Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[EDITED] Pathology Buzzwords > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Grape-bunch clusters

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sensitive to optochin

A

Strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Resistant to optochin

A

Strep viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Virus causing clumsiness, weakness, vision changes in “recent transplant”

A

JC Virus (causing Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy)

Recent transplant = immunosuppresed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Virus in bone marrow transplant patient

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fever, malaise, raised ALT in person coming from India

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Illness in person who had “transfusion long time ago”

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mutation allowing Spanish Flu and H5N1 to enter humans and mess us up

A

PB2 Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blueberry muffin rash

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Slapped Cheek Syndrome

A

Parvovirus B19 (erythema infectiosum = Fifth Disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common valve affected in endocarditis in IV drug users

A

Tricuspid (valve connecting right atrium to right ventricle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ischaemic tongue

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Temporal artery biopsy

A

Giant Cell Arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rusty colour sputum

A

Strep pneumonia

Gram +ve diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pneumonia in COPD patients

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Gram -ve cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumonia after viral infection

A

Staph aureus

Gram +ve grape-bunch clusters (cocci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pneumonia after old AC system (“hotel room”)

A

Legionella - due to stagnant water

Gram -ve rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pneumonia with erythema multiforme

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pneumonia from farm animals

A

Coxiella burnetti (Q Fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pneumonia after bird exposure

A

Chlamydia psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pneumonia in alcoholic (causes haemoptysis)

A

Klebsiella

Gram -ve rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bugs after splenectomy

A

Encapsualted organisms = strep pneumonia, haemophilus, neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ground-glass shadowing and “bat’s wing” appearance on CXR

A 
Pneumocystis Jirovecii (PCP)
Desaturates during 6-min walk test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Form of malaria when mosquito injects into blood

A

Sporozite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Aedes mosquito causes what?

A

Dengue (flavivirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Blanching rash, which looks like “islands of white in sea of red” in recovery phase

A

Dengue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Rose spots

A

Typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Atypical lymphocytosis

A

Infectious Mononucleosis (EBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Target-shaped rash with central fading

A

Lyme Disease (borrelia burgdoferi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Food poisoning from chickens

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bug from cat scratches

A

Bartonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Bug from unpasteurised milk

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bug from dog bites

A

Lyssa virus (= rabies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sight of water causes convulsions and paralysis

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Nematode that pops out when have fever/anaesthetic

A

Ascaris (most common helminth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nematode causing protracted eosinophilia

A

Filariasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ghon Complex on CXR

A 
Latent TB
(Ghon Complex resolves to Ghon Focus = scarring and calcification)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sudden-onset flank pain, radiating to groin

A

Spinal TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stain used for Acid Fast Bacilli test

A

Auramine or Ziehl-Neelson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Agar used for TB culture

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TB drug causing optic neuritis

A

Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TB drug causing lucozade secretions

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

TB drug causing you to get pregnant on OCP

A

Rifampicin (increases hepatic metabolism of other drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

TB drug causing peripheral neuropathy

A

Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fungal infection of lung in AIDS patients

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Halo Sign on chest CT

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Air Crescent Sign on chest CT

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Antifungal causing nephrotoxic

A

Polyenes (like Amphotericin B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antifungal interacts with warfarin

A

Azole (interacts with human P450 enzymes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Meningitis bug found in eggs/cheese/mayo

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gas gangrene in infected wounds

A

Clostridium pefringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pneumonia after travelling from abroad (Mexico)

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bitten by another man. Wound becomes pus and foul-smelling

A

Anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

GI infection after eat reheated rice

A

Bacillus cereus

Gram +ve rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

GI infection after BBQ

A

Salmonella enteritidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rice-water stool

A

Vibrio cholera

Gram -ve comma shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

GI infection after Canned and vacuumed foods

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

GI infection if less than 1 year old eats honey

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

GI infection after eat refrigerated food (especially sandwiches)

A

Listeria

Beta-haemolytic anaerobic Gram +ve rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Traveller’s Diarrhoae

A

ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. Coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

GI infection after sushi (undercooked seafood)

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

GI infection with foul-smelling diarrhoae

A

Campylobacter

Gram -ve curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

GI infection causing cellulitis in shellfish handlers

A

Vibrio vulnificus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

GI infection causing Guillan-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter

Gram -ve curved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Protozoal GI infection causing flask-shaped ulcer

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Protozoal GI infection causing pear-shaped trophozites, foul-smelling stool and flatulence

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Protozoal GI infection from swimming pools

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Protozoal GI infection diagnosed using string test

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most common diarrhoea in infants

A

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Persistent bone pain, with chronic overlying infection (diabetic ulcers)

A

Osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pulvinar Sign on MRI

A

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

- seen in young only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cause of UTI in young women

A

Staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Organism causing staghorn calculi

A

Proteus mirabilis (causes recurrent UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clue cells on microscopy

A

Bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

STI with thin white vaginal discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

GUM disease caused by excessive douching

A

Bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Chocolate agar medium used to diagnose this STI

A

Chancroid = haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Whiff Test

A

Bacterial vaginosis (get fishy smell when add hydrogen peroxide to sample)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What causes Roseola Infantum?

A

HHV6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Long-term prophylactic treatment for post-splenectomy patients

A

Penicillin V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Returned from Mediterranean with undulant fever

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Ulcerating papule, with necrotic centre. Gram +ve rods, responds to penicillin

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Itchy, scaly rash on soles of feet – what fungi?

A

Trichophytum rubrum

86
Q

Neutrophilia with visible toxic granulation and vacuoles on the blood film

A

Acute fungal infection

87
Q

Gomori’s methenamine silver stain shows “flying saucer” cysts on microscopy

A

Pneumocystis Jirovecii

88
Q

Bug in refrigerated food and unpasteurised milk

A

Listeria monocytogenes

89
Q

Stomach bug causing anaemia and thrombocytopaenia

A

E. coli 0157 - causes HUS:

  1. Haemolytic anaemia
  2. Uraemia (AKI)
  3. Thrombocytopaenia
90
Q

Microscopic agglutination test positive

A

Leptospira interrogans

  • Zoonosis
  • Non-specific symptoms –> meningitis and liver failure
91
Q

Thayer-Martin VCN medium

A

Neisseria meningitides

92
Q

Painless ulcer on genitals which self-heal

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

93
Q

Cause of lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

94
Q

Important side effect of ganciclovir

A

Bone marrow toxicity (so can give G-CSF with it)

95
Q

Mechanism of action for aciclovir?

A

Converted to acyclo-GNP by viral thymidine kinase

  • -> phosphorylated to acyclo-GTP
  • ->acyclo-GTP incorporated into viral DNA strand, termination DNA chain, stopping DNA polymerase from working
96
Q

Fever and cough –> haemolytic anaemia, +ve for cold agglutinins

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

97
Q

Moderate leg pain – X-Ray: a well defined ovoid shape with a surrounding sclerotic margin but little involucrum in his tibia

A

Brodie’s abscess = subacute osteomyelitis, which can persist for years

98
Q

“Recently started working at farm”

A

Brucellosis

99
Q

Main cause of meningitis in:

  1. Neonates
  2. Kids
  3. Adolescents
A
  1. E coli and GBS
  2. Strep pneumoniae!
  3. Neisseria meningitidis
100
Q

Most common Hepatitis in IVDU

A

Hep B

101
Q

Hepatitis associated with old blood transfusions

A

Hep C

102
Q

UTI always associated with functional/anatomical abnormalities of the renal tract. Also causes cavitating pneumonia.

A

Klebsiella

103
Q

Causes haemorrhagic cystitis in children

A

Adenovirus

104
Q

Dyspnoea after exposed to “building work”

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

105
Q

Gram +ve cocci in chains, which grew on MacConkey plate and was aesculin-positive. Resistant to the conventional anti-streptococcal antibiotics.

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

106
Q

Seen in burns victims. Gram -ve bacilli that produced a green pigment and was oxidase-positive

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

107
Q

Hypopigmented spots in dark skin/hyperpigmented in light skin
–> microscopy with KOH shows “spaghetti with meatballs” appearance

A

Pityriasis versicolour = Malassezia

108
Q

Stain used for Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Gomori’s methenamine silver stain

109
Q

Malaria causing a fever every 4 days (quartan malaria)

A

Plasmodium malariae

110
Q

Malaria causing a fever every day (quotidian malaria)

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

-all other malarias cause fever every 3 days

111
Q

Malaria originating in SE Asia (not Africa)

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

112
Q

Form of malaria that is injected into blood

A

Sporozite

113
Q

Form of malaria that invades RBCs

A

Merozite

114
Q

Maurer’s Clefts seen in thin blood film

A

Plasmodium falciparum

115
Q

Schuffner’s Dots seen in thin blood film

A

Plasmodium vivax and ovale

116
Q

Diarrhoea, vomiting and smelly burps

A

Giardia Lamblia

117
Q

Stool shows cysts and “tear-drop” shaped trophozoites

A

Giardia Lamblia

118
Q

Neonate with recurrent seizures and intracranial calcification

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

119
Q

STI which is gram negative oxidase positive diplococci

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea

120
Q

STI which cannot be grown on agar, but can be grown on tissue medium

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

121
Q

Girl with diarrhoea – duodenal biopsy shows motile trophozites and partial villous atrophy

A

Giardia lamblia

Treatment: metronidazole

122
Q

Influenza binds to what on target cells?

A

Sialic acid

123
Q

The receptor binding and membrane fusion glycoprotein of influenza virus

A

Haemagluttinin

124
Q

What part of influenza allows it to leave the target cell?

A

Neuraminidase

125
Q

Bacteria which lack cell wall

A

Mycoplasma

126
Q

Route for C. diff meds

A

Oral!

127
Q

Newborn ashen grey, vomiting, haemodynamically unstable after taking this antibiotic

A

Chloramphenicol –> causes Grey Baby Syndrome

128
Q

Used to treat contacts of meningococcal

A

Rifampicin

129
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: bind to transpeptidases –> inhibits peptidoglycan layer formation

A

Beta-lactams

130
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: binds to amino acids in peptidoglycan –> prevents glycosidic bonds and peptide cross-links

A

Glycopeptides (vancomycin, teicoplanin)

131
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: binds to 30s ribosomal subunit –> prevents peptide elongation

A

Aminoglycosides = end in –cin (gentamicin, tobramycin)

132
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: binds to 30s ribosomal subunit –> prevents tRNA binding

A

Tetracyclines

133
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: bind to 50S ribosomal subunit –> inhibit ribosomal translocation and association of peptidyl-tRNA to amino acids

A

Macrolides

134
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: binds to 23S component of the 50S subunit –> prevent formation 70S initiation complex (necessary for translation)

A

Oxazolidinones = end in –zolid (linezolid)

135
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: inhibit DNA gyrase –> prevent DNA unwinding and replicating

A

Fluoroquinolones = end in –floxacin (ciprofloxacin)

136
Q

Antibiotic mechanism: breaks DNA strand in anaerobic conditions

A

Nitroimidazoles = end in –idazole (metronidazole)

137
Q

Severe diabetic with facial pain and black nasal discharge –> need urgent surgical debridement

A

Mucormycosis (inhale Mucor/Rhizopus species)

138
Q

Infection causing “owl’s eyes” appearance in cells

A

CMV

139
Q

Flagellate protozoan that can cross placenta

A

Toxoplasmosis

140
Q

STI that can cross placenta in third trimester

A

Syphilis

141
Q

This suggests contamination of urine sample

A

Epithelial cells on microscopy

142
Q

Cause of erysipelas (well-demarcated lesions on skin, with rigors/fevers)

A

Group A Strep

143
Q

Non-healing skin lesion in Afghanistani

A

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

144
Q

Cause of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease

A

EBV

145
Q

Erythema migrans

A

Target lesion in Lyme Disease

146
Q

Malaria drug against organisms in blood

A

ACT (artemisin)

147
Q

Malaria drug against organisms in liver

A

Primaquine

148
Q

Granuloma with central necrosis

A

TB

149
Q

Measles belongs to which class of virus?

A

Paramyxovirus

150
Q

Ring-enhancing lesions on CT Head in immunodeficient

A

Toxoplasmosis

Treatment: pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

151
Q

Fundoscopy: retina looks like “pizza pie”

A

CMV Retinitis

152
Q

What do beta-lactams bind to?

A

Transpeptidase

153
Q

Antibiotic class causing photosensitivity

A

Tetracyclines (doxycycline in acne!)

154
Q

Can be used for the treatment of influenza A, but does not work against influenza B

A

Amantadine

155
Q

Hep B surface antigen (HBsAg)

A

Current infection

156
Q

Hep B “e antigen” (HBeAg)

A

High infectivity

157
Q

Hep B core antibody (anti-HBc)

A

Previous infection (c = caught)

158
Q

Hep B surface antibody (anti-HBs)

A

Immunity

159
Q

Anti-HBc AND anti-HBs

A

Immune due to infection

160
Q

Only anti-HBs

A

Immune due to vaccine

161
Q

Treatment of Hep B

A

PEGinterferon-a and tenofovir

162
Q

Treatment of Hep C

A

PEGinterferon and ribavirin

163
Q

Treatment of Hep E

A

Ribavirin

164
Q

Type of vaccine: MMR

A

Live attenuated

165
Q

Type of vaccine: influenza, polio

A

Inactivated

166
Q

Type of vaccine: Hep B, HPV

A

Subunit

167
Q

Type of vaccine: HiB

A

Conjugate

168
Q

Diagnosis toxoplasmosis in pregnancy

A

T. gondii DNA in amniotic fluid (PCR)

169
Q

Treatment toxoplasmosis in pregnancy (<18 weeks)

A

Spiramycin

170
Q

Treatment toxoplasmosis in pregnancy (>18 weeks)

A

Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + calcium folinate

171
Q

Definition of severe falciparum

A

Parasitaemia >2%

172
Q

Treatment of mild falciparum

A

ACT = Artemisinin Combination Therapy

173
Q

Treatment of severe falciparum

A

IV artesunate –> oral ACT

174
Q

Treatment of non-falciparum

A

Chloroquine (3 days) + primaquine (14 days)

175
Q

Treatment of typhoid

A 
IV ceftriaxone (2g OD) 
--> azithromycin 500mg BD for 7 days
176
Q

Most common cause of adult-onset epilepsy

A

Cysticercosis

177
Q

Treatment of Cysticercosis

A

Praziquantel and steroids

178
Q

Treatment of hydatids

A

PAIR (drainage of cysts) –> long-term praziquantel

179
Q

Medium used to culture fungi

A

CHROMagar Candida medium, with Pal’s agar

180
Q

Assay used for fungi serology

A

βD Glucan Assay

181
Q

Treatment of empirical fungi/non-Candida albicans

A

Echinicandin (e.g. anidulafungin)

182
Q

Treatment of organ-based fungal disease

A

Ambisome = IV fluconazole/amphotericin B

183
Q

Diagnosis of cryptococcus

A

Cryptococcal antigen in blood/CSF

184
Q

Treatment of cryptococcus

A

3 weeks of amphotericin B + flucytosine

185
Q

Fungi use this compound in their cell membranes

A

Ergosterol (targeted by azoles and polyenes)

186
Q

If >50/immunocompromised, what do you add to treatment of meningitis and encephalitis?

A

IV amoxicillin 2g 4hourly (covers listeria)

187
Q

Polymorphism associated with Prion Disease

A

MM polymorphism on codon 129 on Prion gene

188
Q

Brain histology shows spongiform vacuolation

A

CJD

189
Q

Treatment of complicated UTI

A

Cefalexin

190
Q

Treatment of cryptococcus

A

Amphotericin B

191
Q

Treatment of giardia

A

Metronidazole 400mg TDS for 5 days

192
Q

TB drug causing gout and arthralgia

A

Pyrazinamide

193
Q

Treatment C. diff

A

Mild-moderate: metronidazole

Severe: vancomycin

194
Q

Conjunctivitis and erythematous, coalescing rash

A

Rubella

195
Q

Gram+ cocci, catalase +ve and coagulase +ve

A

Staph aureus

196
Q

Gram- cocci, maltose fermenter

A

Neisseria meningitidis

197
Q

Smear from the genital ulcer base is positive to dark-field examination

A

Treponema pallidum (syphillis)

198
Q

Genital ulcer and matted inguinal lymph nodes with abscess/sinus formation

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (chlamydia)

199
Q

Milky urethral discharge in man

A

Gonorrhoea

200
Q

Stain used for H. pylori

A

Giemsa stain

201
Q

Comma-shaped Gram-ve causing diarrhoea

A

Vibrio cholera

202
Q

Gram negative rod which turns MacConkey agar red

A

E. coli

203
Q

Cause of cutaenous leishmaniasis

A

Leishmania major

204
Q

Normal CSF ranges

A

WBCs 0-5
Protein 0.15-0.40
Glucose 2.2-3.3

205
Q

Definition of low CSF glucose

A

CSF glucose less than 2/3 of serum glucose

206
Q

Bartonella in immunocompromised

A

Bacillary angiomatosis

207
Q

Viral thymidine kinase converts aciclovir to what?

A

Aciclovir monophosphate

208
Q

What form of aciclovir inhibits the action of viral DNA polymerase?

A

Aciclovir triphosphate

209
Q

Atypical bug specific for CF

A

Burkholderia cepacia

210
Q

Long-term prophylactic treatment for post-splenectomy patients

A

Penicillin V

211
Q

STI presents as a shallow painful ulcer, sometimes progressing to a lymphadenopathy

A

Chancroid

[EDITED] Pathology Buzzwords (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions