Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards 1 - MICRO > Microbiology (All) > Flashcards

Microbiology (All) Flashcards

1
Q

A mannitol salt agar is used for ______

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits ______

A

Transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following are negri bodies seen in?

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity?

A

Rapid availability of protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following release IL-2

A

T-Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following does a virus cause?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following describes destruction of all microorganisms?

A

Sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fever blisters are associated with which of the following?

A

Herpes Simplex 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is an acid-fast bacterium?

A

Mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is coagulase positive?

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following has no cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Peritrichous is a pattern of _____

A

Flagella (Peritrichous is a bacteria that has a flagella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following causes yaws?

A

Treponema pertenunez

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A rapid loss of fluids is associated with which of the following?

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is Reye’s Syndrome associated with?

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is associated with mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following causes atypical primary pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following causes Osteomyelitis?

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which type of milk is the most apt to cause disease?

A

Raw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following organisms causes hemorrhagic jaundice?

A

Leptospira ictohemorrhagiea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A throat culture predominately pinpoints beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains, which are bacitracin sensitive, and not bile soluble is indicative of which of the following pathogens?

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following cells?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea is which of the following?

A

Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a urine sample contains WBC, WBC casts, and bacteria it would indicate which of the following?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following does the greatest damage to the ozone layer?

A

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Trismus is a characteristic finding in which of the following?

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following cell types contain heparin?

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which part of the complement is the 1st to affix to the cell membrane?

A

C3B (important in opsonization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following produces helper substances?

A

CD4 (cytotoxic T-cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which infection predisposes a child to Reye’s Syndrome?

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following bacteria transmit drug resistors?

A

Plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following cause hookwrm disease?

A

Necator americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following cause pinworm disease?

A

Enterohius vermicularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following cause round worms?

A

Ascariasis lumbricoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following cell types work together with T-lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following government agencies is not part of the US Public Health Service?

A

Communicable disease center (CDC - center for disease control currently)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following diseases cause weight loss, abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?

A

Giardia (giardiasis) - this is a flagellate, oral/fecal transmission, interferes with fat absorption, fatty diarrhea also known as Giardia Lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is responsible for Lyme’s disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following etiological agents causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazeki

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which genus are responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?

A

Escherichia (E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following parasites causes blackwater fever?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which factor is responsible for making influenza pandemic?

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following routes transmits mycoplasma hormone?

A

Sexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

______ causes childhood dysentery

A

Coxsackie Virus B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

_____ is a eukaryotic organism

A

Protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The DPT vaccine offers which type of immuity?

A

Artificial Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Organisms of which genus usually cause allergic reactions?

A

Aspergillus (a. Fumigatus, a. Clavatus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?

A

Bacterium (Bordetella Pertussis - Gram negative coccobacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

_____ is the usual cause of bladder infections

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

____ is the immunoglobulin, which can be detected, early in an infectious process

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Motor viruses primarily affect which system?

A

Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following most commonly causes impetigo contagious?

A

Strep Pyogenes (Group A B-hemolytic streptococci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Blue green pus in a wound indicates the presence of which of the following organisms?

A

Pseudomonas aeriginosa (Obligate aerobic, Gram -, motile rods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the most common organism to affect a patient with AIDS?

A

Pneumocystic carnii (opportunistic infection often associated with immunosuppression, has characteristics of fungus and protozoa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide belongs to which genus?

A

Schistosoma (found in water) (pg. 10 on packet) - has 3 types [Mansoni, Japonicum, Hematobium]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

_____ cells process antigen.

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

_____ can penetrate unbroken skin.

A

Schistosoma mansoni (infectious part of the parasite [flatworm] cercariae leave the snail and penetrate human skin that is in contact with contaminated freshwater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following does a vector NOT transmit?

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is a result of the reaction between soluble antigen and a specific antibody?

A

Precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Vitamin B12 deficiency often results from which worm infestation?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm - contracted from undercooked fish - Megaloblastic anemia due to the fish tapeworm absorbing all the nutrients the individual is eating, resulting in a B12 deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Organisms from which genus are used as antigen in the diagnosis of Rickettsia disease?

A

Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Destroying of the larva of parasites from the genus Ascariasis, Schistosoma and Trichinella is a distinctive function of ______.

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which parasite is most apt to infect the person who has been walking barefoot in a pile of feces?

A

Necatur americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following exhibits a gray pseudomembrane?

A

Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pasteurization is complete when the _____ organism has been killed.

A

Brucellosis (zoonosis - transmitted from RAW MILK - fever and joint infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the purpose of pasteurization?

A

To stop the growth of Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?

A

Pus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?

A

Leptospira interrogans (infectious jaundice - found in contaminated water either by animal urine, feces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following causes Legionnaire’s Disease?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following sexually transmitted organisms causes PID and Infertility?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following causes Bacillary Dysentery?

A

Shigella (Shigella Dysenteriae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a common characteristic of diphtheria?

A

Pharyngeal Pseudomenbrane (exotoxin causes grey pseudomembrane in the throat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following increase when a parasitic infection is present?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is the primary pathological consequence of Malarial infection?

A

Erythrocyte destruction (pg 8 packet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following diseases is a result of phage induction in staphylococci?

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Bacterial capsules are generally composed of a high molecular weight. Which of the following is one?

A

Polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus is the major cause of Bronchiolitis and Pneumonia in which of the following?

A

Infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik spots?

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Bacteria which grows @ 55 degrees C or higher are known as _____

A

Thermophile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the following organisms cause hard black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?

A

Piedri Hortae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following is primarily found in hard water?

A

Calcium, Magnesium, Salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which of the following conditions is caused by Clostridium perfungies?

A

Gas Gangrene (fermentation with gas production causes death of tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following has been implicated in river blindness?

A

Onchocerca (Onchocerca Volvulus - vector = black fly, central africa, mexico, south america)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The Bacillus calmette gueron (BCG vaccine) vaccine provided immunity against which of the following?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the virus that causes Gengivostomatitis?

A

Herpes Simplex 1 (HSV1 - oral, HSV2 - below the waist, Whitlow - hands/fingers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?

A

Respiratory Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Influenza pandemic occurs because of which of the following?

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

_______ is the process by which two or more different strains of a virus, or strains of two or more different viruses, combine to form a new sub-type having a mixture of the surface antigens of the two or more original strains.

A

Antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which of the following parasites causes Cysticerocosis?

A

Taenia Solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which of the following increases the immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?

A

Immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which of the following is associated with an encapsulated Diplococcus?

A

Neisseria (Neisseria gonorrheae, Neisseria meningititis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Chlorinated hydrocarbons that are stored in the bone can be most destructive to which of the following?

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which of the following organisms is most responsible for fecal contamination of water?

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which of the following sources of water contain the most sulfur?

A

Rain water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following is the step before flocculation in water treatment?

A

Filtration [Filter –> Flocculation –> Sediment –> Sand filter –> Sludge digest –> Aeration –> Chlorination]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which of the following elements is prevalent in significant amounts in ground water?

A

Radon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following cells in the plasma contain interleukin II?

A

T-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which of the following is involved in the transmission of Hepatitis A?

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The causative agent of ringworm is a _______

A

Fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which of the following organisms causes thrush?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Coccidiodomycosis is a fungus that affects which of the following?

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which of the following can aggravate C-3?

A

Plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which of the following is found in the infectious stage of Necator americanus?

A

Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which of the following cells produce interleukin I?

A

Mononuclear phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Which of the following cells produce Histamine?

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Scolex on a tapeworm is for which of the following?

A

Attachement to intestinal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Transmission of Herpes II (HSV-2) from mother to newborn is ______

A

Perinatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Secondary amoebic infection will spread to which organ?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What causes Otitis media?

A

Hemophiles influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Conjugation involves which of the following structures?

A

Pilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the cause of a heroin addict who has fever, tremors, mm. spasma, red streaks over injection site?

A

Strep Pyogenes [Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci causes strep throat, scarlet fever, impetigo, glomerulonephritis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which of the following causes stomach ulcers?

A

H. Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which of the following is the vector of St. Louis encephalitis?

A

Mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which of the following is found in farmers who breathe in hay or grain dust?

A

Farmers lung [hypersensitivity pneumonitis that results from inhalation of moldy hay or grain dust - type 3 hypersentitivity rxn that can become chronic] (DO NOT CONFUSE WITH SILO-FILLER’s DX - NO2 rxn to silage - results in ARDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Ringworm is diagnosed using which of the following?

A

Ultra Violet (woods lamp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

In what phase do bacteria divide at a CONSTANT rate?

A

Log [constant division]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which of the following is the Vector for Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever?

A

Tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What has been responsible for the greatest increase in life expectancy?

A

Control of Infectious Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which of the following is most apt to be found in a muscle biopsy?

A

Trichimonis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

A

Shigella (contaminated soil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Zehl Nelson stain is used to detect which of the following?

A

Acid Fast Bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which of the following diseases is spread via the fecal/oral route?

A

Polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Which of the following strains of E. Coli causes travelers diarrhea?

A

Enterotoxogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Schistosoma affects what part of the body?

A

Blood [Blood flukes cause schistosomiasis (Bilharzia]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Which of the following causes fungal infection of the lung?

A

Histoplasmosia and Coccidiomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which of the following causes acute Osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Clostridium _________ causes gas gangrene and myonecrosis…

A

Perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which of the following is a process by which colloidal particles settle out from solution?

A

Flocculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Penicillin acts by preventing formation of _____ in bacteria.

A

Peptidoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Which of the following pathogens causes Colitis secondary to antibiotic treatment?

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which of the following is in saliva and tears?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which of the following U.S. Government Agency compiles data on outbreaks of disease?

A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which of the following is a cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A

Strep viridians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Epidemic parototitis is associated with ______

A

Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Haemophilus Ducreyi is associated with what type of ulcer, and is it painful?

A

Chancroid Ulcer - Painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Treponema Pallidum is a likely cause of Syphilis, what type of ulcer does syphilis usually produce and is it painful?

A

Chancre Ulcer - Painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Which organism causes diphtheria?

A

Bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What cells produce antibodies in response to an antigen?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the most common hookworm in the U.S.?

A

Nector americanus [eggs hatch in soil, larvae penetrate bare skin, adults mature in sm. intestine]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Tetanus toxoid neutralizes ______

A

Circulating toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Active digestion of organic material occurs at which stage of sewage treatment?

A

Trickling [trying to find diagrams for this is awful idk just take a hit on this?]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for lab experiment standards?

A

NIH (national institute of health)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Erythromatous ring seen in scarlet fever comes from which of the following?

A

Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which organism is responsible for common form food poisoning?

A

Staph aures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Trypansoma gambiensi (Trypansoma brucei) primarily affects what?

A

Brain [also known as african sleeping sickness - vector = tse tse fly]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which of the following cells produces interleukin II?

A

T-helper cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most predominant in the neonate?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which scientist is credited with stating that bacteria is capable of transferring genetic information?

A

Griffith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Recent outbreaks from E. coli are due to which of the following?

A

Enteropathogenic [uh, no idea where this “fact” comes from]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

The incidence of disease is best defined as the total number of __________

A

New cases appearing in a given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What type of food poisoning is obtained from improperly canned foods?

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which of the following is toxic, does not have DNA, but still has protein?

A

Prion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Which of the following organisms causes Rheumatic Fever?

A

Group A Lancefield (lancefield classifications are based off if the organism is catalase positive or negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Hepatic Whitlow occurs in which of the following?

A

Fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Which of the following agencies writes and publishes literature?

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Salk vaccine is considered to be ______

A

Inactive Polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How does UV radiation destroy organisms?

A

Destroys the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Which of the following causes Scalded Skin Syndrome?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

When there is an epidemic spread of a disease which of the following is most important?

A

The Vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Which of the following transmits Hepatitis A?

A

Fecal/Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which of the following causes rice water stools?

A

Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat resistant strains of Staph aureus?

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Iodine used in gram staining is considered a _______

A

Modant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which of the following causes symptoms similar to mono?

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which of the following produces a toxin that does not allow Ach to be released at the myoneural junction?

A

Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which of the following is catalase and coagulase negative?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Which of the following parasites is found around the anus and is detected by the scotch tape test?

A

Enterobius vermicularis [pinworm - females lay eggs in perianal area causing itching - scotch tape method of egg collection]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which of the following is the most common PID?

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Exposure to chickenpox and measles will impart which of the following immunities?

A

Natural active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Which of the following is the organism most responsible for urinary tract infection?

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Trypanosonia cruzi is the organism that causes what?

A

Chagas disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

The etiological agent of Lymes Disease is _______

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Which of the following is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Salmonella poisoning is most commonly due to ingestion of ____&____

A

Eggs and Poultry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which process has contributed to the decline in the incidence of food poisoning?

A

Proper Cooking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Which organism most commonly affects AIDS patients?

A

Fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Lymphocytes release ____ in response to a viral infection.

A

Interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Which of the following is a causative agent in smallpox?

A

Variola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Candylomata lata are found in what stage of Syphilis?

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Which of the following is used to measure sewage contamination?

A

Coliforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Which of the following Rickettsia diseases is found in contaminated milk?

A

Q Fever [this is also known as Coxiella]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction?

A

B-Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What is the most common way to be infected by Toxoplasmosis?

A

Feline Feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

The presence of a red streak that appears along the course of a blood vessel would indicate development of ________

A

Bacteremia

191
Q

Which of the following is the Federal Agency that sets lab standards?

A

NIH

192
Q

The ELISA test is for ________

A

AIDS

193
Q

Which of the following Federal Agencies sets the standards for the work place?

A

OSHA

194
Q

Which of the following has pear shaped double nuclei and 4 pair of flagella?

A

Giardia Lamblia

195
Q

Which of the following Federal Agencies funds research?

A

NIH

196
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of Staph Aureus?

