Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Transition block > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

“Normal” vaginal flora (4)

A

Lactobacillus
+/- strep viridans
+/- group B strep
+/- candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diagnostic features of bacterial vaginosis (3)

A 
Thin, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge
Raised vaginal pH
Clue cells (epithelial cells covered with bacilli)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Hay-Ison scoring?

A

Estimate of the proportions of clue cells to epithelial and lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cause of acute bacterial prostatitis (2)

A

Complication of UTI (E.coli usually)

STI in patients younger than 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Difference in cell wall between Gram negative and Gram positive cells

A

Gram positive cells retain the purple dye because they have more peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Empirical treatment of

a) chlamydia
b) gononorrhoea

A

a) azithromycin 1g stat

b) azithromycin 1g stat + ceftriazome IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Samples for diagnosis of chlamydia and gonorrhoea (4)

A

Male- first-pass urine
Female- Vulvo-vaginal swab
Rectal swabs
Throat swabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Testing for syphilis (2)

A

PCR swab of lesions

Serology for specific and non-specific antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-specific test that can be used for monitoring response to syphilis therapy

A

VDRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Screening test for syphilis in Tayside

A

Combined IgM and IgG ELISA on clotted blood sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cause of genital warts

A

HPV, mainly serotypes 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of pubic lice

A

Malathion lotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Manifestations of chlamydyial transmission to neonate (2)

A

Conjunctivitis

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Microsocopic appearance of gonorrheoa

A

Gram negative diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs of secondary syphilis (4)

A

Skin rashes (particularly palms + soles)
Mucous membrane lesions
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pseudomonas sp. are…

A

strict aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clostridium sp. are…

A

strict anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal flora of the bowel

A

Small gut- small numbers of coliforms and anaerobes

Colon- large numbers of coliforms, anaerobes and enterococcus faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antibiotic treatment of intra-abdominal sepsis (and the targets of the drugs)

A

Gentamicin (coliforms)
Metronidazole (anaerobes)
Enterococcus (amoxicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Potential causes of peritonitis (4)

A 
Perforated:
tumour
appendix
diverticulum
duodenal ulcer
21
Q

Why do large abscesses need drainage?

A

Because they lack blood supply, therefore antibiotics can’t penetrate

22
Q

What is sepsis?

A

The systemic inflammatory response to infection; SIRS with a presumed or confirmed infectious process

23
Q

What is SIRS? (5)

A

Non-specific clinical response including 2 or more of:
temperature greater than 38/less than 36
Heart rate greater than 90bpm
RR greater than 20/min
WBC more than 12K/mm3, less than 4K/mm3 or more than 10% immature neutrophils

24
Q

What is severe sepsis?

A

Sepsis with signs of at least one acute organ dysfunction due to hypoperfusion

25
Q

Sepsis 6 bundle (6)

A 
100% oxygen (unless COPD)
IV Fluid bolus
Blood cultures (+ other sites if clinically indicated)
IV antibiotics
Lactate +  bloods
Monitor urine output
26
Q

Acute CNS infections (2)

A

Encephalitis

Meningitis (viral and bacterial)

27
Q

Common causes of viral encephalitis (2)

A

Herpes simplex

Varicella zoster

28
Q

Treatment of viral encephalitis

A

High dose aciclovir

29
Q

Causes of bacterial meningitis (4)

A

Neisseria meningitides
Strep pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae
Listeria

30
Q

Agents of bacterial meningitis in immunocompromised patients

A

Conventional agents e.g. pneumococcal, meningococcal
Listeria
Tuberculosis

31
Q

Agent of meningitis in AIDS patients

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

32
Q

Commonest cause of meningitis in children under age of 4

A

Haemophilus influenzae B

33
Q

Management of listeria meningitis

A

Amoxicillin

34
Q

Management of tuberculous meningitis (2)

A

Isoniazid + rifampicin

35
Q

Major clinical signs of bacterial meningitis (3)

A 
Fever
Headache
Stiff neck
Mental state change
(95% have 2/4)
36
Q

Microbiological samples in meningitis (4)

A

Blood culturres
Throat swab
Blood EDTA for PCR
CSF

37
Q

Pre-hospital antibiotics for meningitis

A

Benzylpenicillin 1.2mg

38
Q

Hospital antibiotic management of meningitis

A

Ceftriaxome IV 2g bd

+ amoxicillin if older than 55

39
Q

Role of steroids in management of meningitis

A

Give with first dose of antibiotics; reduces mortality esp. in pneumococcal

40
Q

How long can gentamicin be given for?

A

Three days (three doses)

41
Q

Why is coliform growth in a blood culture bottle always significant?

A

Coliforms are very rarely a contaminant

42
Q

Abstinent period following chlamydia treatment

A

At least a week until treatment is completed

43
Q

Aztreonam is…

A

Narrow-spectrum antibiotic against coliforms, similar to gentamicin but less nephrotoxic

44
Q

When should leg ulcers be treated?

A

Evidence of infection (i.e. red, hot, swollen, skin, pus)

45
Q

For GI and GU infections which antibiotic should be stepped down to following IV therapy?

A

Co-trimoxazole

46
Q

Which antibiotic should not be used for complicated UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin

47
Q

Risk of ciprofloxacin

A

C. diff

48
Q

Alternative to penicillin for pre-hospital antibiotics

A

Chloramphenicol

Transition block (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions