Microbiology 9- Vaccination against bacterial infections Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe innate immunity

A
Innate immunity
First line of defence
Does not require exposure to the infectious agent
Is immediate (almost)
Mediated by monocytes and PMNs
Initially an inflammatory reaction
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2
Q

Describe Acquired immunity

A

Acquired immunity
Requires exposure to infectious agents
Takes time to develop
Mediated mainly by lymphocytes (B and T cells)
Other cell types involved, e.g. monocytes and dendritic cells

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3
Q

What are vaccines aimed at

A

Vaccines stimulate both aspects of the immune response but are primarily aimed at eliciting acquired immunity which requires exposure to the infectious agent or its antigens.

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4
Q

Describe humoral immunity

A

Humoral Immunity
directly mediated by antibodies
antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes
Plasma cells (terminally differentiated B lymphocytes) are the primary source of secreted immunoglobulins

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5
Q

Describe cell-mediated immunity

A

Cell Mediated Immunity
not primarily mediated by antibody
mediated by T lymphocytes and NK cells
indirectly other cell types may play a role e.g. macrophages

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6
Q

What is important in clearing infections

A

A combination of humoral and cell-mediated immunity

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7
Q

Describe the importance of designing a vaccine that targets the appropriate immune response

A

Acquired immunity can be divided into two arms: humoral immunity which is mediated by antibodies and cell mediated immunity. It is important that a vaccine stimulates an appropriate immune response. For example, humoral immunity is usually important for preventing septicaemia whereas cell mediate immunity is often important for the prevention of intracellular infections. They are not mutually exclusive with both elements of the immune response playing a role in protection against may diseases.

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8
Q

Describe the role of the antibody in immunity to bacterial infections

A

Role of antibody
Toxin neutralisation, e.g. tetanus, diphtheria, botulism, anthrax etc.
As a focus for complement binding- Ab mediated bactericidal activity
As an opsonin promoting phagocytosis- Ab mediated bactericidal activity
Many bacteria produce exotoxins that have significant effects on the host, e.g. tetanus, botulism, cholera, anthrax, diphtheria, whooping cough etc. Their effects can be neutralised by antibodies binding to active sites or resulting in antibody antigen complexes.

Invasive bacteria and bacteria infecting mucosal surfaces do not always produce exotoxins. Protection against such infections is often mediated by antibodies that kill the bacteria through the classical complement pathway or opsonisation.

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9
Q

Describe the role of cell-mediated immunity in immunity to bacterial infections

A

Role of cell-mediated immunity
Particularly important for eliminating intracellular bacteria, e.g. tuberculosis, typhoid, legionella
interaction of the reactive T lymphocytes and the macrophage is key to clearance of infection

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10
Q

List the properties of a good vaccine

A

Ideally a vaccine:
Stimulates an effective immune response
Is safe and does not cause adverse reactions
Is inexpensive to manufacture and distribute
Is stable
Is easy to administer
Should be simple for both manufacturer and regulatory authorities to control
i.e. a good vaccine provides substantial benefit to health at low cost and low risk

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11
Q

What is meant by an effective immune response

A

It should elicit the correct balance of humoral and cell mediated responses
The immune response should be directed to the relevant site within the host (e.g. the gut in the case of enteric infections).
The immune response should be “functional”. For example, toxin-neutralising antibodies should be able to bind to toxin and neutralise its activity or if bactericidal antibodies are required the antibody should bind both the bacterium and complement.
An effective vaccine would be expected to elicits this response in all (or at least the majority of) vaccinees, give life-long protection without repeated doses, stimulate a boostable response and offer protection against antigenically diverse strains

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12
Q

Why is vaccine safety essential and how is this achieved

A

Vaccine safety is critical as they are given prophylactically to healthy individuals, who should remain healthy after vaccination.
A parenterally administered vaccine must be sterile (although an orally administered vaccine may only need only be free of enteric pathogens).
Vaccine manufacturers follow tightly regulated procedures (e.g. Good Manufacturing Practice; GMP) to ensure that vaccines are manufactured safely and consistently.
Wherever possible they avoid the use of materials of human or animal origin.
The acceptable safety of a vaccine may depend on the recipient. An adult choosing to receive a therapeutic anti-cancer vaccine may be prepared to accept a higher level of risk than a parent taking an infant for routine paediatric vaccination.

