Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Multisystems Final > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Main locations containing anaerobes

A

skin, oral cavity, gut, female genital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Claustridia spp lead to these types of diseases

A

Botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene, invasive skin infections, food poisoning, pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Key characteristics of Clostridia spp (gram?, aero/anaero, etc)

A

Anaerobic, gram +, spore-forming rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type of Clostridia that is the most common cause of invasive infections?

A

C. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clostridia virulence factor, what does it do?

A

Lecithinase- phospholipase that kills cells and hemolyzes RBCs –> muscle necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Actinomyces key characteristics

A

Anaerobic, non-spore forming, gram + rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Propionibacterium key characteristics

A

Anaerobic, non-spore forming, gram + rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gross and microscopic appearance of Actinomyces

A

Colony - molar appearanceG+ rods form chainsIn abscesses, form “sulfur granules”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where and when do actinomyces infections typically occur?

A

Lumpy Jaw!
Chronic suppurative and granulomatous infections of the cervico-facial area.
Usually associated w/ poor oral hygiene or invasive dental surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common cause of acne

A

Propionibacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Key characteristics of Baceroides

A

Anaerobic, gram (-), non-spore forming rods, catalase +, SOD +, can grow in bile, and beta-lactamase +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bacteroides has a _________ that makes it anti-phagocytic.

A

Polysaccharide capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Keys in lab Dx of Bacteroides (resistance, plating, etc).

A

Makes beta-lactamases, can grow in bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Manifestations of cat bites vs dog bites

A

Cats: hands/upper extremities, deep abscess/osteomyelitis
Dogs: depressed/open skull fx, severe scalp and intracranial bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Capnocytophaga canimorsus

A

Normal flora in dogs and cats
Can cause myocarditis, endocarditis, meningitis
Resistant to TMX/SMX and aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pasteurella multocida

A

Nasopharynx of cats
Causes local cellulitis, low-grade fever
Sensitive to beta-lactams, azithromycin
Avoid erythromycin, clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oral drug of choice in dog/cat bites

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IV drug of choice in dog/cat bites

A

B-lactam + B-lactamase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cat scratch disease pathogen

A

Bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cat scratch disease symptoms

A

Papule or pustule, fever, lymphadenopathy (1-3 wks after exposure), most cases resolve spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common pathogens in human bites

A

Staph, strep, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, Peptostrep, Prevotella, Porphyromonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Boar/pig bite treatment

A

amoxicillin +/- ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Rat bite fever pathogen

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis, Spirillum minus
Symptoms: fever, migratory polyarthralgias
Treat w/ penicillin
Endocarditis is most common complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Seal finger pathogen

A

Mycoplasma spp causes a papular lesion

Treat w/ tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Herpes B Virus characteristics

A

Endemic in macaques, persists in sensory ganglia for lifetime
Vesicular lesion, paresthesias –> seizures, ascending paralysis, respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1st Phase of rabies

A

Flu-like

Discomfort, prickling/pruritic sensation at bite site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

2nd Phase of rabies

A

Anxiety, confusion, agitation

Delerium, abnormal behavior, hallucinations, insomnia, hydrophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3rd Phase of rabies

A

Coma, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 4 sample sites required by the CDC to rule out rabies

A

Saliva, neck biopsy, serum, CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name the fish that causes UTI problems

A

Candiru - crawls up urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clinical presentation of tetanus

A

Painful muscular contractions of masseter, neck muscles, trunk muscles, abdomen, generalized spasms, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment of tetanus toxin

A

Tetanus immune globulin, toxoid booster, antibiotics, ventilation, sedation, muscle relaxants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definition of wound infection

A

1 of the following: Organisms cultured, purulent drainage, abscess, and 2 of the following: localized pain/tenderness, redness, swelling, or heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Major wound pathogen in Iraq

A

Actinetobacter baumannii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Predominate type of infection to come out of Afghanistan

A

Invasive fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Preferred antibiotic used in infected wounds (except burns)

A

Cefazolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Key characteristics of Bacillus anthracis

A

Gram +, aerobic/facultatively anaerobic, spore-forming, rods forming long fillaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

List Bacillus anthracis virulence factors

A

Polypeptide capsule, toxins: edema toxin (EF+PA), lethal toxin (LF+PA). PA is protective antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does B. anthracis’s lethal factor work?

A

Cleaves MAPKK to inhibit the MAPK signal transduction pathway in macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is B. anthracis transmitted to humans

A

Herbivores infected after grazing in infected soil, anthracis is then transmitted via contact w/ infected animal products, during inhalation-industrial settings
Also used as a bioterror weapon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cutaneous anthrax clinical description

A

Most common type, contracted via exposure to animals, forms a black eschar (painless, edema), 80-90% complete resolution, can progress to bacteremia and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

GI anthrax clinical description

A

Rare, comes from ingestion of spore-contaminated meat. Ulcers form at site of invation –> regional lymphadenopathy, edema, and sepsis
Mortality >50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Inhalational anthrax clinical timeline

A

Incubate 1-43 days, non-specific symptoms 3-5 days, then terminal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Terminal phase of inhalational anthrax symptoms

A

Hemorrhagic mediastinitis –> dyspnea, stridor, cyanosis, chest pain, chest wall edema, shock and death
Meningitis in 50%, GI hemorrhage in 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Chest X-ray features of B. anthracis

A

Widened mediastinum w/ pleural effusions w/out infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Inhalational anthrax treatment

A

Ciprofloxacin + Clindamycin + Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Anthrax vaccine

A

Inactivated - supernatant of attenuated, non-encapsulated strain, composed primarily of protective antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Yersinia pestis key characteristics

A

Gram (-) coccobacillus, rows well on MacConkey’s agar, facultative intracellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MOA of tentani toxin

A

Interferes with NT release, blocking inhibitory impulses leading to unopposed spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Woolsorter’s disease

A

Inhalation of anthrax spores from contaminated wool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you diagnose Bubonic plague?

A

Wayson stain showing light blue bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rhabdoviridae (rabies) causes ____________ in infected neurons

A

Negri bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Rabies viral characteristics

A

Enveloped, -ssRNA, bullet shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Poxvirus characteristics

A

Big, brick shaped particle, ds-linear DNA, only DNA virus that replicates solely in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is smallpox spread

A

Secretions from mouth and noes and by material from pocks or scabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Molluscum contagiosum (poxvirus) symptoms

A

Wart-like papular lesions on the face, back, and butt. Spread via towels in swimming pools and gyms. Self limiting after 4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an Orf lesion?

A

Vesicular lesion caused by poxvirus of sheep or goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for rabies should always include _______ and ________.

A

Passive antibody (HRIG) and vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Important arenaviruses

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, Lassa, and S. American hemorrhagic fevers

60
Q

Key bunyavirus

A

Hantavirus

61
Q

Lassa Virus reservior

A

Multimammate rate

62
Q

Lassa Virus symptoms

A

Sore throat, facial swelling, deafness, “Swollen Baby Syndrome”

63
Q

Lassa virus genome

A

Eneveloped ambisense RNA, grainy appearance

64
Q

LCMV clinical picture

A

Presents as aseptic meningitis or encephalitis
Biphasic illness:
1. Fever, malaise, anorexia, muscle aches, HA
2. Meningitis or encephalitis
Mortality <1%

65
Q

Hanta virus genome and transmission

A

3 -ssRNA segments (L, M, S)

Transmitted via inhalation of infected rodent excrement or direct skin contact

66
Q

Hantavirus symptoms

A

Renal syndrome: fever, headache, hemorrhage, acute renal failure
or
Pulmonary syndrome: fever, chills, HA, nausea, blurred vision, pulmonary edema

67
Q

What type of vaccine is the smallpox vaccine?

A

Live attenuated vaccine

68
Q

SARS (coronavirus) genome

A

Enveloped ss+RNA

69
Q

SARS clinical pictures

A

ARDS, history of travel to Asia, atypical pneumonia w/out alt. diagnosis

70
Q

Arbovirus (VEE, EEE, WEE, West Nile etc) symptoms

A

Non-specific, flu-like, fever, rash, aches, chills, may go on to develop encephalitis

71
Q

Japanese encephalitis symptoms

A

Rare to develop symptoms
Symptoms:
Fever, headache, vomiting, symptoms of an encephalitis, seizures in children

72
Q

Yellow fever geographical distribution

A

West Africa, South America; two forms, urban and jungle

73
Q

Yellow fever symptoms

A

Chills, fever, headache, generalized myalgias, nausea, vomiting
GI hemorrhage –> black vomit
Jaundice50% mortality

74
Q

Yellow fever vaccine

A

Live Attenuated Virus

75
Q

Dengue virus geographical distribution

A

SE Asia, Africa, the Caribbean, and S. America

Transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes

76
Q

Dengue virus symptoms

A

High fever, lymphadenopathy, myalgias, bone and joint pains, headache, and a maculopapular rash

77
Q

La Crosse Virus

A

Bunyavirus
Most important cause of pediatric arbovirus encephalitis in US (Midwest)
Most infections are subclinical

78
Q

Colorado Tick Fever structure and genome

A

Reovirus
Icosahedral, non-enveloped
dsRNA, 12 segments

79
Q

Colorado Tick Fever transmission is from

A

Wood tick during spring/autum in west and northwest US, mostly CO

80
Q

Pathogenesis of Colorado Tick Fever

A

Infects erythroid precursor cells and persists
Serious hemorrhagic disease results from infection of vascular endothelium
Symptoms: fever, chills, headache, myalgia, arthralgia, photophobia, lethargy

81
Q

Rabbit fever pathogen

A

Francisella tularensis –> Tularemia

82
Q

F. tularensis key characteristics

A

Facultatively intracellular in macrophages, gram (-), coccobacilli, needs cysteine media

83
Q

Modes of transmission of Tularemia

A

Ingestion, inhalation, arthropod bites, mucous membranes

84
Q

Types of tularemia infections

A

Ulceroglandular, Oculoglandular, Pneumonic, Typhoidal

85
Q

Ulceroglandular tularemia

A

Follows primary infection of the skin, demarcated necrotic lesion, fever, locally inflamed and painful, 5% fatality

86
Q

Oculoglandular tularemia

A

Contaminated eye w/ infected material, small % of cases

87
Q

Pneumonic tularemia

A

Transmission via aerosol or via 2nd degree spread to the lungs, 30% fatality

88
Q

Typhoidal tularemia

A

Follows ingestion of the organism, resembals typhoid: fever, malaise, cough, bloody nose, leukopenia, delirium, abdominal pain and distention, intestinal hemorrhage

89
Q

Brucella/Undulate fever key characteristics

A

Facultative intracellular parasite of RES, multiplies w/in macrophages, Gram (-) rod

90
Q

Brucella symptoms and mode of transmission

A

Ingestion of infected unpasteurized milk products or direct contact w/ infected animals, causes fever, night sweats, head ache, chills, myalgias, weight loss

91
Q

Complications of chronic Brucella

A

Hepatic lesions arthritis, meningitis, endocarditis

92
Q

Classic trench fever is caused by…

A

Bartonella quintana

93
Q

Bartonella quintana causes ________ in immunocompetent patients and ________ in immunocompromised patients.

A
  1. Febrile bacteremia

2. Bacillary angiomatosis and endocarditis

94
Q

Bartonella bacilliformis causes

A

Carrion’s disease
1st phase: Hemolytic anemia
2nd phase: Verruga peruana (leg lesions)Carried by sandfly

95
Q

Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease) causes __________ in immunocompromised.

A

Bacillary angiomatosis - endothelia colonization and proliferation

96
Q

Members of the family Rickettsiaceae are obligate __________ bacteria that are usually transmitted by ____________.

A
  1. intracellular

2. arthropods, usually tics

97
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever pathogen, vector, and reservior

A

Rickettsia rickettsia
Dog ticks are the vector
Wild rodents are the reservior

98
Q

Rickettsia spp. key characteristics

A

obligate intracellular, gram (-), coccobacilli, visible on Giemsa stain

99
Q

Spread of Rickettsia from cell-to-cell involves _____________

A

Actin polymerization

100
Q

Clinical manifestations of Rickettsial diseases

A

Skin rash, fever, severe headache, malaise, prostration, and hepatosplenomegaly

101
Q

Pathophys of Rickettsial diseases

A

Vasculitis caused by proliferation of the organisms in the endothelial lining of small blood vessels

102
Q

Epidemic typhus pathogen

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

103
Q

Rickettsia typhi

A

Cause of endemic or murine typhus, occurs worldwide, flea borne, rarely fatal

104
Q

Erlickia and Anaplasma live in ___________ cells

A

Mammalian hematopoetic cells

105
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum primarily infects?

A

Granulocytes

106
Q

Erlichia symptoms

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever w/out a rash

107
Q

Q-fever pathogen

A

Coxiella burnetii

108
Q

Q-fever symptoms

A

Atypical pneumonia w/ flu-like symptoms, sometimes endocarditis
Infection is from cattle, goats, and sheep

109
Q

Coxiella virulence factors

A

Endospore/pseudospore form

110
Q

Name and describe the stages of Lyme disease

A

Stage 1: Localized infection - erythema migrans at bite site
Stage 2: Disseminated infection - secondary annular skin lesions an systemic symptoms such as severe malaise and fatigue, Bell’s palsy
Stage 3: Persistent infection - characterized by arthritis, meningoencephalitis, neuropathies

111
Q

Lyme disease clinical case definition

A

Either 1. erythema migrans or 2. one late manifestation (MSK, Nervous system, CV involvement) and lab confirmation

112
Q

Diagnostic tests for Lyme

A

Giesma stain, biopsy of erythema migrans, acute vs convalescent serum

113
Q

Lyme treatment

A

Oral doxycycline or IV antibiotics for arthritis or neurological abnormalites

114
Q

Causative agent of Southern Tick Associated Rash Illness (STARI) and symptoms

A

Amblyomma americanum causes a Lyme like disease

115
Q

Relapsing fever

A

Caused by other spp of Borrelia, characterized by recurrent episodes of fever separated by asymptomatic intervals, vector is body louse or soft shelled tick

116
Q

Louse-borne relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis, epidemic form

117
Q

Endemic relapsing fever

A

Tick-borne, has animal reserviors

118
Q

Leptospirosis clinical picture

A

Stage 1:
Acute febrile illness, conjunctival suffusion, photophobia, severe muscle aches
Stage 2:
Immune phase w/ IgM appearance and meningismus, WBCs in CSF

119
Q

Transmission of Leptospirosis

A

Humans come into contact with infected animal urine in water or soil

120
Q

Treatment of Leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline or penicillin

121
Q

Weil’s disease

A

Most severe form of Leptospirosis caused by serogroup icterohaemorrhagiae –> renal failure, hepatitis, haundice, altered mental status, multi-organ hemorrhage

122
Q

Filariae are?

A

Thread-like, tissue invasive roundworms transmitted by insects

123
Q

Filariae infection symptoms

A

Usually asymptomatic, can cause retrograde lymphangitis –> lymphedema, elephantiasis, hydrocele, chyluria

124
Q

Lymphangitis is also frequently complicated by _______.

A

Bacterial skin/soft tissue infections

125
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi parasite locations

A

Adults: lymphatics
Microfilariae: blood (night)

126
Q

Loa loa (eye worm) parasite locations

A

Adults: Subcutaneous tissues (moving)
Microfilariae: Blood (day)

127
Q

Ochocerciasis (river blindness) parasite locations

A

Adults: Subcutaneous nodules
Microflilariae: Skin

128
Q

Loa Loa is transmitted by?

A

Chrysops flies

129
Q

Onchocerciasis is transmitted by?

A

Black flies

130
Q

Lymphatic filariasis treatment

A

DEC

131
Q

Loa Loa treatment

A

DEC, avoid DEC and Ivermectin if high mf level - will cause inflammatory reaction

132
Q

Onchocerciasis treatment

A

Ivermectin

Avoid DEC - kills to rapidly

133
Q

Infectious stage of filariasis

A

L3

134
Q

Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia symptoms

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal asthma, pulmonary infiltrates, eosinophilia, IgE elevation, high filarial antibody titers

135
Q

Onchocerciasis primarily affects the _______ and _______.

A

Eyes and skin

136
Q

Onchocerciasis skin manifestations

A

Nodules, pruritus, rash, depigmentation, lichenification

137
Q

Onchocerciasis eye manifestation

A

Keratitis, chorioretinitis

Punctate keratitis becomes sclerosing keratitis resulting in blindness

138
Q

How to make diagnosis of Onchocerciasis

A

Serology or skin snips

139
Q

Name of bacteria that infects some filarial worms

A

Wolbachiae

140
Q

Loa loa clinical manifestations

A

Can be asymptomatic, non-specific (fatigue, urticaria, arthralgias, myalgias) or cause calabar swellings (swellings that move), eye worm

141
Q

Loiasis diagnosis

A

Identification of adult worm in subconjunctiva, detection of loa microfilaria in noon blood

142
Q

Patient presents w/ terrible headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, paresthesias, and eosinophilia, then think…

A

Angiostrongylus contonensis - rat lungworm

143
Q

Angiostrongylus causes

A

eosinophilic meningitis worldwide - worm migrates to meninges and dies

144
Q

Trichinella infection cycle

A

Ingestion of cyst containing meat
Larvae released from cysts and invade small bowel –> mature into adults
Adults make larvae
Larvae migrate to striated muscle and live in nurse cells

145
Q

Trichinella symptoms

A

Abdominal phase: cramps, diarrhea

Muscular phase: muscle pain, periorbital edema, eosinophilia

146
Q

Toxocariasis symptoms

A

2-5 yr olds:
Visceral larva migrans - fever eosinophilia, hepatosplenomegaly, wheezing, pneumonia

10-15 yr olds:
Ocular Larva Migrans - retinal lesions that appear as solid tumors near the macula

147
Q

Anisakis simplex host and method of transmission

A

Inhabits stomach marine crustaceans, fish, and cephalopods.

Transmitted via ingestion of the above

Multisystems Final (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions