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Pathology > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram-negative intracellular diplococci

A

Neisseria

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2
Q

Most common organism causing septic arthritis in young adults

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus)

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3
Q

Common organism causing meningitis in young adults

A
  1. Neisseria meningitides
  2. Strep pneumoniae
  3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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4
Q

Most common organism causing meningitis in those <1yo

A

E coli

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5
Q

Gram negative rod

A

E coli, pseudomonas

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6
Q

Gram positive diplococci

A

Strep pneumoniae

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7
Q

Causing meningitis. Can’t culture organism, cold agglutinins positive

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

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8
Q

How to manage mycoplasma meningitis?

A

Amoxicillin + clarithromycin

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9
Q

What antibiotic for staph aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

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10
Q

What is a common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin in a young adult.

A

Strep viridans

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11
Q

What type of bacteria is strep viridans

A

Gram positive cocci

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12
Q

Which organism causes leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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13
Q

Is mycobacterium avid slow or rapid growing?

A

Slow

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14
Q

What are the 2 types of leprosy?

A

Paucibacillary (tuberculoid) and multibacillary (lepromatous)

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15
Q

How many species make up the MTB complex, and name the 3 which are the most disease causing.

A

7
M tuberculosis
M bovis
M africanum

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16
Q

What type of vaccine is BCG and which organism does it contain?

A

Live attenuated

Mycobacterium bovis

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17
Q

What are the X-ray findings of someone with pulmonary TB?

A

Cavitating lesion, ghon focus/complex, adenopathy, pleural effusion

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18
Q

What is the drug regimen for treating TB?

A

4 months: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

2 months: rifampicin, isoniazid

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19
Q

What are the side effects of rifampicin?

A

Raised transaminases, cyp450 inducer, orange secretions

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20
Q

What are the side effects of isoniazid and how is it prevented?

A

Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity

Pyridoxine (vit B6) 10mg OD

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21
Q

What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?

A

Hepatotoxicity, gout

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22
Q

What are the side effects of ethambutol?

A

visual disturbance (optic neuritis)

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23
Q

Name members of the herpesvirus family.

A

HSV, VZV, HHV, CMV, EBV

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24
Q

Where is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 latency established?

A

Dorsal root ganglion

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25
Q

How to manage primary HSV infection in pregnancy?

A

Aciclovir

C-section if infected within last 6 weeks of pregnancy

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26
Q

What is the route of transmission for VZV?

A

Respiratory

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27
Q

What is the best marker of immunity to VZV?

A

History - previous infection. Not serology (detection of IgG)

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28
Q

What is the foetus at risk of if the pregnant mother contracts VZV in early pregnancy?

A

Congenital varicella syndrome

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29
Q

Name 2 important pregnancy associated viruses causing congenital disease, starting with the most common

A

CMV, HSV

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30
Q

What dangerous consequence may arise to the baby if the mother contracts varicella during the 3rd trimester?

A

Purpura fulminans (disseminated, haemorrhage neonatal VZV)

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31
Q

How to prevent and treat VZV in pregnancy?

A

Vaccinate (before or post party)
Aciclovir
VZV Ig (to exposed mothers, or infants <7 days old if mother is Ig negative)

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32
Q

What time of vaccine is VZV?

A

Live attenuated

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33
Q

Route of transmission of CMV?

A

Bodily fluids

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34
Q

Consequences of congenital CMV infection?

A

Mostly asymptomatic at birth. Risk of hearing defects and impaired intellectual performance later on.

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35
Q

Which time in pregnancy does rubella cause congenital problems?

A

First trimester

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36
Q

Measles: genome type and family of virus it belongs to

A

RNA, paramyxovirus

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37
Q

Name 2 viruses which cause miscarriage.

A

Rubella, measles

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38
Q

What is a characteristic feature of measles infection?

A

Koplik spots, rash that starts behind ears

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39
Q

What is a characteristic feature of parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Slapped cheek (erythema infectiosum)

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40
Q

Which maternal infection is associated with hydrops fetalis?

A

Parvovirus B19

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41
Q

Which group of viruses cause hand foot and mouth disease?

A

Enterovirus

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42
Q

Name 3 human enteroviruses

A

Coxackie A and B, polio, echovirus

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43
Q

What is the name of the oral polio vaccine, and what type of vaccine is it?

A

Sabin - live attenuated

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44
Q

What is the name of the injectable polio vaccine, and what type of vaccine is it?

A

Salk - inactivated

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45
Q

Which organism causes pneumocystis pneumonia and what are the 1st and 2nd line antibiotics used against it?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

  1. Co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim with sulphamethoxazole)
  2. Clindamycin + primaquine
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46
Q

What is used to treat candida?

A

Fluconazole

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47
Q

Which pathogen is the Grocott stain used to detect?

A

Actinomyces

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48
Q

Branching, gram positive rods

A

Actinomyces

49
Q

Which organism is associated with groundglass shadowing in the lung?

A

• Pneumocystis pneumonia

50
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line management for c diff in non-severe cases?

A
  1. metronidazole 400mg PO TDS 10-14 days

2. vancomycin 125mg PO QDS 10-14 days

51
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line management for c diff in severe cases?

A

Vancomycin 125mg PO QDS 14 days, and consider adding metronidazole 500mg IV TDS

52
Q

What treatment to consider if a c diff patient has ileus/is vomiting?

A

Intracolonic vancomycin, liane with surgeons

53
Q

What is a top differential causative organism when a patient has a high WCC but low CRP?

A

C diff

54
Q

Which viral serology is monitored post transplant?

A

EBV, CMV

55
Q

Which of the herpes viruses reactivate early and late in transplant recipients?

A

In order from early to late:

HSV HHV6 HHV7 CMV EBV VZV

56
Q

Which herpes viruses cause cold sores, and genital disease?

A

HSV1

HSV1 and 2

57
Q

Treatment of herpes simplex infection

A

o Aciclovir or valaciclovir

o Foscarnet

58
Q

Which opportunistic virus can cause acute retinal necrosis (ARN and progressive outer retinal necrosis (PORN)?

A

Varicella zoster

59
Q

How to prevent varicella zoster reactivation in immunosuppressed individuals?

A

acyclovir prophylaxis

post-exposure VZIg

60
Q

What is the pathognomonic blood film feature of CMV infection?

A

Owl’s eye nuclear inclusion bodies

61
Q

Which CMV serostatus of donor and recipient carries the greatest risk of reactivation in solid organ transplants?

A

Donor +ve, recipient -ve

62
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir

63
Q

How to manage post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease caused by EBV?

A

Reduce immunosuppression

Rituximab (anti-CD20)

64
Q

Name 3 complications that can arise from HHV8 infection.

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma
Primary effusion lymphoma
Multicentric Castleman disease

65
Q

What is the main complication of JC virus infection and the pathophysiology of it?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
JC virus reactivates and infects oligodendroglia
Demyelination of white matter

66
Q

When else’s progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy commonly seen?

A

Patients on natalizumab

67
Q

What are the important complications of BK virus infection?

A

Haemorrhagic cystitis

Nephropathy

68
Q

Which viral infection is particularly important in paediatric bone marrow transplantation?

A

Adenovirus

69
Q

What medication is used to treat adenovirus and BK virus?

A

cidofovir

70
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for influenza A/B?

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

71
Q

What is used to treat parvovirus B19?

A

Human normal Ig

72
Q

Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV sAg +
HBV core Ab +
HBV s Ab -

A

Current infection

73
Q

Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV s Ag -
HBV core Ab +
HBV s Ab +

A

Past infection

74
Q

Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV sAg -
HBV core Ab -
HBV s Ab +

A

Vaccination

75
Q

Rose spots and fever. What is the causative organism?

A

Salmonella typhi (typhoid/enteric fever)

76
Q

Which parasite causes perianal scratching and night waking in young children?

A

Enterobius vermicularis (threadworm)

77
Q

Which parasite is responsible for hydratid disease?

A

Echinococus granulosus

78
Q

What is the likely parasite causing large worms to be passed in the stool?

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

79
Q

Where do hookworms normally invade through in humans?

A

Feet

80
Q

What is the likely parasite causing an itchy foot from someone who just returned from holiday?

A

Cutaneous larva migrant

81
Q

What is the rash seen in strongyloides stercoralis infection?

A

Larva currens

82
Q

What is the potentially fatal syndrome that strongyloides stercoralis can cause in immunosuppressed individuals?

A

Hyperinfestation syndrome

83
Q

What condition can schistosomiasis cause due to migration via the lungs?

A

Katamaya fever

84
Q

Which species of schistosomiasis can cause haematuria and is a risk factor for SCC of the bladder?

A

S. haematobium

85
Q

What are the 2 presentations of leishmaniasis?

A

Cutaneous, or visceral (kala azar)

86
Q

What are the 2 forms of trypanosomiasis?

A

East africa - aggressive, acute

West africa - sleeping sickness

87
Q

Which parasite is likely to cause someone to see a worm crossing their eye?

A

Loa loa

88
Q

What is the most common cause of fever in the returning traveller?

A

Malaria

89
Q

Which species of malaria is most fatal?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

90
Q

How to treat uncomplicated malaria in normal individuals and in pregnancy?

A

Quinine + doxycycline (replace with clindamycin if pregnant)

91
Q

management for severe falciparum infection

A

IV artesunate or IV quinine

92
Q

Management for non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine

93
Q

What additional drug used to eradicate hypnozoites for p vivax and p ovale infections?

A

Primaquine

94
Q

What needs to be checked in a patient before administering primaquine for p vivax/ovale eradication?

A

G6PD level

95
Q

What are the complications of dengue?

A

Dengue haemorrhage fever, and dengue shock syndrome

96
Q

What is the type of pathogen and veto involved in rickettsial disease?

A

Intracellular bacteria, arthropod vector (ticks, lice, mites)

97
Q

What is the most common cause of adult-onset epilepsy globally?

A

Taenia solium cysticercosis (neurocysticercosis)

98
Q

Why is taenia sodium cysticercosis infection usually asymptomatic?

A

Living cysts asymptomatic - symptoms mark cyst degeneration causing eosinophilic influx and inflammation

99
Q

What can be used to prevent airborne TB?

A

Masks, UV lights

100
Q

Which antibiotic is used for meningitis in neonates and in adults?

A

Neonates: cefotaxime
Adults: benzylpenicillin or ceftriaxone

+ amoxicillin to cover for listeria

101
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd line antibiotic used to treat c diff colitis?

A

Metronidazole

Vancomycin

102
Q

What are the main infections screened for antenatally?

A

Rubella, syphilis, HIV, hep B, +/- Hep C

103
Q

Which are the 3 most common causative organisms of neonatal infections?

A

Group B strep
E coli
+/- Listeria

104
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for group B strep and e coli neonatal infection?

A

GBS: benzylpenicillin

E coli: gentamicin

105
Q

What secondary bacterial infection is a child with chicken pox at risk of?

A

Invasive group a strep

106
Q

What are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis?

A

N meningitides
S pneumoniae
H influenzae

107
Q

What are the most common causes of respiratory tract infections in children?

A

S pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumonia
(Whooping cough - bordetella pertussis)
(TB)

108
Q

Which is the most common causative organism of prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Coagulase negative streptococci

109
Q

What are the antibiotic treatments for infective endocarditis caused by:

  1. Strep viridans
  2. Enterococci
  3. Staph aureus
  4. MRSA
A

Strep viridans: benzylpenicilin + gentamicin
Enterococci: ampicillin + gentamicin
Staph aureus: flucloxacillin 4-6 weeks
MRSA: Vancomycin + gentamicin/rifampicin/fucidin

110
Q

Which antibody is indicative of a current and previous hep A infection?

A

Current: IgM
Previous: IgG

111
Q

What is used as a screening test for hepatitis B infection?

A

Hep B surface antigen

112
Q

Hepatitis B serological tests:

  1. Indicates infection (whether acute or chronic)
  2. Indicates past infection or vaccination
  3. Appears during acute infection and persists for life
  4. Indicates recent infection <6 months
A
  1. HBsAg, HBeAg
  2. Anti HBs
  3. Anti HBc
  4. IgM Anti HBc
113
Q

What is used to monitor hepatitis C infection?

A

HCV RNA

114
Q

What is the presentation of brucellosis, and what kind of bacteria is it?

A

Non specific onset
Complications of osteomyelitis (occasionally meningoencephalitis)
Gram-negative facultative intracellular bacteria

115
Q

What is the characteristic early and late dermatological lesion seen in lyme disease and the causative organism?

A

Borrelia
Erythema chronica migrans
Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophocans

116
Q

Prion protein:

  1. What chromosome is the gene located on?
  2. What polymorphism on which codon is associated with prion disease?
  3. What are the characteristics of the transformed protein PrPSc?
A
  1. 20
  2. 129, MM
  3. beta pleated, protease/radiation resistant
117
Q

What are the clinical features of sporadic CJD?

A 
Rapid dementia
Myoclonus
Cortical blindness
Akinetic mutism
LMN signs
118
Q

What are the characteristic investigation findings for sporadic CJD?

A

Periodic triphasic complexes on EEG
Biopsy: PrP amyloid plaques, spongiform vacuolation
MRI: increased signal in basal ganglia, cortical/striatal signal change on DWI MRI
CSF: 14-3-3, S100
Neurogenetics

119
Q

What are some important differences between variant and sporadic CJD?

A 
Variant:
Younger age of onset
Psych symptoms, then neuro
Pulvinar sign on MRI
EEG and CSF not diagnostic
Almost all 100% MM polymorphism
Tonsil biopsy useful
PrPSc type 4t

Pathology (5 decks)

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