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Microbiology Flashcards

MASTERY BITCH

1
Q
  1. Types of HSV
  2. Transmission
  3. Clinical Manifestation
  4. Detection
  5. Treatment
A
  1. HSV 1 and 2
  2. Sexually-transmitted, vertical transmission by neonate from vaginal canal when lesions are active, direct contact with mucosal membranes
  3. Temporal headache, genital sores (cervix and external genetalia of men and women), disseminated in organs
  4. Tzanck smear (multinucleated giant cells), PCR, ulcer base scrapings
  5. Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valacyclovir, Trifluridine Eyedrops for corneal infection
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2
Q
  1. Other name for Varicella
  2. Incubation period
  3. Description of rash and onset/appearance
  4. Treatment
A
  1. Chickenpox (Bulutong)
  2. 2 weeks
  3. Guttate, crusting; appears “one time big time”
  4. AFV (Acyclo, Famciclo, Valacyclo), IgG, Vaccine
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3
Q
  1. Transmission for CMV
  2. Manifestation
  3. Treatment
  4. Detection
A
  1. Milk, urine, saliva, tears; sexually; prolonged exposure to all previously mentioned
  2. Asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Retinitis, esophagitis, pneumonia, disseminated disease in immunocompromised individuals
  3. Gancyclovir, Foscarnet (Foscy. Haha), Cidofovir, Formirvirsen *These are only used in immunocompromised individuals with visual/life-threatening manifestations
  4. Blood buffy coat (Extracts CMV shells from WBC via overnight culture and centrifuge)
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4
Q
  1. Cell responsible for the propagation/virulence factor of Epstein-Barr, causing lymphocytosis, and pharyngitis in patients with infectious mononucleosis
  2. Receptor associated with #1
  3. Most common manifestation of EBV infection
  4. Associated with which type of Lymphoma?
  5. Treatment
A
  1. B-cell
  2. CD:21
  3. Fever
  4. Burkitt’s B-Cell (MCC in children)
  5. Supportive
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5
Q
  1. Virus associated with Roseola
  2. How many days of high fever before truncal rash occurs in Roseola?
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Human Herpes Virus 6 (HHV-6)
  2. 3-5 days
  3. Supportive
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6
Q
  1. Virus associated with Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  2. Transmission of #1
  3. Most common presentation of Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  4. Treatment
  5. Detection
A
  1. HHV 8
  2. Sexual. Often found in MSM
  3. AIDS-related
  4. HAART (As in, “Normal HAART” hahaha). If with visceral involvement, add chemotherapy.
  5. CD4 and lymphocyte counts
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7
Q
  1. The only DNA to replicate in the cytoplasm; brick-shaped, large
  2. Small pox is a Category A agent for bioterrorism. Defined as?
  3. Histopath of Smallpox
  4. White papules with dimple in the middle, and its characteristic histopathology
  5. Where can you find #4?
A
  1. Poxviridae
  2. Easily transmitted/disseminated, high mortality rate and public effect, causes panic and social disruption
  3. Guarnieri bodies
  4. Molluscum Contagiosum, Henderson-Peterson bodies.
  5. Genital area
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8
Q
  1. Morphology of HPV
  2. Types of HPV associated with regular warts?
  3. HPV types associated with genital warts
  4. HPV types associated with CA
  5. Best treatment for HPV-associated warts
A
  1. Koilocytes
  2. 1, 2, 4, 7
  3. Condyloma acuminata 6, 11, 16, 18
  4. 16, 18, 31, 33
  5. Liquid nitrogen, electrocautery/ablation
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9
Q

Virus responsible for causing childhood URTI

A

Adenovirus

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10
Q

Smallest virus, causing 5th Disease

*BONUS: other name for 5th Disease

A

Parvovirus

BONUS: Erythema Infectiosum

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11
Q

What happens when the Parvovirus stops production of RBCs in the bone marrow?

A

Transient aplastic anemia crisis

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12
Q

Second smallest virus

A

Papillomavirus

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13
Q

Orthomyxoviridae with human AND animal component

A

Influenza A

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14
Q

RNA viruses that replicate in the nucleus

A

Orthomyxoviridae and Retroviruses

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15
Q

Influenza Glycoprotein that binds to upper respiratory tract and hemoglobin, later to be cleaved and activated

A

Hemagglutin (HA1 and HA2)

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16
Q

Influenza Glycoprotein that binds to (________), a component of mucin

A

Neuraminidase, Neuraminic Acid

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17
Q
  1. Most common identified Hemagglutin and Neuraminidase of Influenza
  2. Common Influenza A affecting humans (yearly vaccine)
A
  1. H: 1, 2, 3
    N: 1, 2
  2. H1N1, H3N2. In yearly vaccine, we have protection from these two, plus Influenza B.
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18
Q

Vaccine contraindicated in eggs

A

Influenza

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19
Q

Treatment for Influenza

A

Oseltamivir (oral), Zanamivir (inhaled), Amantadine and Rimantidine (also used in Parkinsonism)

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20
Q

What do antigenic drifts cause? (Small mutations)

A

Epidemic

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21
Q

What do antigenic shifts cause? (Major genomic reassortments)

A

Pandemic

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22
Q

HA and NA configuration for Avian Flu

A

H5N1

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23
Q
  1. Other name for Measles
  2. Triad of symptoms
  3. Special pathognomonic symptom
  4. Which one does Measles NOT have? HA? or NA?
  5. Progression of Measles Rash
A
  1. Rubeola
  2. Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
  3. Koplik Spots
  4. NA
  5. Head to toe
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24
Q

Other name for Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis. With what disease is this associated? How long after you get this disease will you manifest SSP?

A

Damson Disease.
Measles.
Years later.

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25
What do you supplement patients with Measles with? How much per age group?
Vitamin A. <6 yo: 50, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses 6-11 yo: 100, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses >11 yo: 200, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses
26
1. RNA Virus responsible for Croup and Bronchiolitis 2. Radiographic presentation of Croup 3. Treatment for #1
1. Parainfluenza 1 and 2 2. Steeple Sign 3. Supportive. Racemic Epinephrine
27
1. RNA virus leading cause of LOWER respiratory tract infection in CHILDREN 2. How many HA/NA? 3. Vaccines for #1
1. RSV 2. No HA/NA 3. Palivizumab, Rivabirin (reserved for immunocompromized/life-threatening illness)
28
"R" in TORCHES a. Rubeola b. Roseola c. Rubella d. RSV
C. Rubella (German Measles)
29
Mosquito vector causing the ff: 1. Dengue, Yellow Fever 2. St. Louis, Japanese Encephalitis, West Nile
1. Aedes | 2. Culex
30
When do you develop a higher chance for hemorrhagic fever in Dengue infections?
With repeated infections
31
Types of Polio and their manifestations
1. Abortive - Mildest (most common form), nausea, vomiting, headache, sore throat, fever 2. Non-Paralytic - Aseptic Meningitis 3. Paralytic- Flaccid Polio, damage to anterior horn
32
Transmission and Treatment of Polio
ORO-FECAL. WAG KANG KUMAIN NG TAE. JUSKO. Treated with oral polio (attenuated, non-virulent) or subcutaneous vaccine (formalinkilied)
33
Coxackie virus responsible for: A. Herpetiform B. Foot-and-Mouth Disease
A. Coxackie A | B. Coxackie B
34
Virus responsible for "cold rashes"
ECHO virus (Enteric, Cytopathic, Human Orphan)
35
1. Virus responsile for "comon colds" 2. At what temp is #1 active? 3. Will # 1 survive if you swallow it? BONUS: It only infects these 2 species
1. Rhinovirus 2. 35C 3. NO. HAHAHA. Gastric acid kills it. BONUS: Humans and Chimpanzees. Surprise surprise. Hahaha.
36
The most common cause of epidemic nonbacterial gastroenteritis in the world (as in, the explosive but self-limited dump you take that goes on for 2-3 days)
Caliciviridae AKA Norovirus The virus is extremely stable in the environment and resists freezing temperatures, heat (up to 60°C), disinfection with chlorine, acidic conditions, vinegar, alcohol, antiseptic hand solutions, and high sugar concentrations. LIKE A TRUE CALICI (KHALEESI)
37
Virus which is a major cause of infant death in underdeveloped countries and the most common cause of NON-BLOODY, NON-PUS-Y diarrhea in infants less than 3 years of age
ROTAvirus
38
How do you identify Rotavirus?
``` Rotavirus may be identifies by the following means: • enxyme immuno assay (most common) • latex agglutination • electron microscopy • culture ```
39
Treatment for Rotavirus infection
Intravenous fluids New oral rotavirus vaccine appears safe and effective in infants There are currently 2 FDA-approved rotavirus vaccines to protect against rotavirus gastroenteritis (ie, RotaTeq and Rotarix). These vaccines are indicated in infants aged 6-32 weeks (RotaTeq) and those aged 6-24 weeks (Rotarix)
40
Treatment for Coronaviridae
WALA. Whether SARS or MERS. They just have really comprehensive ways for diagnosing and isolating it. But for now, it's all just supportive.
41
1. Morphology of Rabies virus | 2. Histologic finding pathognomonic of Rabies
1. Bullet-shaped | 2. Negri Bodies
42
1. How many copies of single-stranded RNA are found in HIV? | 2. What type of virus is HIV?
1. 2 (diploid) | 2. Retrovirus
43
Progression of HIV infection
PHASE 0 – INFECTION: HIV acquired through sexual intercourse, blood, or perinatally PHASE 1 - WINDOW PERIOD: rapid viral replication but HIV test is negative PHASE 2 – SEROCONVERSION: peak of viral load, positive HIV test, mild flu-like illness, lasting 1-2 weeks PHASE 3 - LATENT PERIOD: asymptomatic, CD4 goes down, lasts 1-15 years PHASE 4 - EARLY SYMPTOMATIC: CD4 500 to 200, lasts 5 years, mild mucocutaneous, dermatologic and hematologic illnesses PHASE 5 – AIDS: CD4 <200, lasts 2 years, AIDS-defining illnesses develop
44
Treatment for HIV
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART): two nucleoside inhibitors (zidovudine and lamivudine) and protease inhibitor (indinavir)
45
Definitive Diagnosis of HIV
Western Blot
46
Presumptive Diagnosis of HIV
ICC-ELISA
47
Determining Viral Load of HIV, and Detection of HIV DNA in infected cells
PCR. This is highly sensitive and specific.
48
What does "Anti-HAV IgM" or "Anti-HAV IgG" mean?
Basta "Anti-(something) IgM/IgG", it talks about whether you currently have (IgM) or had history but now, don't currently have an active (IgG) infection
49
Meaning of the ff: 1. HBsAg 2. Anti-HBc 3. Anti-HBs 4. IgM Anti-HBc 5. HBeAg 6. Anti-HBeAg 7. Anti-HBsAg
1. HBsAg - Presence or absence of disease 2. Anti-HBc - History of previous infection (persists for life) 3. Anti-HBs - Immunity/recovery from active infection. Appears when you've been vaccinated. 4. IgM Anti-HBc - DO NOT be misled by the presence of the "Anti-HBc". Notice the presence of "IgM" instead. That means there's a NEW infection (<6 mos; "M" for "Mauuna" remember?) 5. HBeAg - HIGH infectivity 6. Anti-HBeAg - LOW infectivity 7. Anti-HBsAg - Immunity provides protection from repeated infection
50
Hepatitis type transmitted via oro-fecal route
Hep A and E ``` as in (T)AE btw, high mortality yung Hep E in pregnant women. ```
51
Sino yung paepal na Hepatitis type na active lang pag nakiki-ride on kay Hep B?
Hep D
52
Hep types associated with: 1. Acute 2. Chronic
1. Hep A 2. Hep C Notice a pattern? :)
53
Treatment for Hep C
Treatment: combination therapy with interferon and ribavirin
54
1. Gram positive bacteria implicated in SSIs, folliculitis, bullous impetigo, enteritis (AGE), osteomyelitis, Toxic Shock Syndrome 2. Treatment
S. aureus 2. Regular infection (non-MRSA) Oxacillin. for MRSA: Vancomycin. For Vanc-resistant: Linezolid
55
Gram positive bacteria implicated in prosethic valve infections, and its treatment
S. epidermidis, remove valve and Vancomycin
56
At dahil pa-important siya... (ang motto in life niya ay "FIGHT ME") 2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually-active females daw. BONUS: Treatment ng UTI na 'to.
S. saprophyticus (PHYT ME) Cotrimoxazole, Fluoroquinolones
57
1. S. pyogenes toxin causing Scarlet Fever; Test for susceptibility 2. S. pyogenes exotoxin implicated in necrotizing fascitis
1. Erythrogenic Toxin; Dick test (hehehehe #mature) 2. Exotoxin B (as in BULOK) *Tandaan mo na ang PYO sounds like PYRO = everything na "umiinit" = Erysipelas, Scarlet Fever, Pharyngitis, Acute Rheumatic Fever, APSGN.
58
Treatment for S. pyogenes
Penicillin
59
Gram positive bacteria part of Team (group) Vagina. Apparently, grows in LIM Broth. ALSO THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF NEONATAL SEPSIS IN THE WORLD SO WAG MO SIYANG MAMALIITIN.
S. aglactiae
60
S. aglactiae/Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is common among pregnant women and causes UTI or foul-smelling lochia. If pregnant women test positive for this, what is your prophylactic treatment?
IV penicillin or ampicillin 4 hours prior to delivery
61
Group D streptococcus consists of which organisms? Where do they grow? What diseases are they associated with? Treatment?
S. bovis, E. faecalis. Esculin agar. Instrumentation/indwelling foley cathether-related infections, marantic endocarditis in patients with colon CA (S. bovis) Penicillin + Gentamicin Vancomycin (for Penicillin-resistant) Linezolid (for Vancomycin-resistant)
62
Optochin and bile-resistant gram positive bacteria which is the common cause of indigenous heart valve vegetations and is transmitted through dental procedures Treatment?
S. viridans Treatment is the same as Group D streptococcus
63
Culture appearance of B. anthracis. Treatment?
Medusa's Head Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline with any of the ff: Penicillin, Imipinem, Vancomycin, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin
64
Gram (+) bacilli involved in Chinese fried rice syndrome. Also causes loss of light perception within 48 hours of being inoculated in the eye by penetration of a foreign object in contact with soil
B. cereus
65
Mechanism of action of C. botulinum, and what syndrome in infants is it associated with?
Inhibition of release of Ach from peripheral nerves; Floppy Baby Syndrome
66
Toxin associated with C. tetani, and its mechanism of action?
Tetanospasmin, inhibiting GABA and glutamate (relaxants), causing sustained muscle contraction
67
Treatment for tetanus (vaccines and drug of choice)
Tetanus Toxoid Antitoxin Penicillin
68
Appearance of C. tetani in microscope
Gram positive rods with endospore at one end ("drumstick")
69
Toxin associated with C. perfringens
Alpha toxin lecithinase (splits lecithin into phosphocholine and diglyceride)
70
C. perfringens produces gas. What is special about its treatment that is also related to gas?
Hyperbaric oxygen
71
Gram positive bacilli whose toxins have similar properties to tetracyclines
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
72
Toxins in Corynebacterium diphtheriae and their MOA?
Exotoxin produced at the biofilm. Subunit A: inactivates EF 2 and inhibits protein synthesis Subunit B: provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue
73
Manifestations of diphtheria
- mild sore throat with fever initially - pseudomembrane forms on pharynx - myocarditis causing A-V condution block and dysrhythmia - neural involvement: perpheral nerve palsies, GBS, palatal paralysis, and neuropathies
74
Drugs of choice for Diphtheria
Penicillin and Erythromycin. DPT vaccine (formalin-inactivated)
75
1. Appearance of Corynebacterium in gram stain | 2. Where do we culture C. diphtheriae?
1. Chinese letters 2. Culture: Potassium tellurite: dark black colonies Loeffler’s medium: after 12 hours of growth, stain with methylene blue. Reddish (Babes-Ernst) granules can be seen"
76
Test done to see if person is susceptible to diphtheria infection
Schick Test
77
Virulence Factors of Listeria monocytogenes
Hemolysin: (like streptolysin O) Listeriolysin O: allows escape from the phagolysosomes of macrophages; major virulence factor Internalin: Interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of cells Actin rockets: propel the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell to another
78
The only gram positive bacteria that produces LPS
L. monocytogenes
79
Treatment for Listeria
Ampicillin +/- Gentamycin If allergic to Penicillin, use Cotrimoxazole. Cephalosporins have no effect on Listeria, MRSA, or Enterococci
80
Treatment of choice for Septic Meningococcal Meningitis?
Penicillin | Ceftriaxone/Cefotaxime
81
Most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active males and females?
Gonococcal arthritis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome)
82
Drugs of choice for treating N. gonorrhea, incubating chlamydia, and syphilis
Ceftriaxone (may add Doxycycline) Second line (but not effective against Syphilis): Fluoroquinolone Spectinomycin
83
M. catarrhalis treatment
Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Co-Amoxiclav, 2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporin, Cotrimoxazole
84
How many factors does H. influenza need to grow and what are these factors?
Factor V: NAD+ | Factor X: Hematin
85
Gram negative bacilli causing Chancroid lesions
Haemophilus ducreyi Chancroid: painful genital ulcer, often associated with unilateral swollen lymph nodes that can rupture, releasing pus
86
Treatment for H. ducreyi
Ciprofloxacin Azith/Eryth Ceftriaxone
87
Most specific finding on histo for the cause of Bacterial Vaginosis
Clue Cells, Gardnerella vaginalis This is treated with Metronidazole

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