Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by nosocomial infection and when can it be diagnosed?

A

An infection due to an organism which was acquired at hospital - can be diagnosed after 48 hours after admission to hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 4 important bacterial causes of nosocomial infection and state whether they are gram positive or negative. (4+4)

A

Enterococcus Faecium – G+ve
Staphylococcus Aureus – G+ve
Clostridium Difficile – G+ve
Acinetobacter Baumanii – G-ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Some patient has a lung infection. List three ways to collect a sample from them

A

Bronchoalveolar lavage
Nasopharyngeal aspirtate
Lung biopsy
Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List four bacteria that can be cultured from them (sample lung infection)

A

Mycobacterium
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenza
Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain why looking at sputum and doing a tissue stain is useful

A

Sputum – easy to obtain and can test many diseases as the pathogens would be trapped in it
Tissue stain – Determines if gram negative or positive: so identifies appropriate treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give an example of a gram positive infection, say what antibiotic it is resistant to and say how the antibiotic works

A

Staphylococcus Aureus – resistant to methicillin

Methicillin – works by inhibiting activity of penicillin binding proteins that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give examples of bacterial pathogens that can be vaccinated for

A
Haemophilus influenza
Neisseria Meningitides
Streptococcus pneumonia 
Clostridium diphtheria
Bordetella pertussis
Clostridium Tetani
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give examples of bacteria causing respiratory tract infections

A
Legionella pneumophilia (Gram -ve)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (mycobacterium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give examples of bacteria causing STIs

A
Chlamydia trachomatis (obligate intracellular)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (Gram -ve)
Treponema pallidum (causes Syphilis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give examples of viruses causing STIs

A

HepB virus
HepC virus
HIV/AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List some food- and waterborne diseases and zoonoses

A

Campylobacterosis (?)
Cholera (Vibrio cholera)
Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes)
Shigellosis (Shigella spp.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define an outbreak

A

When a greater number of individuals than what is normal or expected become infected or diagnosed with a particular infection in a given period of time or particular place or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How are outbreaks measured, and why is it important?

A

Identified by surveillance with an established and timely reporting system
Important to identify early, quarantine to prevent further transmission, identify organism and treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name 4 types of protozoa and examples of each (4)

A

Amoeba – Entamoeba histolytic
Coccidia – Toxoplasma; Plasmodium spp.
Ciliates – Balantidium Coli
Flagellates - Trichromonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between protozoa and metazoan?

A

Protozoa are single celled organisms which do not cause eosinophilia while metazoa are multi-celled organisms which do cause eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two types of leishmaniasis and give features of each

A

Promastigote – in sand-fly vector. Can move in direction of their flagellum and can be cultured
Amastigote – In humans and other vertebrate hosts. No longer motile. Intracellular form of the parasite

17
Q

What cell type do leishmania reside in?

A

Macrophage

18
Q

What are endotoxins and exotoxins

A

Exotoxins – Toxins that are produced by bacteria and released extracellularly, e.g. neurotoxins and enterotoxins
Endotoxins – Lipid A moiety of lipoproteins produced by Gram negative bacteria which are shed in steady amounts from living bacteria

19
Q

What are Pyrogenic toxins

A

Exotoxins which stimulate cytokine release and thus cause fever

20
Q

Name the general term for the type of toxin that binds directly to both MHCII and T cell receptors.

A

Superantigens

21
Q

Name some virulence factors other than toxins that are used by bacteria

A
Diverse secretion system – e.g. camplylobacter
Flagella – e.g. camplylobacter
Pilli – e.g Neisseria 
Capsule- e.g. streptococcus pneumonia 
Endospores – e.g. clostridium species
Biofilms – e.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa
22
Q

Name two examples of flagellates and the diseases they cause

A

Giardia Lamblia – Diarrhoea, greasy stools, stomach or abdominal cramps, nausea and vomiting and dehydration
Trichromonas – discharge and dysuria

23
Q

Name two examples of coccidiae and the diseases they cause

A

Toxoplasma gondii – can cause toxoplasmosis

Cryptosporidium – diarrhoea, fever, nausea and vomitting

24
Q

Name the 3 helminth infections

A

Ascariasis (Ascaris roundworms)
Schistosomiasis (flukes - Schistosoma)
Taenia = Flatworms => taeniasis

25
Q

Two types of viruses with genetic drift and we have vaccines for them.

A

Influenza is one with genetic drift and vaccines available

26
Q

Explain Genetic drift vs Genetic shift.

A

Antigenic drift = Continued rapid evolution driven by antigenic pressure from the host
Antigenic shift = Introduction of a new subtype from an animal source therefore existing as a different genetically stable serotype that co-circulates in humans

27
Q

Talk about how viruses evade interferon detection

A

Hide PAMPS
Interfere globally with host cell gene expression and/or protein synthesis
Block interferon signalling cascade by destroying or binding to cascade components
Inhibit interferon signalling
Block activation of individual interferon induced antiviral enzymes
Activate SOCS suppression of interferon 1 induction
Have a replication strategy which is insensitive to interferon signalling

28
Q

Give two examples of cytoplasmic sensors for viruses

A

cGAS senses viral DNA in cell - binds to DNA - forms cGAMP - binds to STING on endoplasmic reticulum -> transcription factor phosphorylation and movement to nucleus e.g. IRF 3 -> interferon transcription

RIG also intracellular detector - RIG-I binds to viral ssRNA or mRNA => RIG-I binds to MAVS => IR3 or IR7 is phosphorylation and translocated into nucleus => transcription of interferon beta

29
Q

How does toll-like receptor (TLR) recognise viruses

A

Same way as RIG except it is membrane associated so only recognises endosomes or viruses outside of cell (RIG is intracellular sensor for viruses)
- detect viral RNA => IR3 or IR7 is phosphorylated => interferon transcription

30
Q

Name two bacterial pathogens that use pyrotoxins

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes