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Y2 MCD - PP SAQs > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Define an outbreak (2)

A

greater-than-normal or greater-than-expected number of individuals infected or diagnosed with a particular infection in a given period of time, or a particular place, or both.

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2
Q

Give 3 reasons/aims for investigating an outbreak. (3)

A
  • Identify source of outbreak
  • develop strategies to prevent future outbreaks
  • evaluate existing prevention strategies
  • describe new diseases + learn more about known diseases
  • address public concern
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3
Q

What are the 5 steps for investigating an outbreak. (5)

A
  • Preliminary Investigation
  • Case definition and identification
  • Descriptive study
  • Analytic study
  • Control-
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4
Q

Some patient has a chest infection. List 3 ways to collect a sample from them. (3 mark)

A
  • Broncho-Alveolar Lavage (BAL)
  • Nasopharyngeal Aspirate (NPA)
  • Throat Swab
  • ET secretions
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5
Q

List four bacteria that can be cultured from a chest infection (4)

A
  • myco. tuberculosis
  • streptococcus pneumoniae
  • haemophilus influenzae
  • Legionella pneumophila
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6
Q

Explain why looking at sputum and doing a tissue stain is useful (3 marks)

A

Sputum would have pathogen trapped in it

Determines if gram negative or positive: so identifies appropriate treatment

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7
Q

What causes hospital acquired infections?

A
  • High density of sick patients - easy to spread
  • Health care health care professionals going between patients
  • Invasive procedures and catheterisation ect
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8
Q

Name 3 hospital acquired microbes

A
  • Enterobacter faecium
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Acinetobacter baumannii
  • Psudomonas aeruginosa
  • Enterobacter and E.coli
  • (ESCAPE)
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9
Q

Name 4 community pathogens that might enter the hospital

A
  • s.aureus
  • c. difficile
  • baumanii
  • p. aeruginosa
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10
Q

What is meant by nosocomial infection and when can it be diagnosed? (2)

A

An infection acquired in hospital after 48hrs

• diagnosed 48hrs after admission

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11
Q

Name 4 important bacterial causes of nosocomial infection and state whether they are gram positive or negative. (4+4)

A
  • Enterococcus faecium (+)
  • Staphyloccocus aeureus (+)
  • C. Difficile (+)
  • Acinetobacter baumannii (-)
  • Pseudamonas aeruginosa (-)
  • E. coli (-)
  • (ESCAPE)
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12
Q

Name 2 examples each of Flagellae and Coccidiae and the diseases they cause in this table (8 marks)

A

Coccidiae:
• plasmodium (causes malaria)
• toxoplasma gondii (causes toxoplasmosis)
• crypotosporidium (diarrhoea)

Flagellae:
• Giardia lamblia (giardiasis)
• Tryponosoma (trypanosomiasis via Tsetse fly)
• Trichomonas (vaginal discharge, vaginitis)
• Leishmania (Leishmaniasis via sand fly)

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13
Q

State 2 helminth infections (2 marks)

A
  • Hookworm
  • Filariasis (Filaria)
  • Ascariasis
  • Strongyloidiasis
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14
Q

Give an example of a gram positive infection, say what antibiotic it is resistant to and say how the antibiotic works

A

Staphylococcus Aureus - Methicillin - inhibits transpeptidase which is needed for bacterial cell wall synthesis
NOTE : think MRSA - methicillin resistant s aureus
E. faecium - Vancomycin - inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by binding to peptidoglycan precursor

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15
Q

Give 3 examples of bacterial pathogens that can be vaccinated for

A 
Hemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
clostridium tetani
corynebacterium diphtheriaea
Salmonella typhi
Bacillus anthracis
Bordetella pertussis
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16
Q

Give 2 examples of bacteria causing respiratory tract infections

A

Strep. pneumoniae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella pneumophila

17
Q

Give three characteristics of the bacterium causing the 2011 E. coli outbreak

A 
Enteroaggregative
Produces shiga toxin
Had 2 plasmids, so horizontal gene transfer was possible?
AAF is its virulence factor
8 day incubation period
18
Q

List three symptoms of haemolytic uremic syndrome

A

Acute renal failure
Haemolytic anemia
Thrombocytopenia

19
Q

4 types of protozoa and examples of each (4)

A

Amobae - Entamoeba histolytica
Coccidia - plasmodium
Ciliate - balantidium coli
Flagellate - Giardia lamblia, leishmania

20
Q

What is the difference between protozoa and metazoan? (1)

A

protozoa = single celled, metazoa = multicellular

21
Q

What are the two types of leishmaniasis and give features of each (4)

A

Visceral - affects internal organs e.g. hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, often fatal if untreated, treat with sodium stibogluconate.
Cutaneous - skin lesions, further subdivided into 3 types but basically less serious, may cause scarring or destroyed mouth & nose in severe cases

22
Q

What cell type do leishmania reside in? (1)

A

Macrophage

23
Q

What are endotoxins and exotoxins?

A

Exotoxins - toxins produced by bacteria and released extracellularly.
Endotoxins - lipid A of lipopolysaccharide from Gram – bacteria

24
Q

What are Pyrogenic toxins?

A

Exotoxins that stimulate the release of inflammatory cytokines - cause fever

25
Q

2 virulence factors other than toxins that are used by bacteria

A

Secretion systems, flagellae, pili, endospores, Biofilms, capsule

26
Q

What are genetic drift and genetic shift?

A

Genetic drift - Continued rapid evolution driven by antigenic pressure from host
Genetic shift - Introduction of new subtypes from animal source

27
Q

How do viruses evade interferon detection?

A

Evasion:
Virus not processed at proteasome - EBV
Block TAP peptide - HSV
Prevent TAP peptide from translocating - CMV
Prevent loading into MHC - CMV
polyubiquitinylation and internalization of MHC - KSHV
Viruses encode MHC analogues or upregulate MHC production – CMV

28
Q

Give two examples of cytoplasmic sensors for viruses

A

cGAS senses viral DNA in cell - binds to DNA - forms cGAMP - binds to STING on endoplasmic reticulum -> transcription factor phosphorylation and movement to nucleus e.g. IRF 3 -> interferon transcription
RIG also intracellular detector - results in transcription factor phosphorylation and movement to nucleus

29
Q

Name two bacterial pathogens that use pyrotoxins. [2]

A

streptococcus pyogenes staphyloccoccus aureus

30
Q

Name the general term for the type of toxin that binds directly to both MHCII and T cell receptors

A

superantigens

31
Q

Name two virulence factors and for each one, name a bacterial pathogen that uses them

A 
neurotoxins - botulinum 
enterotoxins -  vibro cholerae
Pili 
Secretion systems 3 (samonella) and 4 (legionaires)
capsule
32
Q

Example of Coccidiae that is important to humans, what condition does it cause and give two clinical features (4 marks)

A
  • plasmodium  malaria  clinical features: headaches, muscle pain
  • toxicoplasma gondii  toxoplasmosis  clinical features: CNS disease, pneumonitis
33
Q

What are the two types of leishmaniasis and give features of each (4 marks)

A

Visceral  weight loss, liver swelling, anaemia, splenomegaly
- Cutaneous  skin lesions, scaring

34
Q

What is the parasite vector for leishmaniasis and describe how? (2 marks)

A
  • sandfly

- sandfly ingests leishmania  inoculates human  infects human when it bites it

Y2 MCD - PP SAQs (5 decks)

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