Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ESUN MS2Unit6 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the transformation route for shigella?

A

Fecal-oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What Vitamin and element deficiency predict the pt to have a worse prognosis when infected with shigella?

A

Vitamin A and zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 complications of shigella?

A

Reactive arthritis and HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Does shigella has siderophores?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is passed through the type III secretion system from shigella?

A

Protein (shiga toxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does IpaB (virulence factor) of shigella do?

A

Induce macrophage apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pt with HUS would present with increase or decrease lactate dehydrogenase?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibiotic treatment for Shigella or E. Coli would increase the risk for HUS?

A

E. Coli (antibiotic treatment for Shigella would decrease the risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Should you give anti diarrhea drugs for enteric infection?

A

No, let it flush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which enterotoxin of ETEC is responsible for the watery diarrhea?

A

LT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diagnostic hallmark for noninfectious toxigenic gastroenteritis?

A

Happens very fast (a couple of hours after ingestion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can Salmonella cause reactive arthritis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Salmonella’s infectious process (similar to Shigella) and what is its virulence factors?

A

Invade through M cell of Peyer’s patches—>survive in macrophages and induce apoptosis of macrophage—>reentry of inner side of epithelial cells/fimbriae and type 3 secretion system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What virulence factor does Salmonella typhi use to evade immune system?

A

Vi antigen (capsule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the infection route for Salmonella typhi and paratyphi?

A

Fecal oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which allele is protective against typhoid fever/cholera/TB?

A

CFTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the ideal location to identify typhoid fever?

A

Bone marrow aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How to treat Salmonella enterica infection?

A

Self limited and rehydrate

Use antibiotic only for very young or old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica and pseudoTB urease + or -? and do they have high or low infectious dose?

A

Urease +/high infectious dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the underlying cause of fake appendicitis from yersinia infection?

A

Mesenteric LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What complication does Yersinia enterocolitica predispose the pt to?

A

Reactive arthritis?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Izumi fever is caused by?

A

Yersinia pseudoTB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the treatment for Yersinia enterocolitica infection?

A

Replace fluid and electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What virulence factor does Listeria use to escape endosome?

A

Listerolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where dose Listeria proliferate in a pregnant woman?

A

Placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CNS infection of listeria can be identified using a ___ test?

A

Wet mount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which antibiotic does Listeria resistant to and is Listeria a reportable disease?

A

Cephalosporin/yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 2 hosts of cholera?

A

Human and the plankton in Indian Ocean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pts who are on ___ are more susceptible to cholera infection?

A

Anti acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does cholerae toxin work?

A

A-B subunit structure—>B binds to the wall and A goes in—>activation of adenylate cyclase (Gs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is it painful and is there blood and neutrophil in the stool from cholerae infection?

A

No pain, no blood nor neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the complication associated with cholerae?

A

Acidosis and hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does cholerae grow on?

A

Bile salts (halophile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment for cholerae?

A

Rehydrate and correct electrolyte imbalance (Ringer solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the antibiotic’s affect on cholerae?

A

Shorten disease course/reduce shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is there a vaccine for cholerae?

A

Yes—>killed vaccine—>50% effective for 3-6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Do you see blood/leukocytes/bacteria in stool for V. parahaemolyticus?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Treatment for V. parahaemolyticus?

A

Self limited

Use antibiotics for complication or high fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does V. vulnificus cause? what toxins does it produce?

A

Cellulitis from working with shellfish

Hemolysin like the other two vibrio/protease exotoxin/siderophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is V. vulnificus fatal?

A

Immunocompromised pt eating shellfish—>septicemia—>progress rapidly
Can also progress to necrotizing fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is Campylobacter catalase + or -? and is it motile or immotile?

A

Catalase +/motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the disease process for campylobacter?

A

Start with watery foul smelling diarrhea—>bloody stools with fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What appearance might you see on campylobacter culture?

A

“seagull”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treatment for campylobacter?

A

Self limited

Antibiotics if the child is getting worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does urea breath test work?

A

Pt swallow radiolabeled urea—>if infected–>exhale radiolabeled CO2

46
Q

Virus that has segmented genome has what ability that could enhance genetic diversity?

A

Reassortment

47
Q

What part of the GI tract does rotavirus and norovirus infect?

A

Small intestinal villi

48
Q

Which virus is more strongly associated with vomiting, rotavirus or norovirus?

A

Norovirus—>change in gastric motility and delayed gastric emptying

49
Q

Do rotavirus and norovirus cause fever?

A

Yes—>low fever

50
Q

Which virus is more likely cause dehydration, rotavirus or norovirus?

A

Rotavirus

51
Q

What is primary and secondary viremia, and which one does piconavirus have?

A

Primary—>small amount of virus go through GI and into blood—>look for a replication site
Secondary—>replication site release large amount of viruses into the blood for shedding
Piconavirus has both

52
Q

Which virus can enter the CNS during primary viremia?

A

Poliovirus

53
Q

What other reservoir does poliovirus has besides human?

A

NOTHING

54
Q

Why don’t we use Sabin vaccine anymore?

A

Cuz Sabin vaccine can give polio to other ppl

55
Q

What receptor does poliovirus bind and infect?

A

CD155 (found in gray matter of CNS cells)

56
Q

Can polio pt recover from movement dysfunction? and what happens down the road?

A

Yes—>dennervated neurons reestabolish connection with adjacent neurons—->these adjacent neurons eventually wear out in decades and polio symptoms come back

57
Q

Exams for polio?

A

LP
MRI of spinal cord
Isolation is needed

58
Q

What is herpangina and what causes it? and what is the treatment?

A

Small vesicular lesions in the back of the throat—>coxsackie A
Self limited

59
Q

What symptoms do coxsackie virus start with?

A

Mild gastroenteritis—>secondary viremia—>herpangina

60
Q

What family of virus is enterovirus 71 and what does it cause?

A

Picornavirus

Herpangina/polio like/meningitis

61
Q

Can the family member of the a kid with coxsackie A gets hand-foot-mouth disease as well?

A

Yes–>mild form

62
Q

What virus causes acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis? and how does it present? and what shouldn’t you give for that?

A

Coxsackie A
Rapid onset—>painful—>early teen years
NO topical steroids

63
Q

What 3 conditions do coxsackie A cause?

A

Herpangina/hand foot mouth disease/acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

64
Q

What population does coxsackie B virus target and what conditions does it cause?

A

Neonate and children

Myocarditis (dilated cardiomyopathy)/pleurodynia/aseptic meningitis

65
Q

Why do we admit pt with viral myocarditis?

A

Bedrest and observation

66
Q

What causes the pleurodynia? and how does it present?

A

Coxsackie B infect muscle around the lungs—>muscle necrosis and spasm
Sudden severe chest pain—>reoccur—>dull pain in between

67
Q

What would you find in physical exam with pleurodynia? and why do we need to keep tap on the kids once he/she is recovered?

A

Pleural friction rub

It is associated with immune-mediated sequale

68
Q

When does pleurodynia life threatening?

A

When the pt is a newborn

69
Q

Tx for aseptic meningitis?

A

Self limited

70
Q

Infants can develop into ___ from aseptic meningitis from enteroviruses and HSV

A

Shock

71
Q

What is Giardia’s reservoir?

A

Beaver!

72
Q

Symptoms of giardia?

A

Gas/weight lost

73
Q

Can symptoms of Giardia reappear?

A

Yes, hard to get rid of it

74
Q

What animals do crytosporidium come from? and can you kill it with chlorine?

A

Young animals like calf/No, water need to be filtered

75
Q

What animal is the definitive host of S. Saginata and S. Solium?

A

YOU

76
Q

Which parasite do you usually get neurocysticersosis, S Saginata or S. Solium ?

A

S. Solium

77
Q

For D. latum, do you ingest the cyst/egg or the worm itself?

A

Worm itself

78
Q

What is the most common parasite in the US?

A

Pinworm

79
Q

What is the whipworm? what does it cause?

A

Trichuris Trichiura/rectal prolapse

80
Q

What population of pt does strongyloidiasis affect?

A

Immunocompromised

81
Q

If you get Hep A once, can you get it again?

A

Nope

82
Q

Are Hep A/B/C/D directly hepatotoxic?

A

A/B/C are not—>it is immune mediated hepatoxicity

D is the exception

83
Q

Does Hep A usually progress into chronic state?

A

No

84
Q

What is the color of urine and stool with Hep A pt?

A

Dark urine/pale feces

85
Q

What to give for Hep A and E prophylaxis?

A

Immune serum globulin for A

No prophylaxis for E

86
Q

Hep E is prevalent in ___ country and what are its 2 phases?

A

China/Asia

Prodrome and then icteric

87
Q

Do pt with Hep E need to be put to bed rest?

A

No—>need light activity

88
Q

Which one has higher mortality, Hep A or E?

A

E

89
Q

What is the most efficient way of transmitting Hep B?

A

Injection of contaminated blood

90
Q

What are the 4 stages of Hep B?

A

Immune tolerance—>immunogenic symptoms (if not cleared—>cirrhosis)—>clearing the virus—>virus cleared

91
Q

Rate the severity of acute symptoms of HepA/B/C/E from most severe to mildest

A

A/E—>B—>C

92
Q

What is given with needle stick exposing one to Hep B?

A

Antibody prophylaxis (HBsAB) + vaccine booster

93
Q

Tx for chronic Hep B?

A

1 year of polymerase inhibitor (lamivudine) + 4 months of interferon alpha (bad bad side effects)

94
Q

The virus that enables the viriod (Hep D) to survive is called?

A

Helper virus

95
Q

Hep D encode ___ antigen?

A

delta

96
Q

What is superinfection with Hep D?

A

Hep D infect a liver that is already infected by Hep B

97
Q

How does Hep B immune evade?

A

Produce decoys

98
Q

What are the confirmatory tests for Hep C?

A

EIA followed by RIBA

99
Q

What is the current best tx options for chronic Hep C

A

2 combos of drugs that can induce SVR w/o IFN

100
Q

What is congenital infection? what is worse, acute/chronic/early/late?

A

Acquired during gestation

Acute and early are worse

101
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of congenital infection?

A

Sample the baby

CSF/saliva and etc.

102
Q

Manifestations of congenital syphilis?

A

Puffy placenta/sniffles/rash/LAD

103
Q

Some risk factors for congenital CMV?

A

First pregnancy/new sex partner during pregnancy/contact with little kids

104
Q

Can you also see eye problem with congenital CMV?

A

Yes

105
Q

How to diagnose congenital CMV?

A

PCR on urine or blood

106
Q

What drug is used for infant for HSV infection and how to avoid it?

A

Acyclovir/C section

107
Q

What is perinatal infection? how to avoid it?

A

Infection during or after birth

Don’t kiss the baby! and don’t put baby in the corner!

108
Q

How to minimize HIV perinatal transmission?

A

Zidovudine for both mom and baby

109
Q

Does Hep B cause congenital or perinatal infection?

A

Perinatal

110
Q

What are the difference of early and late onset disease with group B strep?

A

Early onset—>pneumonia

Late—->meningitis

ESUN MS2Unit6 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions