Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the aspergillilus fungus.

Describe the cryptococcus neoformans fungus.

Describe the Candida albicans fungus.

A

Spores disperse in air and go to lung
Can form aspergilloma (clump of mould) in organ which can cause haemorrhage

Cryptococcus neoformans - branched yeast
Can form multiple cryptococcomas in the brain
Usually in HIV patients which can cause meningitis (white lumps)

Candida albicans
Yeast, mucosal infections
Candida endophthalmitis - intraocular infection, bloodstream infection

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2
Q

Describe cellular immunity to fungal infection.

A
  • opsonisation by pentraxin 3 and mannose-binding lectin
  • phagocytes are a critical first line of defence
  • NK cells provide early interferon-gamma
  • A failure of innate immunity leads to adaptive responses
  • dendritic cells influence T cell differentiation
  • Th1 and Th17 play a role
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3
Q

Describe fungal morphogenesis, virulence and immunity.

A

Candidates dimorphism (yeast/hyphae forms) allows tissue invasion

Cryptococcus forms a capsule to evade phagocytosis

Aspergillus species inhaled as conidia, invade tissues as hyphae

(Side note: toll is an innate pattern recognition receptor in Drosophilia (flies) required for fungal immunity)

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4
Q

What are human immune deficiencies that lead to fungal infections.

A

Human Dectin 1 deficiency

  • leads to mucocutaneous fungal infections
  • Dectin 1 is a major fungal pattern recognition receptor
  • Thrush like infection = CMC (chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis)
  • There is impaired macrophage interleukin-6 production in response to C. Albicans and impaired macrophage binding of Candida albicans

Human CARD9 deficiency

  • CARD9 deficiency leads to CMC
  • functional CARD9 is required for TNFalpha production in response to Beta-glucan stimulation
  • functional CARD9 is required for T cell Th17 differentiation

TLR4 polymorphisms
-increase risk of invasive Aspergillosis in transplantation
-TLR4 S4 loss or function mutation leads to this increased risk
-dectin 1 mutations also increase risk and so so do plasminogen alleles
-viral mutations in Dectin-1, TLR4 and plasminogen confer increased
susceptibility to fungal disease

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5
Q

Describe the role of the innate and adaptive responses in fungal infections.

A

Neutrophil nets - good at killing hyphae (DNA traps)
• These chromatin molecules outside the nucleus act as “danger signals” and recruits effector cells to the area as well.

Fungal morphogenesis – fungi can transition between yeast, candida and hyphae forms (multicellular) and this can drive a modulation of Dendritic cell response and can be bad for the immune response (as it gets confused).

Innate defences:
o Mucosal immunity governs fungal tolerance and resistance.

Treatment:
o Adoptive immunotherapy – generate lots of antifungal T-cells in a sample and then give these to the patients that need to fight a fungal infection.
o Gene therapy – e.g. restore gp91 function (make reactive oxidative species to fight fungal spores) to treat chronic granulomatous disorder. E.g. restore neutrophil NET formation.

• Both macrophages and neutrophils contribute to fungal immunity
• However for Aspergillus neutrophils are of primary importance
• Dendritic cells modulate adaptive immune responses
• Adaptive T cell interferon-gamma responses augment host immunity
to fungi
• Interferon-gamma or adoptive T cell therapy have emerging utility for
the treatment of fungal infections
• Gene therapy for primary immunodeficiencies

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6
Q

Describe fungal allergy.

A

Many fungal spores are inhaled daily.

Host response may be normal, ineffective or exaggerated (allergy).
o This leads to either an allergic or invasive fungal disease.

Aspergillus is a primary driver – other fungi may contribute.
o Aspergilli – Aspergillus niger, Aspergillus fumigatus.
o Other supporting fungi – Alternaria, Cladosporium, Penicillum.

Important fungal reactions include type 1, 3, 4 hypersensitivity reactions.
o T1 – IgE-driven, involves histamine and leukotrienes, in minutes.
o T2 – IgG-, IgM-driven, involves complement, in 1-24 hours.
o T3 – IgG-, IgM-driven, involves complement, in 1-24 hours.
o T4 – T-cell-driven, involves lymphokines, in 2-3 days.

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7
Q

Describe allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.

A

Pathophysiology
Abnormality in dendritic cells
Abbarent Th2/17 —> class switching IgE rather than IgG —> mass cell granulation

Criteria for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Predisposing conditions
• Asthma or cystic fibrosis

Obligatory criteria
• Total baseline serum IgE >1000 IU/ml
• Positive immediate hypersensitivity skin test or Aspergillus-specific IgE

Supportive criteria (more than 2 present)
• Eosinophilia >500cells/ul
• Serum precipitating or IgG antibodies to Aspergillus fumigatus
• Consistent radiographic abnormalities

Radiological features of ABPA
• Dilated bronchi with thick walls
• Ring or linear opacities
• Upper or central region predeliction
• Proximal bronchiectasis
• Lobar collapse due to mucous impaction
• Fibrotic scarring
Airway obstruction may cause mild asthma

Management

  • Corticosteroids
  • Itraconazole for steroid sparing effect
  • Benefit of itraconazole past 16 weeks unclear
  • Reduction in circulating IgE, (anti IgE) steroid dependency and improved PFT
  • Itraconazole indicated if not responding to steroids or steroid-dependent
  • Role of inhaled steroids and other antifungals less clear
  • Recombinant IgE monoclonal antibodies (omalizumab) may be useful
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8
Q

Describe aspergillus rhinosinusitis.

A

• May be allergic or invasive
• Increasingly common
• Association with atopy and nasal polyposis
• Raised total IgE, skin test and Aspergillus-specific RAST IgE (or sometimes IgG)
• May also be caused by Bipolaris or Curvularia
• Obliterated sinuses with hypo attenuated
mucosa and enhancing material on imaging

Treatment

• Oral corticosteroids
• Surgical removal of obstructing nasal tissue
• Systemic anti-fungal treatment has not been shown to be
effective
• Topical therapies being investigated

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9
Q

Describe severe asthma with fungal sensitisation.

A

• Severe asthma
• Positive immediate skin test or in vitro specific IgE to >1
filamentous fungus
• Exclusion of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
• Controversial diagnosis due to concerns about
generalised sensitization
• Use of antifungals unclear
Histamine, house dust mite etc.

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10
Q

Describe hypersensitivity pneumonitis.

A
  • Also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis
  • Allergic response requiring long-term allergen exposure
  • As a consequence often occupational
  • Cell-mediated delayed sensitivity reaction
  • Allergen-specific precipitins usually present

(Diagnosis for different pulmonary allergies - ABPA, aspergillus rhinosinusitis, severe asthma with fungal sensitisation, hypersensitivity pneumonitis) to fungi can be driven by skin test, IgE and IgM)

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11
Q

List important bacterial virulence factors.

A

-Diverse secretion systems
-Flagella (movement, attachment)
-Pili (important adherence factors)
-Capsule (protect against phagocytosis)
i.e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-Endospores (metabolically dormant forms of bacteria)
heat, cold, desiccation and chemical resistant
i.e. Bacillus sp. and Clostridium sp.
-Biofilms (organized aggregates of bacteria embedded in polysaccharide matrix – antibiotic resistant)
i. e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
i.e. Staphylococcus epidermidis

EXOTOXINS

  • Neurotoxins (act on nerves or motor endplate) i.e. Tetanus or Botulinum toxins
  • Enterotoxins (act on the GI tract)
    1) Infectious diarrhea i.e. Vibrio cholera, Escherichia coli, Shigella dysenteriae and Campylobacter jejuni
    2) Food poisoning i.e. Bacillus cereus or Staphylcoccus aureus i.e. Staphylcoccus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
  • Pyrogenic exotoxins (stimulate release of cytokines)
  • Tissue invasive exotoxin (allow bacteria to destroy and tunnel through tissue) enzymes that destroy DNA, collagin, fibrin, NAD, red or white blood cells
    i. e. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes Clostridium perfringens
  • Miscellaneous exotoxin (specific to a certain bacterium and/or function not well understood)
    i. e. Bacillus anthracis and Corynebacterium diphtheriae

ENDOTOXINS
• Only produced by Gram-negative bacteria
• Not a protein but the lipid A moiety of LPS
• Shed in steady amounts from living bacteria
• Treating a patient who has a Gram-negative infection with antibiotics can sometimes
worsen condition → when bacteria lyse they release large quantities of LPS/ Endotoxin —> Septic shock

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12
Q

Define an outbreak of infectious disease and how they are identified.

A

An outbreak is a greater-than-normal or greater-than-expected number of individuals infected or diagnosed with a particular infection in a given period of time or a particular place or both.

It is identified by surveillance systems which provide an opportunity to identify outbreaks
Good and timely reporting systems are instrumental to identify outbreaks

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13
Q

Describe bacterial pathogens that cause community’s acquired infections in Europe.

A

E-coli outbreak - caused by a Shiga-toxin producing E-colo
Lead to gastroenteritis and haemolytic-uremic-syndrome

Haemolytic-uremic syndrome

  • triad of acute renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia
  • human infection occurs through ingestion of faecal matter and secondary through contact with infected humans
  • usually in children, rare in adults
  • Caused by EHEC – enterohaemorrhagic E. coli.

The outbreak was the result of a fusion the EHEC and the EAHC strains to form the EAHEC strain.
o EHEC – Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli.
o EAEC – Enteroaggregative E. coli.
o EAHEC – Entero-aggregative-haemorrhagic E. coli.

How Outbreaks are Identified

Possible epidemic case:
o Any person that has developed the symptoms AND has met a laboratory criteria (e.g. isolation of agent).
Probable epidemic case:
o Any person that has met the above criteria AND has been in epidemic country, consumed possibly contaminated food, been in close contact with a confirmed epidemic case.
Confirmed epidemic case:
o Any person meeting criteria for a possible case AND has had strain isolated.

PCR
The isolates can be screened by multiplex PCR for characteristic features of the outbreak strain.
o This can be done on stool samples for example (e. coli).
o This can determine if the strain is the outbreak strain or not.
Example E. coli outbreak:
o The unique combination of genomic features contained characteristics from both the EHEC and EAEC strains suggesting it represented a new strain EAHEC.

The PCR showed that the isolate contained aspects of both EHEC and EAEC:
EAEC – 2 plasmids:
o pAA-type plasmids – contain aggregative adhesion fimbrial operon.
o ESBL plasmids – gene encoding for extended-spectrum beta-lactamases.
EHEC – prophage – encoding the Shiga toxin – characteristic for EHEC strains.

Shiga toxins have an AB5 subunit composition.
o StxA is the enzymatic portion – cleaves RNA —> inhibition of protein synthesis and might affect gut commensal bacteria as well.
o StxB is the pentamer that binds to host cell receptors.
Shiga toxins are encoded on bacteriophages and contribute to horizontal gene transfer meaning they can be given to other bacteria types in phages.
EAEC can colonise the larger and small bowel —> affects gut flora.
EAECs virulence factor – Aggregative Adherence Fimbriae (AAF):
o AFF required for adhesion to enterocytes and stimulates IL-8 response.
o AFF also allows a biofilm formation.

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14
Q

List the communicable diseases in Europe.

A

1) Respiratory tract infections
2) Sexually transmitted infections, including HIV and blood-borne viruses
3) Food- and waterborne diseases and zoonoses
4) Emerging and vector-borne diseases
5) Vaccine-preventable diseases
6) Antimicrobial resistance and healthcare-associated infections

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15
Q

Describe respiratory tract infections.

A

Influenza
Animal influenzas, including avian influenza SARS - Severe acute respiratory syndrome
Legionnaires’ disease (legionellosis) Legionella pneumophila (Gram -)
Tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Gram +)

Legionella pneumophila
❖ Gram-negative bacterium
❖ Lives in amoeba in ponds, lakes, air conditioning units
❖ Infection route: inhalation of contaminated aerosols
❖ In humans L. pneumophila will infect and grow in aveolar macrophages
❖ Human infection is “dead end” for bacteria ❖ Important virulence factor type IV secretion system

Secretion of effector proteins by the type IV secretion system allows Legionella to replicate in a Legionella containing vacuole (LCV

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
❖ Groups with Gram-positive Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria
❖ very different cell wall – extra lipid layer makes treatment more difficult
❖ M. tuberculosis can enter a dormant state
Latent TB - evidence of infection by immunological tests but no clinical signs and symptoms of active disease
Treatment with antibiotics but takes at least 6 months

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16
Q

Describe sexually transmitted infections.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis infection = gram -ve
Gonorrhoea (Neisseria gonorrhoea) = gram -ve
Hepatitis B virus infection
Hepatitis C virus infection
HIV/AIDS
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum) = gram -ve

Chlamydia trachomatis

  • obligate intracellular pathogen cannot culture it outside host cell
  • eye infection, visually impaired

Neisseria gonorrhoea

❖ Gram- negative diplococcus
❖ Establishes infection in the urogenital tract by interacting with non-ciliated epithelical cells
❖ Important virulence factors and traits: pili and antigenic variation escape detection and clearance by the immune system - can change surface protein coat so hard to recognise and clear

17
Q

Describe food and waterborne diseases and zoonoses.

A

Salmenollosis (salmonella -)
Cholera (vibrio chlolera -)
Campylobacteriosis (Campylobacter, mostly C. Jejuni)
Listeriosis (+ Listeria monocytogenes)

Campylobacter, mostly C.jejeuni
❖ Usually sporadic cases and not outbreaks ❖ Small children 0-4 years – highest risk group
❖ Infection most likely through undercooked poultry
❖ Virulence factor: Adhesion and Invasion factors, Flagella motility, Type IV Secretion system, Toxin

Salmonella
❖ Undercooked poltry
❖ Outbreaks
❖ Highest infection rate in small children (0-4 years)
❖ Important virulence determinant Type III secretion systems encoded on pathogenicity islands (SPI)
Salmonella enterica Type III secretion system SPI1: is required for invasion SPI2: intracellular accumulation

Vibrio cholerae
• Cholera is an acute, severe diarrheal disease • Without prompt rehydration, death can occur within hours of the onset
of symptoms
• Important virulence factor: type IV fimbria cholera toxin carried on a phages

Listeria monocytogenes

• Risk group immuno-compromised, elderly, pregnant and their fetus
• Listeria can enter non-phagocytic cells and cross three tight barriers
Intestinal barrier, Blood / brain barrier and Materno / fetal barrier

18
Q

Describing emerging and vector-borne diseases.

A
Malaria
Plague (Yersinia pestis; Gram -)
Q fever (Coxiella burnetti; Gram -)
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) Smallpox 
Viral haemorrhagic fevers (VHF)
West Nile fever 
Yellow fever
19
Q

Describe vaccine preventable diseases.

A
Diphtheria (Clostridium diphtheriae Gram +) 
Invasive Haemophilus influenzae disease (Gram -) 
Invasive meningococcal disease
(Neisseria meningitidis Gram -) 
Invasive pneumococcal disease (IPD)
(Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram +)
Measles 
Mumps 
Pertussis (Bordetella pertussis Gram -) 
Polio, Rabies, Rubella 
Tetanus (Clostridium tetani Gram +)
20
Q

Define antimicrobial, antibacterial, antibiotic.

A

Antimicrobial
interferes with growth & reproduction of a ‘microbe’

Antibacterial
commonly used to describe agents to reduce or eliminate harmful bacteria

Antibiotic is a type of antimicrobial
used as medicine for humans, animals
originally referred to naturally occurring compounds

21
Q

State the factors which can contribute to the acquisition of hospital acquired infections.

State the pathogens that lead to hospital acquired infections.

A

Intervention (catheter, intubation, chemotherapy)
Dissemination - hygiene measures to prevent
Concentration - crowdedness?

Pathogens: ESCAPE
Gram +
Enterococcus faecium - vancomycin resistance
Staphylococcus aureus - methicillin resistance - MRSA
Clostridium difficile - can establish nfection because of pervious antibiotic treatment (not killed in first round)

Gram -
Acinetobacter baumanii - highly drug resistant
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - multi drug resistant i.e. fluoroquinolone-resistant
Enterobacteriaceae (E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Enterobacter) - multi drug resistant

22
Q

Describe pathogenic E.coli.

A

• Most frequent cause of bacteraemia by a Gram-negative bacterium
• Most frequent cause of community and
hospital acquired UTI
• Increase in multi-drug resistant strains
• Most isolates that are resistance to cephalosporin express the extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL)
• Still sensitive to carbapenems
• Occurrence of resistance to 3rd generation

Cephalosporins
-are a class of b-lactation antibiotics
-target pathway, inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis
-target protein - enzymes required for synthesis of peptidoglycan, inhibit the activity of penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)
Resistance:
-extended spectrum b-lactamase (ESBL)
-encoded on a plasmid, mobile

Carbapenems
-are a class of b-lactation antibiotics
-“
-“
Resistance:
-carbapenems seems enzyme
-encoded on a transposon, mobile genetic element 
-enzyme cleaves carbapenem
23
Q

Describe Klebsiella pneumoniae.

Describe Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae
• Important cause of UTI and respiratory tract infections
• Risk group: immuno compromised
• High proportion of resistance to 3rd generation cephalosporins, fluroquinolones and aminoglycosides
• carbapenem-resistant Klebsiella pneumoniae (CRKP) is the species of CRE most commonly encountered in the United States

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Important cause of infection in immuno-compromised
• High proportions of strains are resistant to several antimicrobials
• In ½ of EU countries resistance to carbapenems is above 10%

24
Q

Describe methicillin resistance S.aureus (MRSA).

Describe vancomycin resistant enterococcus faecium (VRE).

A

MRSA
• MRSA is the most important cause of antimicrobial resistant infection worldwide

Methicillin
-is a b lactation antibiotics
-target pathway, inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis
-target protein, inhibit the activity of penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)
Resistance:
-expression of additional penicillin binding protein
-PBP2A has low affinity for methicillin and can still function in the presence of the antibiotic.
-MRSA strains can synthesis peptidoglycan and survive in the presence of methicillin - acquire gene for different PBP which doesn’t bind well.

Vancomycin resistance Enterococcus faecium (VRE).
• Third most frequently identified cause of nosocomial blood stream infections (BSI) identified in the US

Vancomycin
-target pathway, inhibit PG synthesis
-target binds to PG precursor
Resistance:
-multiple proteins, genes encoded on plasmid or transposon
-results in the synthesis of a different PG precursor - forms another substrate.

25
Q

Summarise the immune response to viruses.

A

Intrinsic
-mucous membranes
-skin
(Physical barriers)

Innate immunity
-no specificity

Acquired immunity
-specificity B and T cells

CpG and ZAP: intrinsic immunity
-viruses have a different ratio of nucleotides than we do
-If IgG CpG (foreign) in virus - recognised
-if low may not
Recognised and binds to ZAP to be chopped up by RNA exosphere

26
Q

Describe interferon and the different types of interferon.

A

A soluble protein factor made against virus
Binds to specific receptors and signals the transcription of interferon stimulated genes (ISGs)

Type I interferons
Polypeptides secreted from infected cells Three major functions:
1. Induce antimicrobial state in infected and neighbouring cells
2. modulate innate response to promote Ag presentation and NK e.g. MHC presentation
3. Activate the adaptive immune response
There are type 1 interferon receptors on all cells of body

Pathway:
1) recognises virus and secretes interferon B (an cell can make this) e.g. ciliates epithelial cells
2) switches neighbouring cells to antiviral state and fibroblasts
3) if viruses recognised by dendritic cells and macrophages, they can also secrete interferon alpha and beta.
4) Induce ISGs in infected and neighbouring cells
Increase antigen presentation and chemokine production in innate cells
Induce antibody production
Increase effector T cell responses (and B cells)

Type I IFNs are IFN a and IFN b
• IFN b is secreted by all cells and IFNAR receptor is present on all
tissues. IFNb induction is triggered by IRF-3.
• Plasmacytoid dendritic cells pdcs are specialist IFN a secreting cells. They express high levels of IRF-7 constitutuvely.
• One gene for IFN b, 13/14 isotypes of IFNa.

Type II IFN is IFNg
• Produced by activated T cells and NK cells
• Signals through a different receptor IFNGR.

Type III IFN is IFNl
• Signals through receptors IL28R and IL10b that are mainly present on epithelial surfaces.

Interferon lambda important at epithelial surfaces
-polymorphisms in IFNL associated with improved outcome from HCV and HBV both spontaneous clearance and response to antiviral therapy

27
Q

How do you differentiate self from non self?

A
  • Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
  • Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
  • Often sense foreign nucleic acid
  • cytoplasmic RIG-I like receptors RLRs, endosomal Toll like receptors TLRs
  • cytoplasmic nucleotide oligomerisation domain receptors NLRs
28
Q

Describe inborn errors in interferons.

A

Monogenic inborn error in IRF-7 gene
IRF-7 genes aren’t effective so no interferon response

Autosomal recessive IFNAR2 gene - (IFN alpha and beta receptor 2)

Heterozygous mutation in IRF-3 - cant make interferon properly

Herpes simplex encephalitis
• Most common in childhood, affecting
previously healthy individuals on primary
infection with HSV-1.
Inborn errors in at least 6 genes in HSE - TLR3,UNC93B1,TRIF, TRAF3,TBK1, and IRF3. Impair CNS intrinsic interferon a/b response to HSV infection.

29
Q

Describe the interferon pathway.

A

RNA is sensed by RIG-I and/or mda-5
-ssRNa - no CAP, viral sensed by RIG-I and/or mda-5
-signals to Mavs on mitochondrion
-has 3 pathways. One we need to know: phosphorylation of Irf3 molecules by kinase e.g. Irf3 dimerises and enters nucleus
Irf3 is a TF - to switch on mRNA to make IFN-B

TLRs also sense viral RNA, especially in dendritic cells and signal through Myd88

1) viral RNA exposed in endosomes
2) Tlr3/ 7/ 8 can recognise (7 and 8 unique to plasmacytoid dendritic cells; Tlr3 same as RigI pathway, rest as follows:)
3) Signals to Myd88
4) phosphorylates Irf7
5) constitutively expressed —> INF B and alpha

DNA is sensed by cGAS that signals through STING

1) cGAS is an enzyme which is activate when its bound to dsDNA
2) forms secondary messenger - cGAMP
3) picked up by STING which sits on membrane of endoplasmic reticulum
4) MAVS on mitochondrial membrane
5) RIG-I pathway

INFalpha receptors on all cells of body
IFN is a soluble cytokine
Both auto rinse and paracrine signally
Receptor binding causes transcription of interferon stimulating genes (3-400 genes)

Interferon induces transcription

1) IFN made and excreted by infected cell
2) lands to closest interferon receptor (heterodimer made up of IFNAR1 and IFNAR2)
3) JAK and STAT signalling results in dimerisation of STAT and phosphorylated dimer into nucleus
4) STAT dimer on promoter region —> transcription of hundreds of gene that respond to interferon

30
Q

List the interferon stimulated genes.

Describe the role of IFITM3.

Describe the role of Mx1 and Mx2.

A
  • PKR Protein Kinase R: inhibits translation (viruses can’t replicate itself without human machinery; saves cell too because transient)
  • 2’5’OAS: activates RNAse L that destroys ss RNA (chop up viruses but also chop up own mRNA - can kill cell but controls infection spreading)
  • Mx: inhibits incoming viral genomes
  • ADAR : induces errors during viral replication • Serpine: activates proteases
  • Viperin: inhibits viral budding

IFITM2 restricts virus entry through endosomes

  • viruses enter cell by fusing with endosomal membrane and IFITM3 found in endosomes stops endosomes from fusing
  • membrane cant change and virus trapped in endosome
  • nucleus protected
Mx1 and Mx2
Antiviral mediators 
Mx can from multimers which wrap around the nucleocapsids of incoming viruses 
Mx1 inhibits influenza
Mx2 inhibits HIV

Antiviral state self regulates to limit damage
• IFN response may only be maintained for
several hours
• Subsequently the ability to response to
IFN is lost due to negative regulation
• SOCS suppressor of cytokine signalling
genes turn off the response.

31
Q

Describe strategies viruses use to evade the IFN response.

A

• Avoid detection by hiding the PAMP - inside membrane bound compartments
• Interfere globally with host cell gene expression and/or protein synthesis
• Block IFN induction cascades by destroying or binding - destroy IRF2
• Inhibit IFN signalling - destroy STAT
• Block the action of individual IFN induced
antiviral enzymes
• Activate SOCS
• Replication strategy that is insensitive to IFN

Hepatitis C virus: NS3/4 protease acts as
antagonist to interferon induction by cleaving MAVS.
Influenza virus: NS1 protein acts as
antagonist to interferon induction by binding to RIG-I /TRIM25/RNA complex and preventing activation of signalling pathway, and also prevents nuclear processing of newly induced genes.

Pox viruses prevent the signal getting through
• Pox viruses and herpes viruses are large
DNA viruses
• More than half the pox virus genome is
comprised of accessory gees that modify
immune response - shut cell down to replicate
• Pox viruses encode soluble cytokine
receptors (vaccinia virus B18) - binds to interferon, that are
being developed as possible future
immune therapies

32
Q

Explain the consequences of innate immunity.

A

• A combination of damage of infected cells by virus and
• damage of infected and bystander cells by
the immune response.

By interfering with interferons, viruses skew the immune response
• Many viruses modulate the immune
response, presumably to increase their
own replication and transmission.
• This can result in inadvertant pathology.
• The effects of interferon can vary from
protective to immunopathologic. This may
depend on how much interferon is made-
100 times more IFN is required for IL-6
induction than for Mx.
Too much cytokine e.g. interferon made because virus interfered with body response => cytokine storm .e.g. Ebola, dengue haemorrhagic fever

The cytokine storm: innate immunopathology of virus infections
• Virus replicates, induces high IFN accompanied by massive TNFa and other cytokines.
• Differences in clinical outcome may reflect vigour of innate immune system, which may vary with age.
• This is typical of Dengue haemorrhagic fever, severe influenza infections and Ebola.

  • endothelial dysfunction: altered endothelial physiology and barrier function, increased permeability syndrome, endothelial cytokine storm initiation and amplification loop
  • inflammatory responses: systemic cytokine circulation, sepsis syndrome (hypotension and leukocytosis)
  • pulmonary fibrosis: recruitment of fibrocytes, progressive deposition of ECM, T-cell mediated immunopathology
33
Q

Describe uses of IFN.

A
  • IFN as a treatment (HCV, pegylated IFN often used with ribavirin)
  • Associated with unpleasant side effects

Viruses that lack ability to control interferon as a new generation of live attenuated vaccines
• Cells naturally or engineered to be deficient in IFN response can be used to grow these
attenuated virus strains.
• Viruses deficient in control of IFN are attenuated in IFN competent cells .
• The high IFN levels they induce can also recruit useful immune cells, IFN acting as an ‘adjuvant’.

IFN lambda as an influenza therapeutic

  • only signals to receptors present on epithelial cells
  • only stimulates an anti-viral state, not immunomodulation so no immunopathology - don’t make too many cytokines

Oncolytic viruses take advantage of the IFN deficient state of cancer cells

  • cancer cells don’t have good interferon cells
  • viruses can be used to kill cancer cells