A

Active and Invasive Opportunist

197
Q

What zoonosis disease do spores spread?

A

Anthrax

198
Q

What is the mode of transmission for German Measles?

A

Respiratory Droplets

199
Q

Which scientist is responsible for the prevention of food borne disease?

A

Pasteur

200
Q

Which of the following Govt Agencies focuses on biomedical research?

A

NIH

201
Q

A 10 yr old with a stiff neck, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, 104 degree temp, tachycardia, and meningitis WITHOUT rash has what?

A

Equine Encephalitis

202
Q

Which of the following results in passive naturally acquired immunity?

A

Breast Feeding

203
Q

What is the 1st human cellular defense against viral infection?

A

Humoral response

204
Q

Which bacteria are primarily responsible for spontaneous abortion in cattle?

A

Brucella

205
Q

What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?

A

Intestine [campylobacter jejuni]

206
Q

Which of the following consumes inorganic material?

A

Autotroph

207
Q

The brain and the peripheral nervous system produce which of the following immunoregulatory chemicals?

A
  • Interleukin I (macrophage)

- Gamma Globulins (B-cells)

208
Q

Which of the following does Herpes Simplex Type II cause?

A

Genital Herpes

209
Q

The rash cause by rocky Mountain Spotted Fever originates in which of the following areas of the body?

A

Ankles and Wrist

210
Q

Which of the following conditions are caused by Staph Aureus?

A 
S.T.O.I.C.E.
- Scalded skin 
- Toxic Shock
- Osteomyelitis
- Impetigo
- Carbuncles
- E...
[I don't remember what the E stands for, and can't find it anywhere]
211
Q

A mature adult parasite makes its permanent home in the ______

A

Definitive Host

212
Q

The common cold is spread via _____

A

AIR

213
Q

AIDS virus attacks which of the following?

A

CD4 and Cytotoxic T-Cells

214
Q

What is the most common fungal condition in the Ohio Valley and Missisippi Valley areas?

A

Histoplasmosis [spelunkers disease - transmitted by inhalation of spores in bat and bird feces - pulmonary and systemic infections]

215
Q

Protozoa are found in water in which of the following forms?

A

Cyst Form

216
Q

What is the function of a bacterial capsule?

A

Prevents bacterial phagocytosis

217
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity is ______

A

Cell mediated

218
Q

Which of the following fluoresces under light?

A

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

219
Q

Which of the following is associated with childhood dysentery?

A

Coxsackie Virus

220
Q

What is the most likely outcome of a Hepatitis A Virus infection?

A

Full recovery

221
Q

What is the most likely cause if a patient presents with blurred vision, 103 degree temperature, fever, diarrhea, and headache?

A

Clostridium botulinum

222
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Wool Sorters Disease?

A

Inhalation of Bacillus anthrax spores

223
Q

Trismus (lock jaw) is caused by which of the following?

A

Clostridium Tetani

224
Q

Extrinsic asthma is characterized by increased ____

A

Serum IgE levels

225
Q

What is the most common cause of lead poisoning in the U.S.?

A

Industrial waste

226
Q

Parasitic infections will increase which of the following?

A

Eosinophils

227
Q

What type of immunity is imparted to a person who has taken the DPT vaccine?

A

Artificial active

228
Q

Ingestion and digestion of solid foods by cells of the body is ______

A

Phagocytosis

229
Q

Which of the following causes Baciliary dysentery?

A

Shigella

230
Q

Iodine functions as a _____ in gram staining procedure.

A

Mordant

231
Q

Which of the following causes Thrush?

A

Candida albicans

232
Q

Which of the following is Acid Fast?

A

Mycobacterium

233
Q

Which of the following causes blue-green pus?

A

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

234
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate test to determine acid-fast bacilli?

A

Ziehl Nielson

235
Q

What is the function of a bacterial capsid?

A

Protects nuclear material

236
Q

What is the probable cause of a 4 year old that presents with upper respiratory infection, pharyngitis, laryngitis, a red pharynx, and a 102 degree fever?

A

Hemophilus Influenza

237
Q

What is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea?

A

Reovirus

238
Q

Antibodies, which provide immunity against Streptococcus pneumoniae, react with the ________

A

capsular polysaccharide

239
Q

What is the best way to test for Typhus?

A

Blood

240
Q

What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?

A

Sand fly

241
Q

Negri bodies are found in _______

A

Rabies

242
Q

Which of the following does not produce an exotoxin?

A

Baciliary dysentery

243
Q

Which of the following produce exotoxin?

A
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Staph aureus
  • Strep pyogenes
244
Q

Water borne infections are derived mostly from ______

A

Giardia lamblia

245
Q

Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following?

A

Pathogenic Staph

246
Q

How is Hepatitis Virus vaccine produced?

A

Synthetically Manufactured

247
Q

A patient with koplik spots probably is infected with what?

A

Rubella [MMR]

248
Q

A darkfield microscope is used to identify which of the following?

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

249
Q

Coliform count is used to detect which of the following?

A

Inadequate sewage disposal

250
Q

Microorganisms that live at 20-25 degrees C are classified as which of the following?

A

Mesophiles

251
Q

BCG vaccine is used to prevent which of the following?

A

TB

252
Q

Who is the scientist responsible for categorizing Streptococci?

A

Lancefield

253
Q

Which of the following produces hard, red, non-painful lesions on the penis?

A

Syphilis

254
Q

Which of the following is responsible for San Joaquin Valley Fever?

A

Coccidiodes immitis

255
Q

Which portion of the body is most affected by the Herpes Virus?

A

Nervous System

256
Q

What is the most common method of transmission for hookworm infection?

A

Through the skin

257
Q

Precipitation from solution in the form of fleecy masses is the definition for which of the following?

A

Flocculation

258
Q

Which of the following carries Equine encephalitis?

A

Mosquito

259
Q

What is the worst form of malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

260
Q

Plasmodium fits into which of the following categories?

A

Protozoa

261
Q

A severe lack of both B and T lmphocytes is asociated with which of the following?

A

Leukemia

262
Q

Retrovirus is typically ____ to _____

A

RNA –> DNA

263
Q

Which of the following is the reason that the FDA requires pasteurization of eggs across state lines?

A

To prevent salmonella

264
Q

The fluke is known as Paragonia westermani is found in the _____

A

Lung

265
Q

A rash on the hands and feet is characteristic of which of the following?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

266
Q

Which of the following does not display immunoglobulin?

A

Type IV

267
Q

Ascariasis lumbricoides is transmitted via which of the following?

A

Fecal/Oral

268
Q

Mast cells are most closely correlated with which of the following?

A

Basophiles

269
Q

Which of the following is not fully funded by the Federal Government?

A

CDC

270
Q

Genital Herpes is associated with which of the following?

A

Type II Herpes

271
Q

Herpes Simplex I is associated with which of the following?

A

Sores

272
Q

Which of the following fungi cause jock itch?

A

Tinea cruris

273
Q

The largest portion of air pollution in the U.S. comes from _______

A

Carbon Monoxide

274
Q

Which of the following organisms is associated with Lymes disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

275
Q

Which of the following have flagella at both ends?

A

Peritrichous

276
Q

Vibrio cholera will produce which of the following?

A

Water and Mucous in the stool

277
Q

Which of the following is asociated with inflammation of the nerves in the face and brain?

A

Herpes

278
Q

Which of the following cause Rock mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsia

279
Q

What is the secondary step in sewage treatment?

A

Use of microorganisms to digest materials

280
Q

Chloride plus water results in which of the following?

A

Hydrochloric Acid

281
Q

Putting in _____ cleans a septic tank

A

Microorganisms

282
Q

Which of the following is an immune complex performed by the body?

A

C1-C2-C3-C4-C5

283
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity is associated with which of the following?

A

Type IV cell mediated response

284
Q

What is the diagnosis for a 30 y/o male who presents with a fever and skin lesions that appear as eccentric rings on the trunk?

A

Lymes Disease

285
Q

Which of the following is asociated with Gas Gangrene?

A

Clos perferingens

286
Q

WHich of the following does a vector not transmit?

A

Q fever

287
Q

Which of the following is associated with the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

288
Q

Hemophilus influenza is most dangerous for _____

A

Newborns

289
Q

Shigella causes which of the following?

A

Bacillary dysentery

290
Q

Rose-colored spots on the abdomen are associated with which of the following?

A

Salmonella Typhosa

291
Q

T-helper cells activate which of the following?

A

B-lymphocytes

292
Q

Which of the following immunological reactions does not display immunoglobulin response?

A

Type IV

293
Q

What is the fungus that affects the body?

A

Tinea corporis

294
Q

Which of the following can spread the common cold?

A

Air and Fomites

295
Q

A foul smelling fishy discharge is associated with which of the following?

A

Gardenella Vaginalis

296
Q

What are plantar warts caused by?

A

Virus

297
Q

Which of the following is the diagnostic test for TB?

A

Mantoux

298
Q

Which of the following spreads epidemic typhus?

A

Body lice

299
Q

What is the etiological agent that causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazeki

300
Q

What are the genus responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?

A

E. Coli

301
Q

Which of the following cause Black water fever?

A

PLasmodium falciforum

302
Q

How is mycoplasma homonis transmitted?

A

Sexually

303
Q

Which of the following is a Eukaryotic organism?

A

Protozoa

304
Q

Which genus/species causes allergic reactions?

A

Aspergillus

305
Q

Which of the following causes whooping cough?

A

bacterium

306
Q

Which of the following is detected earliest in the infection process?

A

IgM

307
Q

Motor viruses primarily affects which of the following?

A

Nervous system

308
Q

Impetigo contagiosa is most commonly caused by ______

A

Strep pyogenes

309
Q

What is the most common organism to affect a person with AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

310
Q

Which of the following is the Helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide?

A

Schistosoma

311
Q

Which of the following cells process antigen?

A

Macrophages

312
Q

Which of the following can penetrate unbroken skin?

A

Schistosoma mansoni

313
Q

Which of the following results in a reaction between a soluble antigen and a specific antibody?

A

Precipitation

314
Q

Which of the following causes a B12 deficiency?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum (fishworm)

315
Q

A throat culture that produces pinpoint beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and in chains, which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble, would indicate which of the following?

A

Strep Pyogenes

316
Q

Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following?

A

Plasma cells

317
Q

What is the best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea?

A

Chocolate agar

318
Q

If a urine sample as WBC’s, WBC casts, RBC’s and Bacteria in it you should investigate for which of the following?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

319
Q

Which of the following contain heparin?

A

Basophils and Mast cells

320
Q

Which is the 1st part of the complement to affix to the cell membrane?

A

C3B

321
Q

Which of the following produces helper substances?

A

CD4

322
Q

Which of the following infections predisposes a child to Reye’s Syndrome?

A

Influenza

323
Q

Which of the following transmits drug resistors?

A

Plasmids

324
Q

Which of the following cause hookworm disease?

A

Necator americanus

325
Q

Which of the following crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?

A

IgG

326
Q

Which of the following work with T-Cells to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?

A

Macrophages

327
Q

Which of the following is not part of the U.S. Public Health Service?

A

CDC

328
Q

Which of the following causes weight loss, abdominal pain, mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?

A

Giardia Lamblia

329
Q

Which of the following is TB in the spine?

A

Pott’s

330
Q

What is the envelope around the capsid derived from?

A

Host cell membrane [capsid is comprised of lipoproteins]

331
Q

What si the primary site of campylobacteriasis?

A

Intestine

332
Q

Which of the following causes a fungus ball in the lung?

A

Aspergillus

333
Q

Where does the highest number of anaerobic bacterial growth occur in sewage treatment?

A

Sludge

334
Q

Which of the following is associated with the causitive agent of mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr

335
Q

Which of the following causes hemorrhagic jaundice?

A

Leptospira ictohemorrhagea

336
Q

Which of the following is associated with encapsulated diplococcus?

A

Neisseria

337
Q

Chlorinated hydrocarbons that enter the body through the bone can be most destructive to the ________

A

CNS

338
Q

Which of the following water sources contain the most sulfur?

A

Rain water

339
Q

What is the step subsequent to (after) flocculation in water treatment?

A

Sedimentation

340
Q

What are the steps of water treatment in order?

A

Flocculation, Sedimentation, Filtration, Aeration

341
Q

At what stage is backwashing used in drinking water treatment?

A

Filtration

342
Q

Which of the following is present in significant amounts in ground water sources?

A

Radon

343
Q

Which cells in plasma contain interleukin II?

A

T-lymphocytes

344
Q

Where do malarial parasites reproduce?

A

Inside RBC’s

345
Q

Which of the following can activate C3?

A

Plasmin

346
Q

Which of the following is found in the infective stage of Necator americanus?

A

Trophozoite

347
Q

Which of the following is a result of phage induction in STaphylococcus?

A

Osteomyelitis

348
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in which of the following?

A

INfants

349
Q

What si the etiological agent of mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr

350
Q

A patient from South America presents with coffee ground vomiting and severe nosebleeds. He relates a history of severe headaches for the past 4 days, jaundice, body aches, indomnia and nausea. The most likely diagnosis is what?

A

Yellow fever

351
Q

Bacteria which grows at 55 degrees C or higher are _____

A

Thermophiles

352
Q

Which of the following cause black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?

A

Piedri hortae

353
Q

What are the properties of Streptococcus as a result of lysogenic conversion?

A

Erythrogenic Toxin

354
Q

Which federal agency regulates the management of hazardous waste?

A

EPA

355
Q

WHich of the following mediate Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

IgE

356
Q

Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine (BCG) provides immunity against which of the following?

A

TB

357
Q

Which virus causes gengivostomatitis?

A

HSV-1

358
Q

Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?

A

Inhalation

359
Q

Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

360
Q

Which of the following causes cysticercosis?

A

Taenia solium

361
Q

What is the most common cause of death in the US?

A

Heart disease

362
Q

What would be the diagnosis for a child who presents with a rash around the buttocks due to a parasitic condition?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

363
Q

What is the most common symptom of Cholera?

A

Rice Water stools

364
Q

WHich of the following si the vector for western equine encephalitis?

A

Mosquito

365
Q

A gray pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is associated with which of the following?

A

Diphtheria

366
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?

A

Pus formation

367
Q

Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?

A

Leptospira interrogans

368
Q

Fungi imperfecti are so named because of what reason?

A

No sexual spores

369
Q

WHich of the following is a common characteristic of diphtheria?

A

Pharyngeal pseudomembrane

370
Q

What is the primary pathological consequence of malaria?

A

Erythrocyte destruction

371
Q

What is the primary allergen to which a child reacts in barley, rye and wheat?

A

Gluten

372
Q

The toxoid for tetanus produces which of the following forms of immunity?

A

Artificial Active

373
Q

The TB skin test represents which of the following responses?

A

Type IV delayed

374
Q

Which of the following kills all microbes?

A

Autoclaving

375
Q

Which of the following do mites transmit?

A

Scabies

376
Q

What substance found in milk determines if pasteurization has been properly accomplished?

A

Phosphatase

377
Q

Where does a mature tapeworm live?

A

Small intestine

378
Q

What is the diagnosis for a person who just moved to Arizona and develops a dry cough associated with climatic conditions?

A

Coccidiomycosis

379
Q

Which of the following passes through the placenta?

A

IgG

380
Q

Which of the following is most prevalent?

A

IgG

381
Q

Which of the following best describes the TB test?

A

Delayed Hypersensitivity

382
Q

Which of the following supplies money to local doctors for research?

A

NIH

383
Q

What is the stage of water purification that removes most of the bacteria?

A

Sedimentation

384
Q

Which type of sterilization is most suited for instruments used in surgery?

A

Moist heat

385
Q

What does an excessive amount of flouride in drinking water cause?

A

Mottled teeth

386
Q

Which of the following is a fungus of the scalp?

A

Tinea Capitis

387
Q

Which of the following is most dangerous to newborns?

A

Staph aureus

388
Q

What is the most common way Legionnaire’s disease is spread?

A

Respiratory droplets

389
Q

Which of the following causes Chaga’s disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

390
Q

A patient presents with normal body temperature, widespread muscle spasm and muscle guarding in the abdominal area. What do these symptoms suggest?

A

Botulism

391
Q

Type IV delayed immunilogical reaction will affect which of hte following?

A

Lymphocytes

392
Q

What do T-helper cells activate?

A

B-lymphocytes

393
Q

What is the best test to perform to determine the pollution of water?

A

BOD (biological oxygen demand)

394
Q

WHich of the following is an example of a Type I reaction?

A

Bronchial asthma

395
Q

Which of the following is an immunoglobulin associated with Type I?

A

IgE

396
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in Gastric Mucosa?

A

IgA

397
Q

Methyl gas causes cancer of the _____

A

Kidney

398
Q

There is no vacine for which of the following?

A

Rhinovirus

399
Q

Cook pork to avoid which of the following?

A

Trichinella spiralis

400
Q

Antibodies respond to antigens via _____

A

B-Lymphocytes

401
Q

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

402
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type II hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

403
Q

Which of the following has both endotoxin and exotoxin?

A

Shigella dysentery

404
Q

Pink eye is associated with which of the following?

A

Haemophilus aegypticus

405
Q

Which of the following is an air-borne carcinogen?

A

Benzopyrene

406
Q

Which of the following is associated with infant botulism?

A

Raw Honey

407
Q

Which disease has been eliminated from society?

A

Variolla

408
Q

WHich of the following secrete histamine?

A

Basophiles

409
Q

What is the result of warm moist heat on cell membranes?

A

Protein Denaturization

410
Q

Which types of Hepatitis can you get from a blood transfusion?

A

Hepatitis B and C

411
Q

Soap added to a sterilizing agent will do which of the following?

A

Increase the bacteriocidal potential

412
Q

Who is considered to be the father of immunology?

A

Pasteur

413
Q

Which of the following is associated with muscle spasms and calcification of skeletal muscle?

A

trichimonis spiralis

414
Q

Which of the following produce the most circulating antibodies?

A

PLasma cells

415
Q

Infant methemoglobinemia is due to which of the following?

A

Nitrate

416
Q

Which of the following is a lung disease due to iron dust inhalation?

A

Siderosis

417
Q

The most effective sterilization technique in a lab is _____

A

Autoclaving

418
Q

Which of the following is an air pollutant that causes headaches and dizziness?

A

Carbon Monoxide

419
Q

Contaminated milk transmits which of the following?

A

Q fever

420
Q

Herpes simplex does not create which of the following?

A

Lifetime immunity

421
Q

Flocculation is involved in which of the following?

A

Colloid aggregation during sewage treatment

422
Q

Bladder infections are most commonly due to which of the following?

A

E. Coli

423
Q

Opsonins, agglutinins, lysins, and precipitins are which of the following?

A

Antibodies

424
Q

Which of the following diminishes riboflavin?

A

Milk left standing in light

425
Q

Black death is due to which of the following?

A

Yersenia pestis

426
Q

Which of the following can be found in unpasteurized milk?

A

Brucella abortis

427
Q

Why are flu vaccines sometimes not effective?

A

Different strains

428
Q

Why is a vaccine for the common cold not feasible?

A

The multiplicity of it

429
Q

What type of organism uses molecular O2 as the final electron acceptor?

A

Obligate aerobe

430
Q

An autotroph consumes which of the following?

A

Inorganic materials

431
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea can be best identified in which of the following?

A

Thayer martin (Chocolate agar)

432
Q

Childhood dysentery si due to which of the following?

A

Coxsackie virus

433
Q

Safarin is used in which staining technique?

A

Gram stain

434
Q

Herpes simplex produces a latent infection where?

A

Nervous system

435
Q

What is the purpose of iodine use in gram staining?

A

Fixer (mordant)

436
Q

A virus capsid is made up of which of hte following?

A

Protein

437
Q

Which of the following are classified by their method of locomotion?

A

Protozoa

438
Q

What is the test to determine whether or not complete pasteurization has been achieved?

A

Phosphatase test

439
Q

Q fever is due to which of the following?

A

Coxiella burnetti

440
Q

What is the name of the serology test for Rickettsia?

A

Weil felix

441
Q

Histoplasma is a fungal infection that mimics which of the following?

A

TB

442
Q

Bacterial cell walls are made up of ______

A

Proteoglycans

443
Q

What is iodine used for in pre-op?

A

Disinfectant

444
Q

Lymph node enlargement is not associated with ____

A

Cholera

445
Q

The heaviest and largest immuniglobulin is ____

A

IgM

446
Q

Microbial pollution is eliminated via which of the following?

A

Sand Filtration

447
Q

Who discovered yellow fever?

A

Reed

448
Q

CHymosis (bruising) is seen with which of the following?

A

Scurvy

449
Q

Which of the following increases immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?

A

Immunoglobulins

450
Q

Which of the following can cross the placenta and affect the fetus?

A

Rubella

451
Q

Exotoxins can act upon _____ cell walls

A

Phospholipid

452
Q

WHich of the following contributes to environmental problems?

A

Automobiles

453
Q

WHich of the following is an arbovirus?

A

Western equine encephalitis

454
Q

Penicillin affects bacteria by interfering with synthesis of _____

A

Peptidoglycans

455
Q

The kissing bug causes which of the following?

A

Chaga’s disease

456
Q

The state health department is responsible for maintaining which of the following?

A

Mortality rates

457
Q

Where are nosocomial infections acquired?

A

Hospitals

458
Q

Why is chlorine added to treates sewage?

A

To destroy residual microbes

459
Q

Red spots on the face are associated with which of the following?

A

Cutaneous anthrax infection [wow can’t imagine what the other choices were, fuckers]

460
Q

Streptobacillus is the agent of which of the following?

A

Rat bite fever

461
Q

The sedimentation stage of water purification removes most of the _____

A

bacteria

462
Q

Anaphylaxis is associated with which of the following?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

463
Q

Which of the following organisms oxidize inorganic matter for energy?

A

Autotrophs

464
Q

Which of the following organisms require organic matter for energy

A

Heterotrophs

465
Q

Which of the following use dead decaying matter for energy?

A

Saprophytes

466
Q

Which of the following feed on living matter for energy?

A

Parasites

467
Q

WHich of the following describes 2 populations living together in which one or both benefit?

A

Symbiosis

468
Q

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit?

A

Mutualism

469
Q

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit and both accomplish what neither can do alone?

A

Synergism

470
Q

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which one benefits, and the other is unaffected?

A

Commensalism

471
Q

Which of the following are tests for Syphilis?

A
  • Darkfield
  • Kahn
  • Kline
  • TPI
  • VDRL
  • Wasserman
472
Q

Which of the following are tests for TB?

A
  • Acid fast = Ziehl Nielson STain
  • BCG = TB vaccine
  • Mantoux Test
  • Tine test
473
Q

Which of the following are pasteurization methods?m

A
  • Holding = 143F (62C) - 30 min
  • Flash = 161F (72C) - 15 sec
  • Ultrahigh = 193F (89C) - 3/4 sec

Boards 1 - MICRO (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions