microbiology Flashcards

Question

side effects of Rifampicin

Answer 1

treats mycobacterial infections red/orange urine is side effect

Answer 2

preious tb infection before hiv hiv breaks down immune system and tb becomes active

Answer 3

atrophies villi sugars cant be absorbed hypersosmotic = diarhheas

Answer 4

over reactivty of immune system ?

Answer 5

depends on virus and host

Answer 6

vzv can lay dormant and reactivate after a couple years due to successful latency via evasion

Answer 7

action of the drug on the body (it’s use!)

Answer 8

g coupled receptors μ-opioid receptor

Answer 9

cause depression not euphoria

Answer 10

Whether a drug is ‘strong’ or ‘weak’ relates to how well the drug binds to the receptor, the binding affinity

Answer 11

Is it possible to get a maximal response with the drug or not? Or even if all the receptor sites are occupied do you get a ceiling response? The concept of full or partial agonists

Answer 12

Down regulation of the receptors with prolonged use Need higher doses to achieve the same effect

Answer 13

Respiratory Depression Sedation Nausea and Vomiting Constipation Itching Immune Suppression Endocrine Effects

Answer 14

action of the body on the drug (how it’s broken down)

Answer 15

group A strep beta heamolyitc rapid spread and highly invasive infection.

Answer 16

Night sweats, weight loss, a cough and haemoptysis is classic history of TB. Epidemiology –

Answer 17

mycobacteria have a waxy, lipid cell wall that is impenetrable to the Gram stain. Positive Mycobacterium = pink bacilli (just one is enough). with ZN stain

Answer 18

chocolate agar

Answer 19

rhinovirus

Answer 20

paramyxoviridae

Answer 21

positive of previous exposure not if currently infectious or dormant and doesn't distinguish between BCG vaccine or infectious.

Answer 22

Isoniazid Rifampicin Ethambutol Pyrazinamide

Answer 23

peripheral neuropathy hepatitis

Answer 24

renal failure, orange urine, rash , hepatitis

Answer 25

Hepatitis, rash, hyperuricaemia/gout

Answer 26

Optic neuritis [EYE] (Sx’s of colour blindness, decreased visual acuity…etc)

Answer 27

turbid yellow colour, neutrophil polymorphs (WBC elevated) , raised protein, low glucose

Answer 28

lymphocytes, elevated protein, normal glucose clear

Answer 29

lymphocytes, raised protein, low/normal glucose

Answer 30

enterovirus HSV poliovirus

Answer 31

e. coli group B - Strep. agalactaie Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 32

neisseria meningitis (G- diplococc) H. Influenzae S. Pneumonia (alpha haemolysis)

Answer 33

Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumoniae (alpha haem)

Answer 34

Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 35

CSF - gin clear - protein - glucose - WBC - PCR - Blood agar or chocolate agar - gram film blood - cultures and pcr nose swab - enterovirus stool - stool pcr for enterovirus

Answer 36

neutrophils and the bacteria are metabolically active and 'use up' the glucose as a source of energy. Dying bacteria, the acute phase antibacterial proteins and antibodies all contribute to the elevating the protein in the CSF.

Answer 37

IV Cefotaxime

Answer 38

No bacterial growth on BA small white colonies on chocolate agar Nutrient agar shows growth around the combined X&V disc onl

Answer 39

Intravenous dexamethasone (corticosteroids

Answer 40

maternal genital tract. Up to 25% of women of child-bearing age may asymptomatically carry Group B strep in their genital tract.

Answer 41

gram positive bacilli small, semi transparant colonies with narrow haemolytic zone on Blood Agar

Answer 42

Intravenous amoxicillin

Answer 43

rash along with stiff neck, fever

Answer 44

Intravenous acyclovir is required to treat a probable herpes simplex encephalitis

Answer 45

upper: haematuria, fever, rigor lower: dysuria, frequency

Answer 46

trimethoprim, ampicillin, cephalosporins and ciprofloxacin

Answer 47

Trimethoprim 200mg twice daily for 3 days or Nitrofurantoin 50mg four times a day for 3 days

Answer 48

iv antibiotic for 7 days or try trimethoprim for 14 days

Answer 49

The urinalysis cannot be interpreted on a CSU (catheter urine sample) as both white cells and bacteria will be present in any urethral catheter sample irrespective of active infection

Answer 50

Swarming colonies of Proteus - UTI

Answer 51

preeclampsia - protein in urine high bp during and after pregnancy

Answer 52

gentamycin + cefuroxime, co-amoxiclav

Answer 53

uss kub ULTRASOUND - kidney ureter and bladder

Answer 54

peg inf alpha with ribavirin

Answer 55

dukes criteria 2 major or 1 major, 3 minor major - ● Positive blood culture with typical IE microorganism ( s. epidermis, s.aureus, α-haemolytic streptococci, s penumonae) ● New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve or new valvular regurgitation minor ● Predisposing factor: known cardiac lesion, recreational drug injection ● Fever >38°C ● Embolism evidence: arterial emboli, pulmonary infarcts, Janeway lesions, conjunctival hemorrhage ● Immunological problems: glomerulonephritis, Osler's nodes, Roth's spots, Rheumatoid factor ● Microbiologic evidence

Answer 56

Eisenmenger syndrome can present clinically with clubbing, cyanosis, and tiring easily (due to underlying VSD)

Answer 57

VSD VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT - HOLE IN SEPTUM

Answer 58

before the first heart sound occuring during late diastole S4 is caused by the atria contracting forcefully in an effort to overcome an abnormally stiff ventricle Stiff ventricles are associated with low compliance and generally occur in patients with heart failure, ventricular hypertrophy or ischemia.

Answer 59

Rose-thorn ulcers are seen in Crohn’s disease following a barium swallow. They appear as deep linear ulcers in the terminal ileum.

Answer 60

alogliptin. inhibit dpp4 which allows GLP1 to increase in production and to increase glucose uptake by releasing glucose dependant insulin secretion

Answer 61

ventricular myocardium

Answer 62

autosomal dominant

Answer 63

Secretory diarrhoea

Answer 64

purpura - red blotches under skin mennoragia nose bleeds easy brusiing

Answer 65

corticosteroids Corticosteroids e.g. Prednisolone o IV immunoglobulin e.g. IV IgG - raises platelet count more rapidly than steroids 2nd line - o Splenectomy o If splenectomy fails then immunosuppression e.g. Oral/IV azathioprine

Answer 66

meat consumption 24 - 72 hours severe diarrhoea bad abdominal pain

Answer 67

TB two tb lipoteichoic acid on the surface of Gram positive bacteria

Answer 68

TLR-3 is an intracellular receptor. The way to remember is that TLRs 3, 7,8,9 are intracellular so it can work to remember 7 is then the two after that and then 3 is a multiple of 9.

Answer 69

50S ribosomal subunits are targeted by macrolide antibiotics.

Answer 70

can produce vWF in Vwf disease

Answer 71

thick loop of henle on NA+/CA2+/CL- transporter Thiazide diuretics inhibit NaCl transport at the distal convoluted tubules. Spironolactone act as aldosterone antagonists, causing Na + excretion and a decrease in K + and H + excretion in the collecting tubules.

Answer 72

The initial humoral response is IgM mediated, which are low affinity but can bind multiple different antigen sites due to their pentameric structure.

Answer 73

INF-α is the principle molecule in viral responses, they bind target innate cells such as macrophages and NK cells and induce an antiviral state. S

Answer 74

Dendritic cells monitor lymph nodes for antigen. They present antigen to T cells and are the most efficient and powerful antigen presenting Cell. R

Answer 75

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. This infection is the most common presentation of AIS and comprises ~40% of all AIDS-Defining illnesses. Ix includes CXR, showing bilateral mid and lower-zone interstitial shadowing. Tx with Co-Trimoxazole or IV pentamidine for 21d.

Answer 76

Chronic diarrhoea is common in HIV infection and Cryptosporidium is most commonly isolated.

Answer 77

The antibiotic of choice would be Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) 4 times daily for 10 days. clarithromycin if pencillin allergy

Answer 78

empyema is infection ! empyema; an infection of the pleura resulting in purulent fluid in the pleural space. This can cause shortness of breath and chest pain due to the pressure increase in the chest, and fever and night sweats due to the infections. Risk factors for empyema include pneumonia, chest surgery, chest abscesses etc. Emphysema would have a more chronic, less infective picture and would generally involve a thin, cachexic patient with a long history of smoking and a barrel-chest.

Answer 79

Low Hb due to blood loss; MCV reduced due to iron deficiency.

Answer 80

hydroxycarbmide Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea) increases the proportion of foetal haemoglobin and therefore reduces the proportion of RBCs with haemoglobin S. This reduces the risk of small cell blockage.