Microbiology and Public Health (PACOP Green) Flashcards
The sudden, unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population
a. Outbreak
b. Zoonotic
c. Endemic
d. Sporatic
a. Outbreak
A causative agent of peptic ulcer
a. Escherichia coli
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Sigella dysenteriae
d. Helicobacter pylori
d. Helicobacter pylori
The “four o’clock” habit promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of:
a. Dengue fever
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malnutrition
d. Malaria
a. Dengue fever
The first drug available for HIV
a. ZDU
b. RMP
c. TMP
d. CMC
a. ZDU
An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen
a. Hay fever
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Asthma
d. Desensitization
b. Anaphylaxis
A thin, proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation
a. Cilium
b. Trichome
c. Flagellum
d. Pilus
b. Trichome
The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because:
a. It can discolor the meat
b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
c. It decomposes to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments
d. It is not readily available
b. It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies
a. Lysol
b. Chlorine
c. Ozone
d. Reverse osmosis
b. Chlorine
An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms
a. Mite
b. Fomite
c. Arthropod
d. Vector
b. Fomite
Administration of a toxoid confers:
a. Naturally acquired active immunity
b. Naturally acquired passive immunity
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
d. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific period
a. Morbidity rate
b. Prevalence rate
c. Mortality rate
d. All of the above
a. Morbidity rate
The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by:
a. Population size
b. Duration of exposure
c. Concentration of the disinfectant
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
a. Koplik spot
b. Peyer’s patches
c. Rose spots
d. Rashes
a. Koplik spot
Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates, and other compounds to methane
a. Microaerophilic
b. Metanochromic
c. Methanogenic
d. Cyanobacteria
c. Methanogenic
Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with:
a. Attenuated microorganism
b. Immunoglobulin preparations
c. Toxoids
d. Cyanobacteria
b. Immunoglobulin preparations
Nosocomial infections are:
a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
b. Infections of the nasal area
c. Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose
d. Infections among animals
a. Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:
a. Pathogenicity
b. Virulence
c. Toxigenicity
d. Toxicity
c. Toxigenicity
The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to:
a. Industrial wastes
b. Fecal coliforms
c. Red tide
d. Oil spills
b. Fecal coliforms
The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is:
a. Straight
b. Slim
c. Blunt
d. Curved
d. Curved
It refers to water suitable for drinking
a. Potable
b. Edible
c. Bacteria-free
d. Odor-free
a. Potable
Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as:
a. Fermentation
b. Putrefaction
c. Dentrification
d. Transpeptidation
b. Putrefaction
Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as:
a. Bacilli
b. Cocci
c. Spiral
d. Vibrios
d. Vibrios
This statement is true about viral infection
a. Viral infections are self-limiting
b. Viral confections confer lifetime immunity
c. Viral infections are treated by antibiotics
d. All statements are correct
a. Viral infections are self-limiting
The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as:
a. Tetanospasmin
b. Aflatoxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. Endotoxin
d. Endotoxin
The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce, and spread throughout its body is known as:
a. Invasiveness
b. Pathogenicity
c. Toxigenicity
d. Virulence
a. Invasiveness
The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as:
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Symbiosis
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganisms are said to be:
a. Recyclable
b. Biodegradable
c. Earth-friendly
d. Reversible
b. Biodegradable
Dengue virus vector
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Aedes aegypti
c. Anopheles mosquito
d. None of the above
b. Aedes aegypti
It causes a ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin
a. Tinea capitis
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Tines corporis
d. Malasseria furfur
d. Malasseria furfur
The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners
a. Chlamydia pneumoniae
b. Pneumocystis carinii
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Legionella pnemophila
d. Legionella pnemophila
The following are communicable diseases, except:
a. Measles
b. Pneumonia
c. Hepatitis
d. Tetanus
d. Tetanus
The following are zoonotic diseases, except:
a. Mumps
b. Leptospirosis
c. Anthrax
d. Bucellosis
a. Mumps
Hansen’s disease is caused by:
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Myoplasma leprae
d. None of the above
a. Mycobacterium leprae
The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except:
a. Makes use of an autoclave
b. Causes oxidation of cell components
c. Makes use of steam under pressure
d. Can kill both vegetative cells and spores
b. Causes oxidation of cell components
A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the:
a. Endospore
b. Exospore
c. Transposon
d. Capsule
d. Capsule
Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as:
a. F plasmids
b. R plasmids
c. Transposons
d. Both B and C
d. Both B and C
Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects
a. Protozoa
b. Rickettsias
c. Chlamydias
d. Myoplasmas
b. Rickettsias
The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated
a. Sulfonamide
b. Penicillin
c. Salvarsan
d. None of the above
c. Salvarsan
Thioglycollate agar is an example of:
a. Enriched media
b. Selective media
c. Anaerobic media
d. Differential media
c. Anaerobic media
A chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as:
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Sanitizer
d. Germicide
b. Disinfectant
An example of ionizing radiation
a. X-ray
b. UV
c. Sunlight
d. All of the above
a. X-ray
The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes
a. Ribosomes
b. Nucleus
c. Cytoplasm
d. Mitochondria
d. Mitochondria
The organism with atypical cell walls
a. Mycoplasmas
b. Rickettsias
c. Chlamydias
d. Viruses
a. Mycoplasmas
Koch’s postulates include the following, except:
a. The suspected organism should be present in healthy individuals
b. The organism must be isolates and grown as pure culture in the laboratory
c. The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy individuals
d. The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again the laborayory
a. The suspected organism should be present in healthy individuals
The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except:
a. The terms “aerobic” and “anaerobic”
b. Fractional sterilization
c. Pasteur flask
d. Fermentation
b. Fractional sterilization
A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity
a. Dimorphism
b. Polymorphism
c. Pleomorphism
d. Fleximorphism
c. Pleomorphism
The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except:
a. Olive oil
b. Culture media
c. Water
d. Glassware
a. Olive oil
A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency
a. Virus
b. Bacillus thuringiensis
c. Bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Clostridium botulinum
c. Bacillus stearothermophilus
Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth
a. Log phase
b. Lag phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Death phase
c. Stationary phase
A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state
a. Polymorphism
b. Mutagenicity
c. Germination
d. Sporulation
c. Germination
Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as:
a. 70s
b. 80s
c. 90s
d. 100s
b. 80s
Organisms that can grow at body temperature
a. Thermophiles
b. Psychrophiles
c. Acidophiles
d. Mesophiles
d. Mesophiles
Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes
a. Sporulation
b. Transverse binary fission
c. Germination
d. None of the above
b. Transverse binary fission
A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Both A and C
a. Transduction
A structurally mature infectious viral particle
a. Virion
b. Capsid
c. Capsule
d. Spore
a. Virion
An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning
a. Dinoflagellate
b. Diatom
c. Euglenoid
d. None of the above
a. Dinoflagellate
A theory that states that life originates from non-life
a. Theory of spontaneous generation
b. Koch’s postulates
c. Germ theory
d. None of the above
a. Theory of spontaneous generation
Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV
a. T-helpher lymphocytes
b. B-lymphocytes
c. Phagocytes
d. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
a. T-helper lymphocytes
A priority program of DOH which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals
a. Health Sector Reform Agenda
b. National Health Objectives
c. Sentrong Sigla
d. Health Passport Initiative
e. None of the above
c. Sentrong Sigla
Another priority program of DOH which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among various sectors
a. Health Sector Reform Agenda
b. National Health Objectives
c. Sentrong Sigla
d. Health Passport Initiative
e. None of the above
b. National Health Objectives
Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health related matters
a. DOH
b. WHO
c. QUERT
d. Sentrong Sigla
e. None of the above
a. DOH
Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under this program
a. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy
b. Nutrition Program
c. National Drug Policy Program
d. WHO
e. None of the above
d. WHO
Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible of health
a. Philhealth
b. DOH hospitals
c. UNICEF
d. WHO
e. None of the above
d. WHo
National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster
a. Internal Management
b. Health Regulation
c. External Affairs
d. Health Regulation Development
e. None of the above
d. Health Regulation Development
An employee liability law that provides financial support for workers unemployed because of work related injuries
a. OSH act
b. Workers compensation law
c. Civilian rehabilitation
d. Coal mine health and safety act
e. None of the above
b. Workers compensation law
A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust
a. Mesothelioma
b. Chemical hazards
c. Physical hazards
d. Ergonomic hazards
e. None of the above
e. none of the above
A type of industrial hazard which includes ambient heat, burn, noise, and vibration
a. Biological
b. Chemical
c. Physical
d. Ergonomic
e. None of the above
c. Physical
Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration
a. Sulfur dioxide
b. CO
c. CO2
d. Lead
e. None of the above
b. CO
The following are functions of amniotic fluid, except:
a. Allows the movement of fetus
b. Protects against mechanical injury
c. Provides stable temperature
d. Allows the fetus to float
e. None of the above
e. None of the above
Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism
a. Canning
b. Pasteurization
c. Irradiation
d. Drying
e. None of the above
a. Canning
A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
e. None of the above
c. Vitamin E
The irreversible state of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement
a. Cirrhosis
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Fatty liver
d. All
e. None
c. Fatty liver
The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except:
a. Smaller size
b. Deformities of limb
c. Heart detects
d. Poor coordination
e. None
e. None
Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts
a. Initial stage
b. Middle stage
c. Third stage
d. Final stage
e. None
b. Middle stage
Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hail, or fog
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Nitrogen oxide
d. A and B
e. B and C
e. B and C
It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond, or slow moving river and stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms
a. Acidification
b. Alkalinification
c. Nitrification
d. Eutrophication
e. None
d. Eutrophication
A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol
a. Naltrexone
b. Antabuse
c. Tranquilizers
d. All
e. None
b. Antabuse
This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception
a. Pregnancy
b. Fertilization
c. Implantation
d. Cleavage
e. None
a. Pregnancy
A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport, and wound healing
a. Copper
b. Manganese
c. Chromium
d. ZInc
d. None
a. Copper
It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals, and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual
a. RDA
b. REA
c. RAD
d. RAE
e. None
a. RDA
A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport, and excretion of nutrients
a. Primary malnutrition
b. Secondary malnutrition
c. Undernutrition
d. Overnutrition
e. None
b. Secondary nutrition
Deficiency of thiamine leads to:
a. Beri-beri
b. Pellagra
c. Stomatitis
d. A and B
e. B and C
a. Beri-beri
A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity
a. Cirrhosis
b. Alcoholism
c. Hang-over
d. A and B
e. B and C
c. Hang-over
Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called:
a. Steven Johnson’s syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d. A and B
e. None
c. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which of the following statements is least accurate?
a. Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
b. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
c. Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
d. Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
b. Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome
The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except:
a. Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis
b. Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types
c. Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, for example, the Pneumonococcus
d. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do
d. Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do
The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except:
a. It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body
b. Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs
c. When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts
d. The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity
c. When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts
The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except:
a. They are integral parts of the cell wall
b. They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli
c. They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and the one that has the toxic activity
d. Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines
a. They are integral parts of the cell wall
The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except:
a. It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways
b. Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells
c. Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils
d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria
d. Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria
Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which of the following is least accurate?
a. Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease but leaves its antigenicity intact
b. Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children
c. Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children
d. The pneumonococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people
c. Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children
Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least likely to do this?
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Poliovirus
c. Rotavirus
d. Mumps virus
d. Mumps virus
Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these allergies, penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate?
a. Penicillin is a T-dependent antigen, which binds to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response
b. Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them
c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T cell
d. Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2, and C3) to release inflammatory mediators
c. Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper T cell
The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Streptococus pyogenes
The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS, and skin boils
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae
a. Staphylococcus aureus
Normal flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
A group B streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis and sinusitis in children
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
e. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea
a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Gonococcus
A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as the glycocalyx
a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes
a. Meningococcus
Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neurotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm
a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Clostridium tetani
Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients
a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes
e. Listeria monocytogenes
Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter’s disease
a. Meningococcus
b. Gonococcus
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Bacillus anthracis
Characterized physiologically by a “sardonic smile”
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e. Clostridium difficile
b. Clostridium tetani
The causative agent of gas gangrene
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e. Clostridium difficile
a. Clostridium perfringens
In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e. Clostridium difficile
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e. Clostridium difficile
e. Clostridium difficile
The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
e. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium botulinum
A halophilic comma shaped, gram negative bacteria
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
d. Vibrio cholerae
A gram negative, comma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow’s agar
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery)
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
c. Shigella dysenteriae
Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis, and traveler’s diarrhea are the most common diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
a. Escherichia coli
Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio cholerae
e. Camphylobacteri jejuni
b. Salmonella typhi
Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Leptospira interrogans
d. Treponema pallidum
Spirochete which is the causative agent of leptospirosis
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Leptospira interrogans
e. Leptospira interrogans
Spirochete which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycyline for early stage and Pen G for late stages
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Leptospira interrogans
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Leptospira interrogans
a. Mycobacterium leprae
An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable of producing niacin. It can be treated with rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and INH
a. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Treponema pallidum
e. Leptospira interrogans
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Cytomegalovirus
The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can be treated with acyclovir
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis, and encephalitis
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults
a. Herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
c. Herpes simplex virus type 2
d. Cytomegalovirus
e. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Varicella-Zoster virus
Which of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial, and fungal cells?
a. Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do
b. Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan
c. Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have
d. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different
d. Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different
The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except:
a. They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins
b. They are more heat stable than exotoxins
c. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not
d. They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not
c. They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not
The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is:
a. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
b. IgG and IgM antibodies
c. Helpter-T cells
d. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
b. IgG and IgM antibodies
The following events involve recombination of DNA, except:
a. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
b. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
c. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
d. Conjugation, such as the transfer of an R (resistance) factor
d. Conjugation, such as the transfer of an R (resistance) factor
The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except:
a. The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat
c. Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found
d. Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found
b. Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat
Which of the following statements is the most important function of the antibody in host defenses against bacteria?
a. Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
b. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
c. Facilitation of phagocytosis
d. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
c. Facilitation of phagocytosis
Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
a. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
b. Inactivates elongation factor-2
c. Blocks release of acetylcholine
d. Causes the release of necrosis factor
d. Causes the release of necrosis factor
The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a. Capsule
b. Flagella
c. Cell wall
d. Ribosomes
d. Ribosomes
Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e. Cholera toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e. Cholera toxin
a. Diphtheria toxin
Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e. Cholera toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e. Cholera toxin
e. Cholera toxin
Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms
a. Diphtheria toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Toxic shock syndrome toxin
e. Cholera toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in a newborn nursery. You are called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the bacteria?
a. Colon
b. Nose
c. Throat
d. Vagina
b. Nose
The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except:
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Streptococcus fecalis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Vibrio cholerae
a. Clostridium perfringens
A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism?
a. Skin
b. Colon
c. Oropharynx
d. Urethra
c. Oropharynx
The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus fecalis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
c. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
c. Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent?
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Salmonella typhi
c. Bacillus cereus
Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector?
a. Plague
b. Lyme disease
c. Brucellosis
d. Epidermic typhus
c. Brucellosis
Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Rickettsia typhi
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Coxiella burnetii
b. Rickettsia typhi
The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except:
a. Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP
b. Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall
c. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype
d. Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods
d. Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods
A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of this urinary tract infection?
a. Streptococcus faecalis
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Proteus vulgaris
d. Escherichia coli
d. Escherichia coli
Acute glumerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms?
a. Streptococcus faecalis
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient?
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Serratia marcescens
c .Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Legionella pneumophila
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong?
a. Passive immunity
b. Passive-active immunity
c. Active immunity
d. Cell-mediated immunity
a. Passive immunity
The following statements concerning interferon are correct, except:
a. Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses
b. Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA
c. Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species
d. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell
d. Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct, except:
a. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell
b. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell
c. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
d. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes
c. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides
The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except:
a. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes
b. Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed
c. Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA
d. Some lysogenic bacteriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases
a. Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes
The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except:
a. Varicella-zoster virus
b. Papillomavirus
c. Influenza virus
d. HIV virus
b. Papillomavirus
The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Smallpox virus
c. Mumps virus
d. Rotavirus
b. Smallpox virus
The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
a. Coxsackie virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Rotavirus
d. Adenovirus
a. Coxsackie virus
Which of the following statements best describe a viroid?
a. It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein
b. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat
c. It causes tumor in experimental animals
d. It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur
b. It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat
The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except:
a. They are enveloped RNA viruses
b. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
c. They each have a single antigenic type
d. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol
b. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except:
a. They are enveloped RNA viruses
b. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
c. Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses
d. They each have a single antigenic type
d. They each have a single antigenic type
The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except:
a. They are non-enveloped RNA viruses
b. They each have multiple antigenic types
c. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
d. They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell
c. Their virions contain RNA polymerase
Herpes simplex virus
a. DNA enveloped virus
b. DNA non-enveloped virus
c. RNA enveloped virus
d. RNA non-enveloped virus
e. Viriod
a. DNA enveloped virus
Human T-cell leukemia virus
a. DNA enveloped virus
b. DNA non-enveloped virus
c. RNA enveloped virus
d. RNA non-enveloped virus
e. Viriod
c. RNA enveloped virus
Human papillomavirus
a. DNA enveloped virus
b. DNA non-enveloped virus
c. RNA enveloped virus
d. RNA non-enveloped virus
e. Viriod
b. DNA non-enveloped virus
Rotavirus
a. DNA enveloped virus
b. DNA non-enveloped virus
c. RNA enveloped virus
d. RNA non-enveloped virus
e. Viriod
d. RNA non-enveloped virus
The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except:
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Hepatitis A virus
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
b. Hepatitis A virus
Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus?
a. Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine
b. Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin
c. Parenteral administration of live vaccine
d. Oral administration of live vaccine
d. Oral administration of live vaccine
The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picomavirus, except:
a. Myocarditis/Pericarditis
b. Hepatitis
c. Mononucleosis
d. Meningitis
c. Mononucleosis
The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except:
a. The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus
b. If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given
c. When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given
d. The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis
a. The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus
It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Dengue virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
c. Human papillomavirus
Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Dengue virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Dengue virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Dengue virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
a. Hepatitis C virus
It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Dengue virus
e. St. Louis encephalitis virus
d. Dengue virus
Bacteria lack all of the following organelles, except:
a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleus
c. Mitotic apparatus
d. DNA
e. Nuclear membrane
d. DNA
The following are true about prokaryotes, except:
a. They are relatively small
b. Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only
c. They lack autonomous organelles
d. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane
d. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane
Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Helminths
a. Bacteria
Phylogenetic classifications are based on:
a. Shared morphologic attributes
b. Evolutionary relationships
c. Shape
d. Unusual growth characteristics
b. Evolutionary relationships
The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is:
a. 20 layers thick
b. 40 layers thick
c. 10 layers thick
d. 80 layers thick
e. 1 layer thick
e. 1 layer thick
Porins are:
a. Cytoplasmic membrane proteins
b. Periplasmic proteins
c. Outer membrane proteins
d. Inclusion bodies
c. Outer membrane proteins
Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except:
a. Lipoproteins
b. Lipotechoic acid
c. Lipopolysaccharide
d. Phospholipid
b. Lipotechoic acid
This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA
a. Nucleoid
b. Plasmids
c. Mesosomes
d. Transposons
c. Mesosomes
The bacterial organelle that is used for motility
a. Flagella
b. Pili
c. Cilia
d. Pseudopods
a. Flagella
An intracytoplasmic granule may contain:
a. Nucleic acids
b. Glycogen
c. Steroids
d. Spindle fibers
b. Glycogen
The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores
a. Polymerized d-glutamic acid
b. Flagellin
c. Dipicolinic acid
d. Techoic acid
c. Dipicolinic acid
This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms
a. Flagella
b. Fimbriae
c. Capsule
d. Endospores
b. Fimbriae
This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth, and even catheters
a. Capsule
b. Slime layer
c. Pili
d. Flagella
b. Slime layer
The following are true for endospores, except:
a. Highly resistant to disinfectants
b. Can survive for many years, especially in soil
c. Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation
d. Killed by heating at 100°C
d. Killed by heating at 100°C
A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as:
a. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
b. Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli
c. Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus
d. Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
a. Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
Bacteria that derive their energy from the oxidation of organic molecules are known as:
a. Heterotrophs
b. Autotrophs
c. Chemoautotrophs
d. Photoautotrophs
a. Heterotrophs
The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the:
a. Stationary phase
b. Log phase
c. Lag phase
d. Death phase
c. Lag phase
The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as:
a. Thermal death time
b. Growth rate constant
c. Generation time
d. Thermal death point
c. Generation time
Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium?
a. Salmonella thypinurium
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by:
a. Activated transpor
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Carrier-mediated transport
d. Any of the above
d. Any of the above
Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called:
a. Heterofermenters
b. Homofermenters
c. Glyoxalate shunt fermenters
d. Oxidative fermenters
b. Homofermenters
The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are:
a. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids
b. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
c. Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans
d. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin
b. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids?
a. Found only in gram-negative bacteria
b. Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic
c. May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
d. Two of the above
c. May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation?
a. It requires the F factor
b. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
c. It is mediated by a bacterial virus
d. It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
b. It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota
a. Disease
b. Infection
c. Symbiosis
d. Parasitism
c. Symbiosis
It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria
a. Disease
b. Infestation
c. Infection
d. Syndromes
c. Infection
Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as:
a. Acute
b. Subacute
c. Chronic
d. Latent
a. Acute
This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise, and it follows the period of incubation of the disease
a. Decline phase
b. Prodromal stage
c. Illness stage
d. Convalescence stage
b. Prodromal stage
The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is described as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Acute
c. Pandemic
It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host
a. Virulence
b. Pathogenicity
c. Attenuation
d. In vitro growth rates
b. Pathogenicity
The two major components of virulence include:
a. Invasiveness and toxigenicity
b. Intracellular and extracellular survival
c. Adherence factors and antiphagocytic mechanisms
d. Capsules and spreading factors
a. Invasiveness and toxigenicity
The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the release of acetylcholine, is produced by:
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Clostridium botulinum
The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by:
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is:
a. Escherichia coli
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus aureus
a. Escherichia coli
The following statements are true about endotoxins, except:
a. They are also known as lipopolysaccharides
b. They are an integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria
c. They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins
d. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving
d. Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving
The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except:
a. Teeth
b. Urethra
c. Bronchi
d. Skin
c. Bronchi
The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora
a. Skin
b. Colon
c. Vagina
d. Mouth
d. Mouth
Vancomycin is produced naturally from:
a. Strep. nodosus
b. Strep. orientalis
c. Strep. griseus
d. Strep. orchidaceous
b. Strep. orientalis
Polymixin is produced from:
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Bacillus cereus
c. Bacillus polymyxa
d. Bacillus anthracis
c. Bacillus polymyxa
The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except:
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Lincomycin
d. Cephalosporins
d. Cephalosporins
Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the penicillins and cephalosporins, although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a deficiency of:
a. Plasmid that codes for penicillinase
b. Autolytic enzymes
c. Cellular growth rates
d. Certain cytochromes
c. Cellular growth rates
Nystatin is produced naturally from:
a. Strep. nodosus
b. Strep. noursei
c. Strep. griseus
d. Strep. natalensis
b. Strep. noursei
This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB
a. Penicillin
b. Bacitracin
c. Vancomycin
d. Cycloserine
d. Cycloserine
Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic
a. Gentamicin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Bacitracin
d. Polymixin
b. Chloramphenicol
It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms
a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection
c. Antisepsis
d. Asepsis
b. Disinfection
It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice
a. Chlorine
b. Merthiolate
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. Iodine
d. Iodine
This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids.
a. Ethylene oxide
b. Formaldehyde
c. Acids and alkalis
d. Hydrogen peroxide
a. Ethylene oxide
It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions
a. Autoclave
b. Filtration
c. Radiation
d. Pasteurization
b. Filtration
This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have gonorrhea
a. Merthiolate
b. Mercurochrome
c. Silver sulfadiazine
d. Silver nitrate
d. Silver nitrate
The following are milk-born pathogens, except:
a. Mycobacterium bovis
b. Salmonella
c. Streptococcus
d. Clostridium
d. Clostridium
Which is the best method to sterilize penicillin solution?
a. Autoclaving
b. Dry heat (oven)
c. Ethylene oxide
d. Filtration
d. Filtration
The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following:
a. Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
b. Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
d. Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of:
a. L-glutamic acid
b. D-glutamic acid
c. Polysaccharide
d. Nucleic acid
b. D-glutamic acid
Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except:
a. it it a large, gram-positive rod
b. It is a spore-former
c. It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins
d. It can live inside phagocytic cells
d. It can live inside phagocytic cells
Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except:
a. It is a spore-former
b. It is a short, gram-positive rod
c. It can live inside phagocytic cells
d. It is actively motile
a. It is a spore-former
The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci
a. M protein
b. Group A carbohydrate
c. Hyaluronic acid capsule
d. Protein A
a. M protein
The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus
a. Gram staining
b. Catalase test
c. Coagulase test
d. Hemolysis test
c. Coagulase test
An example of a streptococcal disease sequela
a. Scarlet fever
b. Pharyngitis
c. Puerperal sepsis
d. Rheumatic fever
d. Rheumatic fever
The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis
a. 2
b. 7
c. 12
d. 19
c. 12
The streptococcus most commonly associated with subacuate bacterial endocarditis
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Viridans streptococci
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Viridans streptococci
Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea?
a. Polysaccharide capsule
b. Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin
c. Genus-specific protein
d. Production of IgA protease
c. Genus-specific protein
Neisseria are all:
a. Gram positive
b. Anaerobes
c. Coagulase positive
d. Oxidase positive
d. Oxidase positive
In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by:
a. Its characteristic morphology and gram stain
b. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
c. The presence of pili
d. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
d. Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans
a. Blood-sucking arthropods
b. Contact with contaminated feces
c. Animal bites and scratches
d. Contact with contaminated urine
e. Handling of infected tissues
c. Contact with contaminated urine
Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough?
a. Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible
b. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract
c. Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen
d. All of the above
b. The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract
Tularemia may occur in:
a. Ulderoglandular form
b. Oculoglandular form
c. Pulmonary form
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic, nosocomial pathogen
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Escherichia coli
d. Escherichia coli
A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium that was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus:
a. Klebsiella
b. Pseudomonas
c. Proteus
d. Serratia
a. Klebsiella
A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient having a UTI. The organism is lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus:
a. Proteus
b. Escherichia
c. Serratia
d. Klebsiella
a. Proteus
Leprosy may manifest itself as:
a. Lepromatous leprosy
b. Tuberculoid leprosy
c. A and B
d. B and C
c. A and B
Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except:
a. Cutaneous lesions
b. Mucous membrane lesions
c. Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre
d. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
d. Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by:
a. Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later
b. Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide
c. The VDRL test
d. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
d. Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
The smallest known free-living microorganism is:
a. Viruses
b. Mycoplasma species
c. Rickettsia
d. Chlamydiae
b. Mycoplasma species
The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is:
a. Sporozoite
b. Trophozoite
c. Merozoite
d. Cysts
b. Trophozoite
A class in which only parasitic forms occur
a. Sarcodina
b. Mastigophora
c. Ciliata
d. Sporozoa
d. Sporozoa
In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found:
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Sputum
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms?
a. Formalin-ether
b. Kato thick smear
c. Stool dilution
d. A and B
e. B and C
e. B and C
Blastocyctis hominis is a:
a. Zooparasite
b. Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
c. New name for Enatamoeba coli
d. Bacteria
b. Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozite practically identifies:
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
a. Entamoeba coli
Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Entamoeba histolytica
Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts)
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Endolimax nana
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Iodamoeba butsclii
e. Dientamoeba fragilis
d. Iodamoeba butschlii
In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A. The period just before a paroxysm
b. At the beginning of a paroxysm
c. During the late paroxysmal stage
d. The period just following a paroxysm
a. The period just before a paroxysm
Definitive host of human malarial species
a. Any domestic animal
b. Anopheles mosquito
c. Man
d. B and C
b. Anopheles mosquito
The sexual cycle is the:
a. Sporogony
b. Schizogony
c. Either B or C
d. Neither B nor C
a. Sporogony
Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer’s dots) is often seen in infections with:
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
a. Plasmodium vivax
As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which includes:
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium falciparum
The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
a. Plasmodium vivax
Man may acquire Toxoplasma from:
a. Mice
b. Cats
c. Dogs
d. Pigs
b. Cats
Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by:
a. Stool examination
b. Thin blood film
c. Fluorescent antibody tests
d. Intradermal test
c. Fluoroscent antibody tests
Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by:
a. Bite of the vector insect
b. Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
c. In the body of the parasitic nematode
d. Ingestion of infected food
c. In the body of the parasitic nematode
The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance
a. Chilomastix mesnili
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trichomonas hominis
d. Retortamonas
a. Chilomastic mesnili
An axostyle is present in this organism:
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium falciparum
Trophozoite that resembles “old man’s eyeglasses”
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
b. Plasmodium malariae
This organism has lemon-shaped cysts
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malariae
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
a. Plasmodium vivax
This causes visceral leishmaniasis
a. Leishmania donovani
b. Leishmania tropica
c. Leishmania braziliensis
d. Trypanosoma cruzi
a. Leishmania donovani
The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Pig
d. Cattle
c. Pig
A viviparous organism
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichenella spiralis
c. Hookworm
d. Pinworm
b. Trichenella spiralis
Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposites larvae in the intestinal canal?
a. Hookworm
b. Pinworm
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Trichuris trichiura
b. Pinworm
“Old world” hookworm
a. Necator americanus
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Ancylostoma caninum
d. Toxocara canis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
This organism causes tropical elephantiasis
a. Loa loa
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Wucheria bancrofti
d. Drancunculus medinensis
c. Wucheria bancrofti
The presence of mammilated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichinella spiralis
b. Trichuris trichiura
The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichinella spiralis
a. Enterobius vermicularis
Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of:
a. Pig
b. Monkey
c. Dog
d. Cat
c. Dog
Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
c. Hookworm
d. A and B
e. B and C
e. B and C
Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism
a. Hookworm
b. Whipworm
c. Pinworm
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
e. Strongyloides stercoralis
e. Strongyloides stercoralis
Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with:
a. Whipworm
b. Hookworm
c. Pinworm
d. Large intestinal roundworm
b. Hookworm
The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Dipyllobotrium latum
d. Dipylidium caninum
e. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Dipyllobotrium latum
The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans
a. Hymenolepsis nana
b. Hymenolepsis diminute
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Taenia solium
c. Dipylidium caninum
The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Dipyllobotrium latum
d. Dipylidium caninum
e. Echinococcus granulosus
e. Echinococcus granulosus
The eggs of this worm are operculated
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata
c. Dipyllobotrium latum
d. Dipylidium caninum
c. Dipyllobotrium latum
Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contains this organism
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus weatermani
d. Chlonorchis sinensis
b. Fasciolopsis buski
This causes Egyptian hematuria
a. Schistosoma hematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Fasciola hepatica
a. Schistosoma hematobium
The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine
a. Schistosoma hematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Fasciola hepatica
b. Schistosoma mansoni
This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus weatermani
d. Chlonorchis sinensis
d. Chlonorchis sinensis
This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Paragonimus weatermani
d. Chlonorchis sinensis
c. Paragonimus weatermani
The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has:
a. Anemia
b. Circulating immune complexes
c. Hashimotos’ thyroiditis
d. Pernicious anemia
b. Circulating immune complexes
The Coomb’s test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of:
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. Waldenstrom’s macroglubilemia
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is:
a. Antibody thyroglobulin
b. Antibody to DNA
c. Antibody to mitochondria
d. Antibody to smooth muscle
b. Antibody to DNA
In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis:
a. Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane
b. Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns
c. Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane
d. Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O
c. Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane
In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of:
a. Capsule
b. Mucopeptide layer
c. M and/or T proteins
d. Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci
c. M and/or T proteins
Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by:
a. Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus
b. Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant’s serum
c. Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus
d. Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
d. Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses?
a. Varicella-zoster
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Poliovirus
d. Herpes simplex virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin, and nails only are likely to belong to the genus:
a. Epidermophyton
b. Trichophyton
c. Microsporum
d. Trichosporum
a. Epidermophyton
A hapten is a substance that:
a. Induces cellular immune repsonse but not antibody production
b. Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule
c. Induces tolerance when given alone
d. When coupled to a larger molecular can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes
b. Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule
Which of the following is a characteristic of the “positive strand” RNA virus?
a. The polymerase contained in the virion is necessary in the replication
b. The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA
c. The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form
d. Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA
b. The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA
