Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

ENT > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Who is most likely to get an acute throat infection?

A

children aged 5–10 years

young adults aged 15–25 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If sore throat and lethargy persist into the second week, especially if the person is 15-25years of age what should be suspected?

A

Glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When would a sore throat be referred?

A
  • Persistent sore throat, with neck mass (cancer)
  • Sore throat lasts for 3 to 4 weeks
  • pain on swallowing/dysphagia for >3 weeks
  • Red or white patches/ulceration/swelling of the oral/pharyngeal mucosa persists for >3 weeks
  • Stridor / respiratory difficulty is an emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute follicular tonsillitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

Group A Beta Haemolytic Strep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is bacterial tonsillitis treated with?

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient with strep. pyogenes tonsillitis should be isolated until they have been on antibiotics for 48 hrs. TRUE/FALSE?

A

TRUE

Droplet precautions should also be taken as patient can spread infection by coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the late complications of strep. throat?

A
  • Rheumatic fever (3 weeks after)

- Glomerulonephritis (1-3 weeks after)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does diptheria present in the throat?

A

severe sore throat with a grey white pseudomembrane across the posterior pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is the diptheria exotoxin particularly dangerous during infection?

A

cardiotoxic and neurotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What complications can the diptheria pseudomembrane cause?

A

Can obstruct the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diptheria vaccine made of?

A

cell-free purified toxin extracted from a strain of C. diphtheriae
=> a toxoid vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for diptheria?

A

antitoxin and supportive and penicillin / erythromycin

antibiotics dont make much difference on their own - the anti-toxin is important in treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What microbe is known to cause oral thrush?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does oral thrush appear in the mouth

A

white patches on red, raw mucous membranes in throat/ mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is oral thrush treated?

A

nystatin or fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is otitis media?

A

upper respiratory infection involving the middle ear by extension of infection up the Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who usually gets otitis media?

A

infants and children

Present with earache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bacteria usually infect the middle ear?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Moraxella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are middle ear infections usually bacterial or viral?

A

Viral but often with secondary bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Can the middle ear be swabbed for culture?

A

Swab of pus taken if eardrum perforates to release it – otherwise samples can’t be obtained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What treatment is most commonly used for infections of the middle ear?

A

80% resolve in 4 days without antibiotics.

1st line – amoxicillin
2nd line – erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common presenting feature in acute sinusitis?

A

Mild discomfort over frontal or maxillary sinuses due to congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Severe pain and tenderness with purulent nasal discharge in acute sinusitis indicates what?

A

Secondary bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cases of sinusitis should antibiotics be reserved for?

A

severe/deteriorating cases of >10 days duration.

1ST LINE penicillin V
2ND LINE doxycycline – NOT IN CHILDREN!!!

25
What is otitis externa?
inflammation of the outer ear canal
26
How does otitis externa usually present?
- Red/swollen ear canal skin - May be itchy - Can become sore and painful - May be discharge, or increased ear wax - Canal becomes blocked = hearing affected
27
What is Malignant otitis externa?
extension of otitis externa into the bone surrounding the ear canal (i.e. the mastoid and temporal bones
28
Why can Malignant otitis externa be fatal?
Osteomyelitis can erode into skull and meninges
29
What signs can indicate malignant otitis externa?
- Granulation tissue at bone–cartilage junction of ear canal - exposed bone in the ear canal - Facial nerve palsy (drooping face on the side of the lesion)
30
What bacteria usually cause malignant otitis externa?
Staph aureus | Pseudomonas aeruginosa
31
What can predispose to malignant otitis externa?
diabetes and radiotherapy to head and neck
32
What fungal infections can cause otitis externa?
``` Aspergillus niger (black spores visible) Candida albicans ```
33
What are the main symptoms in glandular fever?
Fever Enlarged lymph nodes Sore throat, pharyngitis, tonsillitis Malaise, lethargy
34
What rarer signs can be seen in glandular fever?
``` Jaundice/hepatitis Rash Leucocytosis (lymphocytosis) Presence of atypical lymphocytes in blood film Splenomegaly Palatal petechiae ```
35
What complications can arise from glandular fever?
- Anaemia, thrombocytopenia - Splenic rupture (warn pt if they do contact sport) - Upper airway obstruction - Increased risk of lymphoma, especially in immunosuppressed
36
What virus causes infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)?
Epstein-Barr virus (one of herpes family)
37
Primary infection in early childhood rarely results in infectious mononucleosis. TRUE/FALSE?
TRUE | but infection >10 often results in getting the infection
38
What is the treatment for infectious mononucleosis?
``` Bed rest Paracetamol Avoid sport Antivirals not clinically effective Corticosteroids may have a role in some complicated cases ```
39
What lab investigations can assist in the diagnosis of glandular fever?
Epstein-Barr virus IgM Heterophile antibody Blood count and film Liver function tests
40
What other viruses cause illness similar to that of infectious mononucleosis?
Cytomegalovirus Toxoplasmosis Primary HIV infection seroconversion illness
41
What is the CENTOR criteria for distribution of antibiotics in tonsillitis?
(1 point for each => need 3/4 for antibiotics) - Tonsillar exudate - Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes - Fever of >38 - Absence of cough
42
What is the FEVER PAIN criteria for antibiotics in tonsillitis?
``` Fever in last 24hrs? Purulence? Attend rapidly? (within 3 days) Very inflamed tonsils No cough/cold ```
43
How should patients on DMARDs with a suspected throat infection be managed?
FBC | withhold DMARD whilst waiting on blood results
44
When is Herpes simplex Type 1 usually acquired?
Childhood
45
What symptoms usually present in a Primary gingivostomatitis due to HSV1 infection?
Ulcerating lesion Local lymphadenopathy Fever
46
How long does it take to recover from a Primary gingivostomatitis (HSV1) infection?
3 weeks
47
How is Primary gingivostomatitis in HSV1 treated?
Aciclovir
48
Where does the herpes simplex virus usually lie latent?
Trigeminal ganglion
49
Everyone who gets a primary HSV1 infection wll get recurrence. TRUE/FALSE?
FALSE | but factors such as immunosuppression can increase risk of recurrence
50
HSV2 is more likely to recur than HSV1. TRUE/FALSE
TRUE | and more related to genital infection
51
What is the potentially dangerous complication of the herpes simplex virus?
HSV encephalitis - temporal lobe necrosis
52
What is herpangina?
Vesicles/ulcers on soft palate
53
What virus causes herpangina?
Coxsackie
54
What other condition is caused by coxsackie virus?
Hand, foot and mouth
55
Why do GPs commonly not do viral swabs for hand, foot and mouth?
Nothing else similar presents in the same age range | usually children - can cause family outbreaks
56
What are aphthous ulcers?
Non viral Recurring painful ulcers of the mouth Round or ovoid shape Have inflammatory halos
57
What systemic disease can cause recurrent ulcers?
``` Behçet's disease Coeliac or IBD Reiter’s disease Drug reactions Skin diseases ```
58
WHat is a Chancre and what condition is it seen in?
- Painless ulcer at site of entry of bacterium Treponema pallidum (usually genitals or oral) - Syphilis infection

ENT (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions