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BOARD EXAM REVIEW > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

MASTERY BITCH

1
Q
  1. Types of HSV
  2. Transmission
  3. Clinical Manifestation
  4. Detection
  5. Treatment
A
  1. HSV 1 and 2
  2. Sexually-transmitted, vertical transmission by neonate from vaginal canal when lesions are active, direct contact with mucosal membranes
  3. Temporal headache, genital sores (cervix and external genetalia of men and women), disseminated in organs
  4. Tzanck smear (multinucleated giant cells), PCR, ulcer base scrapings
  5. Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valacyclovir, Trifluridine Eyedrops for corneal infection
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2
Q
  1. Other name for Varicella
  2. Incubation period
  3. Description of rash and onset/appearance
  4. Treatment
A
  1. Chickenpox (Bulutong)
  2. 2 weeks
  3. Guttate, crusting; appears “one time big time”
  4. AFV (Acyclo, Famciclo, Valacyclo), IgG, Vaccine
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3
Q
  1. Transmission for CMV
  2. Manifestation
  3. Treatment
  4. Detection
A
  1. Milk, urine, saliva, tears; sexually; prolonged exposure to all previously mentioned
  2. Asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Retinitis, esophagitis, pneumonia, disseminated disease in immunocompromised individuals
  3. Gancyclovir, Foscarnet (Foscy. Haha), Cidofovir, Formirvirsen *These are only used in immunocompromised individuals with visual/life-threatening manifestations
  4. Blood buffy coat (Extracts CMV shells from WBC via overnight culture and centrifuge)
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4
Q
  1. Cell responsible for the propagation/virulence factor of Epstein-Barr, causing lymphocytosis, and pharyngitis in patients with infectious mononucleosis
  2. Receptor associated with #1
  3. Most common manifestation of EBV infection
  4. Associated with which type of Lymphoma?
  5. Treatment
A
  1. B-cell
  2. CD:21
  3. Fever
  4. Burkitt’s B-Cell (MCC in children)
  5. Supportive
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5
Q
  1. Virus associated with Roseola
  2. How many days of high fever before truncal rash occurs in Roseola?
  3. Treatment
A
  1. Human Herpes Virus 6 (HHV-6)
  2. 3-5 days
  3. Supportive
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6
Q
  1. Virus associated with Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  2. Transmission of #1
  3. Most common presentation of Kaposi’s Sarcoma
  4. Treatment
  5. Detection
A
  1. HHV 8
  2. Sexual. Often found in MSM
  3. AIDS-related
  4. HAART (As in, “Normal HAART” hahaha). If with visceral involvement, add chemotherapy.
  5. CD4 and lymphocyte counts
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7
Q
  1. The only DNA to replicate in the cytoplasm; brick-shaped, large
  2. Small pox is a Category A agent for bioterrorism. Defined as?
  3. Histopath of Smallpox
  4. White papules with dimple in the middle, and its characteristic histopathology
  5. Where can you find #4?
A
  1. Poxviridae
  2. Easily transmitted/disseminated, high mortality rate and public effect, causes panic and social disruption
  3. Guarnieri bodies
  4. Molluscum Contagiosum, Henderson-Peterson bodies.
  5. Genital area
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8
Q
  1. Morphology of HPV
  2. Types of HPV associated with regular warts?
  3. HPV types associated with genital warts
  4. HPV types associated with CA
  5. Best treatment for HPV-associated warts
A
  1. Koilocytes
  2. 1, 2, 4, 7
  3. Condyloma acuminata 6, 11, 16, 18
  4. 16, 18, 31, 33
  5. Liquid nitrogen, electrocautery/ablation
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9
Q

Virus responsible for causing childhood URTI

A

Adenovirus

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10
Q

Smallest virus, causing 5th Disease

*BONUS: other name for 5th Disease

A

Parvovirus

BONUS: Erythema Infectiosum

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11
Q

What happens when the Parvovirus stops production of RBCs in the bone marrow?

A

Transient aplastic anemia crisis

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12
Q

Second smallest virus

A

Papillomavirus

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13
Q

Orthomyxoviridae with human AND animal component

A

Influenza A

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14
Q

RNA viruses that replicate in the nucleus

A

Orthomyxoviridae and Retroviruses

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15
Q

Influenza Glycoprotein that binds to upper respiratory tract and hemoglobin, later to be cleaved and activated

A

Hemagglutin (HA1 and HA2)

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16
Q

Influenza Glycoprotein that binds to (________), a component of mucin

A

Neuraminidase, Neuraminic Acid

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17
Q
  1. Most common identified Hemagglutin and Neuraminidase of Influenza
  2. Common Influenza A affecting humans (yearly vaccine)
A
  1. H: 1, 2, 3
    N: 1, 2
  2. H1N1, H3N2. In yearly vaccine, we have protection from these two, plus Influenza B.
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18
Q

Vaccine contraindicated in eggs

A

Influenza

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19
Q

Treatment for Influenza

A

Oseltamivir (oral), Zanamivir (inhaled), Amantadine and Rimantidine (also used in Parkinsonism)

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20
Q

What do antigenic drifts cause? (Small mutations)

A

Epidemic

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21
Q

What do antigenic shifts cause? (Major genomic reassortments)

A

Pandemic

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22
Q

HA and NA configuration for Avian Flu

A

H5N1

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23
Q
  1. Other name for Measles
  2. Triad of symptoms
  3. Special pathognomonic symptom
  4. Which one does Measles NOT have? HA? or NA?
  5. Progression of Measles Rash
A
  1. Rubeola
  2. Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
  3. Koplik Spots
  4. NA
  5. Head to toe
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24
Q

Other name for Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis. With what disease is this associated? How long after you get this disease will you manifest SSP?

A

Damson Disease.
Measles.
Years later.

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25
Q

What do you supplement patients with Measles with? How much per age group?

A

Vitamin A.
<6 yo: 50, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses
6-11 yo: 100, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses
>11 yo: 200, 000 IU/day PO x 2 doses

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26
Q
  1. RNA Virus responsible for Croup and Bronchiolitis
  2. Radiographic presentation of Croup
  3. Treatment for #1
A
  1. Parainfluenza 1 and 2
  2. Steeple Sign
  3. Supportive. Racemic Epinephrine
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27
Q
  1. RNA virus leading cause of LOWER respiratory tract infection in CHILDREN
  2. How many HA/NA?
  3. Vaccines for #1
A
  1. RSV
  2. No HA/NA
  3. Palivizumab, Rivabirin (reserved for immunocompromized/life-threatening illness)
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28
Q

“R” in TORCHES

a. Rubeola
b. Roseola
c. Rubella
d. RSV

A

C. Rubella (German Measles)

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29
Q

Mosquito vector causing the ff:

  1. Dengue, Yellow Fever
  2. St. Louis, Japanese Encephalitis, West Nile
A
  1. Aedes

2. Culex

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30
Q

When do you develop a higher chance for hemorrhagic fever in Dengue infections?

A

With repeated infections

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31
Q

Types of Polio and their manifestations

A
  1. Abortive - Mildest (most common form), nausea, vomiting, headache, sore throat, fever
  2. Non-Paralytic - Aseptic Meningitis
  3. Paralytic- Flaccid Polio, damage to anterior horn
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32
Q

Transmission and Treatment of Polio

A

ORO-FECAL. WAG KANG KUMAIN NG TAE. JUSKO.

Treated with oral polio (attenuated, non-virulent) or subcutaneous vaccine (formalinkilied)

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33
Q

Coxackie virus responsible for:
A. Herpetiform
B. Foot-and-Mouth Disease

A

A. Coxackie A

B. Coxackie B

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34
Q

Virus responsible for “cold rashes”

A

ECHO virus (Enteric, Cytopathic, Human Orphan)

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35
Q
  1. Virus responsile for “comon colds”
  2. At what temp is #1 active?
  3. Will # 1 survive if you swallow it?

BONUS: It only infects these 2 species

A
  1. Rhinovirus
  2. 35C
  3. NO. HAHAHA. Gastric acid kills it.

BONUS: Humans and Chimpanzees. Surprise surprise. Hahaha.

36
Q

The most common cause of epidemic nonbacterial gastroenteritis in the world (as in, the explosive but self-limited dump you take that goes on for 2-3 days)

A

Caliciviridae AKA Norovirus

The virus is extremely stable in the environment and resists freezing temperatures, heat (up to 60°C), disinfection with chlorine, acidic conditions, vinegar, alcohol, antiseptic hand solutions, and high sugar concentrations. LIKE A TRUE CALICI (KHALEESI)

37
Q

Virus which is a major cause of infant death in underdeveloped countries and the most common cause of NON-BLOODY, NON-PUS-Y diarrhea in infants less than 3 years of age

A

ROTAvirus

38
Q

How do you identify Rotavirus?

A 
Rotavirus may be identifies by the following means:
• enxyme immuno assay (most common)
• latex agglutination
• electron microscopy
• culture
39
Q

Treatment for Rotavirus infection

A

Intravenous fluids
New oral rotavirus vaccine appears safe and effective in infants
There are currently 2 FDA-approved rotavirus vaccines to protect against rotavirus gastroenteritis (ie, RotaTeq and Rotarix). These vaccines are indicated in infants aged 6-32 weeks (RotaTeq) and those aged 6-24 weeks (Rotarix)

40
Q

Treatment for Coronaviridae

A

WALA. Whether SARS or MERS. They just have really comprehensive ways for diagnosing and isolating it. But for now, it’s all just supportive.

41
Q
  1. Morphology of Rabies virus

2. Histologic finding pathognomonic of Rabies

A
  1. Bullet-shaped

2. Negri Bodies

42
Q
  1. How many copies of single-stranded RNA are found in HIV?

2. What type of virus is HIV?

A
  1. 2 (diploid)

2. Retrovirus

43
Q

Progression of HIV infection

A

PHASE 0 – INFECTION: HIV acquired through sexual intercourse, blood, or perinatally
PHASE 1 - WINDOW PERIOD: rapid viral replication but HIV test is negative
PHASE 2 – SEROCONVERSION: peak of viral load, positive HIV test, mild flu-like illness, lasting 1-2 weeks
PHASE 3 - LATENT PERIOD: asymptomatic, CD4 goes down, lasts 1-15 years
PHASE 4 - EARLY SYMPTOMATIC: CD4 500 to 200, lasts 5 years, mild mucocutaneous, dermatologic and hematologic illnesses
PHASE 5 – AIDS: CD4 <200, lasts 2 years, AIDS-defining illnesses develop

44
Q

Treatment for HIV

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART): two nucleoside inhibitors (zidovudine and lamivudine) and protease inhibitor (indinavir)

45
Q

Definitive Diagnosis of HIV

A

Western Blot

46
Q

Presumptive Diagnosis of HIV

A

ICC-ELISA

47
Q

Determining Viral Load of HIV, and Detection of HIV DNA in infected cells

A

PCR. This is highly sensitive and specific.

48
Q

What does “Anti-HAV IgM” or “Anti-HAV IgG” mean?

A

Basta “Anti-(something) IgM/IgG”, it talks about whether you currently have (IgM) or had history but now, don’t currently have an active (IgG) infection

49
Q

Meaning of the ff:

  1. HBsAg
  2. Anti-HBc
  3. Anti-HBs
  4. IgM Anti-HBc
  5. HBeAg
  6. Anti-HBeAg
  7. Anti-HBsAg
A
  1. HBsAg - Presence or absence of disease
  2. Anti-HBc - History of previous infection (persists for life)
  3. Anti-HBs - Immunity/recovery from active infection. Appears when you’ve been vaccinated.
  4. IgM Anti-HBc - DO NOT be misled by the presence of the “Anti-HBc”. Notice the presence of “IgM” instead. That means there’s a NEW infection (<6 mos; “M” for “Mauuna” remember?)
  5. HBeAg - HIGH infectivity
  6. Anti-HBeAg - LOW infectivity
  7. Anti-HBsAg - Immunity provides protection from repeated infection
50
Q

Hepatitis type transmitted via oro-fecal route

A

Hep A and E

as in (T)AE
btw, high mortality yung Hep E in pregnant women.
51
Q

Sino yung paepal na Hepatitis type na active lang pag nakiki-ride on kay Hep B?

A

Hep D

52
Q

Hep types associated with:

  1. Acute
  2. Chronic
A
  1. Hep A
  2. Hep C
    Notice a pattern? :)
53
Q

Treatment for Hep C

A

Treatment: combination therapy with interferon and ribavirin

54
Q
  1. Gram positive bacteria implicated in SSIs, folliculitis, bullous impetigo, enteritis (AGE), osteomyelitis, Toxic Shock Syndrome
  2. Treatment
A

S. aureus

  1. Regular infection (non-MRSA) Oxacillin. for MRSA: Vancomycin. For Vanc-resistant: Linezolid
55
Q

Gram positive bacteria implicated in prosethic valve infections, and its treatment

A

S. epidermidis, remove valve and Vancomycin

56
Q

At dahil pa-important siya… (ang motto in life niya ay “FIGHT ME”)

2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually-active females daw. BONUS: Treatment ng UTI na ‘to.

A

S. saprophyticus (PHYT ME)

Cotrimoxazole, Fluoroquinolones

57
Q
  1. S. pyogenes toxin causing Scarlet Fever; Test for susceptibility
  2. S. pyogenes exotoxin implicated in necrotizing fascitis
A
  1. Erythrogenic Toxin; Dick test (hehehehe #mature)
  2. Exotoxin B (as in BULOK)

*Tandaan mo na ang PYO sounds like PYRO = everything na “umiinit” = Erysipelas, Scarlet Fever, Pharyngitis, Acute Rheumatic Fever, APSGN.

58
Q

Treatment for S. pyogenes

A

Penicillin

59
Q

Gram positive bacteria part of Team (group) Vagina. Apparently, grows in LIM Broth. ALSO THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF NEONATAL SEPSIS IN THE WORLD SO WAG MO SIYANG MAMALIITIN.

A

S. aglactiae

60
Q

S. aglactiae/Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is common among pregnant women and causes UTI or foul-smelling lochia. If pregnant women test positive for this, what is your prophylactic treatment?

A

IV penicillin or ampicillin 4 hours prior to delivery

61
Q

Group D streptococcus consists of which organisms? Where do they grow? What diseases are they associated with?

Treatment?

A

S. bovis, E. faecalis. Esculin agar. Instrumentation/indwelling foley cathether-related infections, marantic endocarditis in patients with colon CA (S. bovis)

Penicillin + Gentamicin
Vancomycin (for Penicillin-resistant)
Linezolid (for Vancomycin-resistant)

62
Q

Optochin and bile-resistant gram positive bacteria which is the common cause of indigenous heart valve vegetations and is transmitted through dental procedures

Treatment?

A

S. viridans

Treatment is the same as Group D streptococcus

63
Q

Culture appearance of B. anthracis.

Treatment?

A

Medusa’s Head

Ciprofloxacin or Doxycycline with any of the ff:
Penicillin, Imipinem, Vancomycin, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin

64
Q

Gram (+) bacilli involved in Chinese fried rice syndrome. Also causes loss of light perception within 48 hours of being inoculated in the eye by penetration of a foreign object in contact with soil

A

B. cereus

65
Q

Mechanism of action of C. botulinum, and what syndrome in infants is it associated with?

A

Inhibition of release of Ach from peripheral nerves; Floppy Baby Syndrome

66
Q

Toxin associated with C. tetani, and its mechanism of action?

A

Tetanospasmin, inhibiting GABA and glutamate (relaxants), causing sustained muscle contraction

67
Q

Treatment for tetanus (vaccines and drug of choice)

A

Tetanus Toxoid
Antitoxin
Penicillin

68
Q

Appearance of C. tetani in microscope

A

Gram positive rods with endospore at one end (“drumstick”)

69
Q

Toxin associated with C. perfringens

A

Alpha toxin lecithinase (splits lecithin into phosphocholine and diglyceride)

70
Q

C. perfringens produces gas. What is special about its treatment that is also related to gas?

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

71
Q

Gram positive bacilli whose toxins have similar properties to tetracyclines

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

72
Q

Toxins in Corynebacterium diphtheriae and their MOA?

A

Exotoxin produced at the biofilm.
Subunit A: inactivates EF 2 and inhibits protein synthesis
Subunit B: provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue

73
Q

Manifestations of diphtheria

A
  • mild sore throat with fever initially
  • pseudomembrane forms on pharynx
  • myocarditis causing A-V condution block and dysrhythmia
  • neural involvement: perpheral nerve palsies, GBS, palatal paralysis, and neuropathies
74
Q

Drugs of choice for Diphtheria

A

Penicillin and Erythromycin. DPT vaccine (formalin-inactivated)

75
Q
  1. Appearance of Corynebacterium in gram stain

2. Where do we culture C. diphtheriae?

A
  1. Chinese letters
  2. Culture:
    Potassium tellurite: dark black colonies

Loeffler’s medium: after 12 hours of growth, stain with methylene blue. Reddish (Babes-Ernst) granules can be seen”

76
Q

Test done to see if person is susceptible to diphtheria infection

A

Schick Test

77
Q

Virulence Factors of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Hemolysin: (like streptolysin O)

Listeriolysin O: allows escape from the phagolysosomes of macrophages; major virulence factor

Internalin: Interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of cells

Actin rockets: propel the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell to another

78
Q

The only gram positive bacteria that produces LPS

A

L. monocytogenes

79
Q

Treatment for Listeria

A

Ampicillin +/- Gentamycin
If allergic to Penicillin, use Cotrimoxazole.

Cephalosporins have no effect on Listeria, MRSA, or Enterococci

80
Q

Treatment of choice for Septic Meningococcal Meningitis?

A

Penicillin

Ceftriaxone/Cefotaxime

81
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis in sexually active males and females?

A

Gonococcal arthritis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome)

82
Q

Drugs of choice for treating N. gonorrhea, incubating chlamydia, and syphilis

A

Ceftriaxone (may add Doxycycline)

Second line (but not effective against Syphilis):
Fluoroquinolone
Spectinomycin

83
Q

M. catarrhalis treatment

A

Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Co-Amoxiclav, 2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporin, Cotrimoxazole

84
Q

How many factors does H. influenza need to grow and what are these factors?

A

Factor V: NAD+

Factor X: Hematin

85
Q

Gram negative bacilli causing Chancroid lesions

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

Chancroid: painful genital ulcer, often associated with unilateral swollen lymph nodes that can rupture, releasing pus

86
Q

Treatment for H. ducreyi

A

Ciprofloxacin
Azith/Eryth
Ceftriaxone

87
Q

Most specific finding on histo for the cause of Bacterial Vaginosis

A

Clue Cells, Gardnerella vaginalis

This is treated with Metronidazole

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