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13
Q

What is meant by a direct contact

A

Stopping colonisation leading to infection.

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14
Q

What is meant by indirect contact

A

Herd immunity- prevents pathogen from one organism to the next.

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15
Q

Describe herd immunity

A

Holding the infection in a small part of the population.The term herd immunity refers to the effect of immunity within a population to reduce transmission of the infectious agent, thereby protecting those who are susceptible (i.e. not immune) to the disease. The endemic state reflects a balance between the transmissibility of the infectious agent and the level of immunity in the population. Herd immunity can be modelled mathematically.

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16
Q

Do all vaccines result in herd immunity

A

No

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17
Q

Describe Phase 1 trials

A

Primarily for safety but are often also used to assess immunogenicity
Usually small numbers of adults
entail close clinical monitoring of vaccinees. Data collected might include information on the following: local and systemic reactions, fever, diarrhoea and vomiting and headache etc.

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18
Q

Describe phase 2 trials

A

Primarily for assessing immune response but also used to expand safety database
Typically includes all groups that are likely to use the vaccine
provide an opportunity to investigate the effect of different dose regimes and formulations, examine laboratory assays for correlates/surrogates of protection, and for regulatory laboratories to evaluate the prospective vaccine and validate QC tests. All groups that are likely to use the vaccine include both sexes, a range of ages and different ethnic groups.

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19
Q

Describe phase 3 trials

A

Protection studies, usually placebo controlled double blind trials
provide statistically conclusive data for licensure
Require good disease surveillance
case ascertainment
definition of endpoint
are designed to investigate directly the ability of a vaccine to offer protection against disease. This requires good disease surveillance. Efficacy is the measure of a vaccine to offer protection. Its assessment is scientifically rigorous (e.g. assessed by double blind, placebo controlled trial) and it is required for licensure. Effectiveness studies, sometimes termed phase 4 trials, measure the ability of the vaccine to achieve specific ends. They are scientifically less rigorous, study designs vary and they are not required for licensure. Effectiveness data can help to convince prospective users of the benefits of a vaccine.

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20
Q

What are effectiveness trials sometimes referred to as

A

Phase 4 trials

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21
Q

Why is phase 3 sometimes not carried out

A

Rarer diseases- not enough numbers to generate a high power.

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22
Q

Describe vaccine efficacy

A

Vaccine efficacy is determined in Phase III trials
blinded, placebo controlled

= 1- attack rate in vaccinated group/ attack rate in unvaccinated group
Usually expressed as a percentage.

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23
Q

What is Ro related to

A

There is a relationship between the basic reproduction number R0, vaccine effectiveness and coverage needed to reduce or eliminate disease

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24
Q

How can we calculate coverage needed to achieve herd effect

A

(1-1/R0)/Effectiveness

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25
Q

How can the herd effect be calculated

A

The herd effect is determined post vaccine introduction

= 1- Attack rate in unvaccinated post-introduction/ attack rate in unvaccinated pre-introduction

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26
Q

What are the constituents of vaccine formulations

A

Antigen
To stimulate the immune response to the target disease
Adjuvant
To enhance and modulate the immune response
Excipients
Buffer, salts, saccharides and proteins to maintain the pH, osmolarity and stability of the vaccine
Preservative, e.g. phenoxyethanol, thiomersal etc

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27
Q

Why do preservatives sometimes have to be added

A

Preservatives such as phenoxyethanol or the mercury containing Thiomersal may be added to multidose formulations to prevent growth of microbes once the vial has been punctured. Single dose vials or pre-filled syringes do not usually contain preservative.

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28
Q

List the different vaccine antigens

A

Live attenuated organisms (complex, ill-defined)

Killed whole organisms (complex, ill-defined)

Purified component vaccines

Toxoids

Polysaccharide conjugates

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29
Q

Describe live attenuated vaccines

A

These contain mutations that affect the ability of the organism to thrive and/or cause disease in the host. Historically, the mutants were isolated by chemical mutageneisis or multiple passaging of the organism; more recently attenuated isolates have been rationally mutated using targetted molecular methods.

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30
Q

Describe killed organisms

A

Probably the simplest sort of vaccine to produce. The organism is grown and then killed either chemically (e.g. with phenol or formaldehyde) or by heating.

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31
Q

Describe component vaccines

A

The emergence of purified component vaccines has depended upon technological advances since the latter part of the 20th century. These have included advances in physical and chemical methods of separation as well as the development of recombinant DNA techniques, genome sequencing and bioinformatics (for the identification of prospective antigen genes in the genome).

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32
Q

Describe DNA vaccines

A

The antigen gene is cloned in a vector so that it is expressed from a promoter sequence that is functional in the host. Once the DNA is injected, the host expresses the desired antigen and then mounts an immune response.

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33
Q

Describe the UK childhood vaccination programme

A

2, 3 and 4 months old
Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), polio and Hib
One injection

MenC
One injection

Around 13 months old

Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR)
One injection

3 years and 4 months to 5 years old

Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough) and polio
One injection

MMR
One injection
10 to 14 years old (sometimes neonatal)

BCG
Skin test, one injection, if needed

13 to 18 years old

Diphtheria, tetanus, polio
One injection

From three years four months onward:-
Pre-primary school: DTaP-IPV booster, MMR booster
Live attenuated influenza vaccine
Girls 12-13 years old: HPV
During secondary education: dT-IPV booster, MenACYW

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34
Q

Describe the characteristics of the dipetheria and tetanus toxoids

A
Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids
chemical inactivation of bacterial exotoxin
Simple to produce
Relatively pure
Safe
High protective efficacy
very immunogenic
appropriate immune response 
i.e. toxin neutralizing antibodies block activity
35
Q

Describe the diptheria toxin

A

like tetanus toxin is an exotoxin. It is a polypeptide with a MW of 58k and is secreted as a proenzyme which is cleaved into two fragments. Fragment B is responsible for attachment to and penetration of the host cell; Fragment A is the toxic moiety. It is an ADP-ribosylating enzyme that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking eukaryotic elongation factor 2 effectively blocking translation. Like tetanus toxoid, diphtheria toxoid is produced by formaldehyde treatment of culture supernatant.

36
Q

Describe the tetanus toxin

A

is a neurotoxin causing muscle spasm. It consists of light and heavy chains (MW 50kDa and 100kDa respectively). The light chain is a zinc endopeptidase that cleaves a membrane protein of synaptic vesicles (VAMP). The light chain stops the affected neurons from releasing the inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscles to contract, so-called tetanus spasm. The toxoid used in vaccines is produced from filtered culture supernatant, which is treated with 40% formaldehyde at 37oC.

37
Q

Describe recent developments of toxoids

A

More recently toxoids have been developed for the exotoxins including those produced by Clostridium difficile and Pseudomonas aeruginosa though these have yet to be licensed by the regulatory authorities.

38
Q

Describe the Whooping cough

A

Caused by Bordetella pertussis infecting ciliated epithelium and releasing toxin

Condition identified by characteristic convulsive cough

Recovery coincides with antibody production

39
Q

Describe the acceptability of the whole cell pertussis vaccine

A

Whole cell pertussis vaccine is effective
efficacy rates typically >90%
It has been associated with a number of adverse reactions
anaphylaxis
prolonged crying
febrile siezures
acute encephalopathy (now known to be due to mutations within a sodium channel gene)
Development of acellular (component) vaccine driven by poor acceptance of the whole cell vaccine

