses a sigma factor in order to become a core enzyme
  • mRNA folds into secondary structures unless it being actively translated
  • When the termination site is reached a loop is formed, the chain growth stops, and RNA is released from polymerase
80
Q

What occurs during Rho-independent termination?

A

A loop in the RNA leads to termination and in Rho independent termination it is immediately upstream from a run of uracils. After the loop forms the only thing holding the transcript to the template is an AU rich sequence downstream. Since AU has a low melting temperature the new mRNA disassociates from the template and the RNAP falls off.

81
Q

What occurs during Rho dependent termination?

A

Rho is a transcription termination protein. Rho functions by pursuing the polymerase as it is transcribing DNA. As a loop forms when transcription is about to terminate the polymerase pauses and rho catches up so Rho allows the polymerase to fall off and mRNA to dissociate template strand. A U-rich stretch is not required.

82
Q

How was rho identified to be a transcription termination protein?

A

E. Coli transcribes lambda DNA into a long strand of RNA, but the ability of the in vitro reaction to make natural length lambda RNA was shown to be restored by rho which indicates that rho plays a role in transcription termination.

83
Q

The sigma 70 contains a promoter consensus sequence and is used for transcribing most genes, but what is the purpose of having alternative sigma factors?

A

Alternative sigma factors contain different promoter consensus sequences and are therefore more likely to bind to sequences that correlate with genes that are helpful when a cell is under abnormal environmental conditions, so it provides a mode of regulation. Alternative sigma factors can induce the production of heat-shock induced genes, genes for motility and chemotaxis, stationary phase/stress response genes, and genes for nitrogen metabolism when necessary.

84
Q

Why does the lac operon only tend to be expressed when there is a high concentration of lactose and low concentration of glucose?

A

In the lac operon a repressor is bound to the operator region preventing gene expression, but when lactose is present, it serves as an inducer which binds to the repressor and allows it to be removed, freeing up expression of the operon. This is known as induction through repression.

Low glucose also means adenylate cyclase can generate cyclic AMP from ATP which can bind to an activator known as CAP and bind to a CAP activation site. CAP then touches Alpha-CTD connected to an RNA Pol and stimulates translation.

This means the catabolite repression mechanism that prevents organisms from using secondary carbon sources such as lactose when glucose is present actually leads to activation of the lac operon in the absence of glucose. Catabolite repression is caused by a lack of activation due to the absence of glucose.

85
Q

How does B. subtilis regulate whether or not xylose is metabolized?

A

In the presence of glucose there is a lot of Fructose 1,6 biphosphate. This allows an Hpr Kinase to activate Hpr-P that can bind to CcpA, and the CcpA binds to CRE which is a cis acting regulatory site and serves as a repressor for the xylose site. Xylose is able to prevent a repressor protein from binding to an operator site but if glucose is present the expression of the xylose regulon is still inhibited. In this case catabolite repression is caused by activation due to the presence of glucose.

86
Q

What is attenuation and what is the role the mRNA leading sequence plays in attenuation?

A

During attenuation the RNA leader sequence rather than inducers, activators, or repressors modulate gene expression. This occurs through the pairing of different regions of the operon to form secondary structures known as terminators or anti-terminators. Generally the formation of terminators and anti-terminators is mutually exclusive since the same stretch of mRNA is usually used as both a terminator and anti-terminator.

87
Q

How is the the trp operon transcription regulated in E. Coli?

A

In E. Coli when tRNA tryptophan levels are high the ribosome is able to quickly translate the leader peptide where a lot of tryptophan is required and is therefore able to get to region 2 quickly. This means transcription is terminated since region 2 is not available to form an anti-terminator with region 3 so it forms a terminator with region 4. When trp is depleted however, the ribosome stalls when translating the leader peptide so region 2 and region 3 are able to form an anti terminator permitting transcription of the trp operon. This mechanism relies on transcription and translation occurring simultaneously.

88
Q

What mechanism is used for the expression of the maltose operon?

A

Maltose serves as an inducer to trigger an activator protein to bind to the activator binding site and recruit and RNA Pol to bind to the promoter region. This is known as induction through activation.

89
Q

How is trp operon expression regulated in B. subtilis?

A

When trp is limited TRAP is not activated so it does not bind to RNA leading to the formation of a terminator. When trp is abundant, TRAP binds to the RNA and a terminator forms. This process is not dependent on simultaneous translation.