40
Q

Describe the B. pertussis components associated with virulence

A
Attachment to ciliated epithelium
filamentous haemagglutinin (FHA)
fimbriae
pertactin
Adherence and complement resistance
BrkA
Toxins
pertussis toxin (PT)
adenylate cyclase
tracheal cytotoxin
heat labile toxin
endotoxin
41
Q

Describe the acellular vaccines

A

multicomponent (bi-,tri- and pentavalent fromulations)
pertussis toxin, FHA, pertactin, fimbrial antigens 2 and 3
safe and efficacious (75-90%)

42
Q

Describe the whooping cough problem

A

The acellular vaccine was introduced in the UK in 2004. The vaccine was initially very effective but by eight years later their was an increase in cases and deaths caused by whooping cough. This was addressed in 2013 by the introduction of maternal immunisation but leaves questions about the different immunobiology of the two types of vaccine and how to improve the acellular product.

43
Q

Describe the evidence supporting the hypothesis that aP vaccines fail to provide adequate herd immunity

A

Acellular pertussis vaccine induces an immune response that is different from natural infection or vaccination with whole cell vaccine. This may explain the resurgence of whooping cough where aP has been widely used. It suggests that aP vaccines need further development.

Baboons were vaccinated at 2, 4, and 6m with aP or wP vaccines and challenged at 7m
Both groups protected against severe symptoms but …
aP vaccinees did not clear the infection faster than naïve animals
aP vaccinees were not protected from colonisation
Infected aP vaccinees can transmit pertussis to naïve contacts
Convalescent and wP-vaccinated animals possess strong Th17 and Th1 memory whereas aP-vaccinated animals induced a Th1/Th2 response

44
Q

Describe Haemophilus influenzae type b

A

H. influenzae type b causes meningitis and septicaemia in the young.
Bacterial surface covered by a polyribosyl-ribitol phosphate capsule.
Polysaccharides are poorly immunogenic
The Hib component is a conjugate vaccine

45
Q

What improvement was made to the Hib vaccine which controlled the resurgence

A

Hib-Men C booster introduced at 1yr of age.

46
Q

Summarise the paediatric combination vaccines

A
Examples include Pediacel® (Sanofi) and Infanrix® (GSK)
Antigens:
Tetanus toxoid
Diptheria toxoid
Pertussis components: 
pertussis toxoid, 
filamentous haemagglutinin,
Pertactin
fimbriae types 2 and 3
Hib PRP-conjugate
Inactivated polio virus types 1,2 and 3
Adjuvant: aluminium phosphate
47
Q

Describe the characteristics of polysaccharides as an antigen

A

The Antigen
Usually large and linear
Not readily degraded
Highly repetitive determinant

The Immune Response
Predominantly IgM
Poor memory effect
Low avidity antibody

48
Q

Describe the characteristics of T cell independent antigens

A

T cell independent antigens like polysaccharides activate mature B cells, in the absence of antigen presentation, by cross-linking immunoglobulin receptors on the cell surface. The resulting immune response is not ideal for vaccination. It is typically characterised by poor immunological memory, low avidity antibodies (no affinity maturation) that are less likely to offer functional protection against disease, and in many cases repeated doses rather than boosting can lead to immunological hyporesponsiveness.

49
Q

Describe conjugate vaccines

A

Carbohydrate chemically linked to immunogenic protein
Sophisticated technology
expensive
Highly purified components
purified saccharide and carrier proteins such as tetanus toxoid, diphtheria toxoid or CRM197
safe
simple for licensure and control
Very effective when humoral immunity is required
long-lived, boostable immunity
reduce carriage i.e. offer herd immunity

50
Q

Why are conjugate vaccines important

A

Conjugate vaccines, in which the saccharide moiety is chemically linked to a protein carrier, overcome the drawbacks of plain polysaccharide vaccines by making them T cell dependent.

51
Q

Describe the steps in producing a conjugate vaccine

A

Random activation of high molecular weight or partly size reduced polysaccharide

Degradation of the polysaccharide to form active functional groups at both terminals

Degradation of the polysaccharide to form active functional group at only one terminal

52
Q

Describe how T cell dependent antigens produce an immune response

A

Naive T cells primed by interaction with antigen presenting cells
Requires antigenic stimulation via MHCII-TCR pathway
After priming T cells interact with B cells
Saccharide specific B cells take up conjugate and present the carrier peptides to T cells via MHCII
Activated B cells differentiate into antibody secreting plasma cells and memory B cells

53
Q

Describe the licenced conjugated of Hib

A

Polyribosyl ribitol phosphate (PRP) conjugated to CRM197 or tetanus toxoid

54
Q

Describe the licenced pneumococcal conjugates

A

Seven,10- and13-valent formulations

55
Q

Describe the licenced MenC conjugated

A

α 2-9 linked polysialic acid conjugated to CRM197 or tetanus toxoid

56
Q

What is Menitorix

A

MenC+Hib booster

57
Q

Describe other conjugates

A
Other conjugates
Meningococcal A, C, W, Y conjugates 
GSK CRM conjugate Menveo™
Pfizer TT conjugate Nimenrix™ 
In the future Group B streptococcal vaccines
58
Q

Describe the Mass vaccination programme with MenC conjugate in the UK

A

’90s; phased immunisations performed just before winter - given to infants and teenagers; led to significant decrease in Men C, in both vaxxed and non-vaxxed populations. Most cases of Meningitis due to MenB.

59
Q

What was the efficacy and effectiveness of the MenC conjugate vaccine in 2001/2

A

Efficacy- 93.5%

Effectiveness- 66.8%

60
Q

What does protection of meningococcal disease correlate with

A

Protection against meningococcal disease correlates with serum bactericidal antibody

61
Q

Describe the need for a later MenC conjugate vaccine

A

Transmission of meningococci occurs primarily among young adults

4-valent MenACYW vaccine introduced to address increase in MenW disease.

62
Q

Describe pneumococcal disease

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is significant cause of meningitis and septicaemia worldwide
It is also an important cause of mucosal infections, e.g. pneumonia and otitis media

63
Q

What are the majority of the serotypes of pneumococcal disease determined by

A

More than 90 serotypes determined by capsular polysaccharide
Antibiotic resistance associated with some serotypes
vaccines are made against more common strains - have many-serotype plain (unconjugated) vaccines as well as conjugate vaccines for younger populations; concerns about serotype replacement

64
Q

What vaccines are available for pneumococcal disease

A

Pneumovax II™, 23-valent plain (unconjugated) polysaccharide vaccine
Prevenar 7™, Prevenar 13™ and Synflorix™ conjugate vaccines

65
Q

Describe Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine efficacy

A

Cases of pneumonia significantly reduced where there was a positive radiograph from 10.1 to 8.3 per 1000 person-years
Estimated efficacy 17.7% (95% CI: 4.8 to 28.9) against pneumonia
Reduction in cases of otitis media by 7-9%

66
Q

.Describe the impact of pneumococcal conjugate vaccine on different serotypes

A

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines (PCV 7 and 13) have had a substantial impact on IPD caused by vaccine serotypes.
Replacement disease with non-vaccine serotypes remains a concern.
Rapid increase in some highly virulent non-PCV serotypes may compromise the benefits of the programme.
8,12F, and 9N are a particular problem- nearly all replacement disease occurs in adults.

67
Q

Describe meningococcal outer membrane vaccines

A

OMVs are released spontaneously by meningococci in vivo and in culture
They contain all the protein antigens usually associated with the OM
Vaccines are produced by detergent extraction to reduce endotoxin content
Hyper-producing mutants have been isolated

68
Q

What may be a potential issue with OMVs

A

Could be reactive against own antigens- but research has shown that we are pretty tolerant to OMVs- but there is still a concern.

69
Q

What is a key thing to remember about OMVs

A

Vaccines only offer good protection against the homologous strain

70
Q

Describe the Reverse Vaccinology Approach

A

Sometimes Pasteur’s principles of Isolate, Inactivate and Inject don’t work.
Use computer simulated programmes to predict candidate antigens (genome sequence) test recombinant antigens (DNA vaccines) on rats.

71
Q

Give some examples of candidate antigens for MenB

A

Factor H binding protein (fHbp)
Neisseria adhesin (NadA)
Heparin binding protein (Nhbp)
Bexsero™ contains OMVs from strain NZ98/254 enhanced with three component antigens found by scanning genome
Clinical trials show it to be safe and immunogenic
Licensed by EC Jan 2013 and rolled out in the UK infant programme from Sep 2015
Trumenba™ a component vaccine consisting of two lipidated recombinant Factor H binding proteins - not yet licensed in the UK
These are non-capsular antigens.

72
Q

Describe the initial impact data of Bexsero

A

Estimated from vaccine eligible children after two doses
Effectiveness 82·9% (95% CI 24·1–95·2)
Incidence ratio reduction 0·50 [95% CI 0·36–0·71]; p=0·0001
37 cases vs average 74 cases before introduction

73
Q

Describe the BCG vaccine against TB

A

Attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis.
Serial passage, 231 times over 13 years (1908-1921)
Phenotypic changes: rough/dry to moist/smooth
Genotypic changes: loss of RD1 region encoding 9 proteins

74
Q

Discuss the evidence surrounding the efficacy of the BCG vaccine

A

Cannot be answered definitively
Vaccination programmes instituted at the same time as social, economic and public health improvements
Generally accepted that it prevents severe childhood TB and leprosy
Variation in field trials of BCG
Trial methodology
Vaccine variation (strain, dose, potency)
Regional differences in TB strains
New candidate vaccines are in the research pipeline
recombinant modified vaccinia virus expressing antigen 85A

75
Q

Describe the Typhoid vaccines

A

Vivotif ® live attenuated vaccine based on strain Ty21a
galE mutant of S. typhi Ty2
isolated by NTG mutagenesis
formulated in enteric-coated capsules

Vi polysaccharide (TyphimVi ® and Typherix ®)
Offered to those travelling to typhoid endemic areas
Only suitable for >2 year olds
Conjugates in development

76
Q

Describe the killed whole cell parenteral vaccine for cholera

A

poor efficacy
short-lived protective response
strain specific

77
Q

Describe the killed whole cell oral vaccine for cholera

A

good efficacy in cholera endemic area (Vietnam trials)
oral delivery
safe
>85% show >4-fold rise in vibriocidal antibodies (<3% in controls)
protective efficacy 66% after two doses
WHO mediated technology transfer

78
Q

Describe the Dukoral vaccine for cholera

A

killed whole cell + CtxB oral vaccine
drink formulation (3 doses at weekly intervals,
booster every 2 years)
may also protect against ETEC

79
Q

What are adjuvants

A

Adjuvants are a key element of effective vaccines. They potentiate the immune response (humoral, cellular or both).

80
Q

Describe how adjuvants can be used as delivery systems

A
Delivery systems, usually a depot of antigen which is slowly released
mineral salts
surface active agents
synthetic microparticles
oil-water emulsions
liposomes
81
Q

Describe how adjuvants can be used to potentiate the immune response

A
potentiating immune response by interacting with PAMPs - stimulating innate immune response.
Toxins and lipids
Nucleic acids (CpG)
Peptidoglycan
Carbohydrates
Peptides
Cytokines and hormones
82
Q

How are adjuvants licenced

A

As part of the vaccine formulation

83
Q

Describe how can we manipulate PRR and TLRs

A

Different receptors- different cytokines- different immune response- can target appropriate one.

84
Q

Describe risk-benefit analysis

A

Need to protect the vulnerable patient
Public health perspective (herd immunity)
Protect the patient by immunising close contacts
Live vaccines need particular consideration
Decision on whether to vaccinate depends on the nature of the immunodeficiency and the vaccine.
Can ‘ring-fence’ individual- vaccinate close relatives.