Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the first oxygen producing micro-organisms?

A

Cyanobacteria

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2
Q

What 3 things is all life classified as?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

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3
Q

What was Pasteurs hypothesis?

A

Microorganisms present in putrefying material were descendants of those already present in the material or that were are carried in on dust particles in air

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4
Q

Knowledge that life does not arise spontaneously allows?

A
  • Prevention of food spoilage
  • Prevention of infections during operations
  • Understanding of the causes of infectious diseases
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5
Q

Who helped in the prevention of food spoilage and when?

A

Louis Pasteur (fermentation, pasteurisation) 1864

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6
Q

Who helped in the prevention of infections during operations?

A

Lister (aseptic technique) 1867

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7
Q

Who helped in the understanding of the causes of infectious diseases?

A

Koch (Germ theory of disease & Koch’s postulates) 1876

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8
Q

What experiment was defined as definitive proof for biogenies?

A

Swan neck flask

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9
Q

What were Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. The suspected pathogen must be present in all cases of disease and absent from healthy animals
  2. Suspected pathogen must be grown in pure cultures
  3. Cells from a pure culture of the suspected pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal
  4. The suspected pathogen must be reisolated and shown to be the same as the original
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10
Q

What did Hooke do?

A

First observed “cells”

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11
Q

What did Van Leeuwenhoek do?

A

Observed live micro-organisms

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12
Q

How did Karl Woese discover archaea?

A

He looked at the ribosomal DNA and recognised it was very different to that of bacteria

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13
Q

Features of a bacterial cytoplasm.

A
  • Thick, semi-transparent and elastic
  • 80% water
  • Contains all the molecules required for life
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14
Q

Features within the bacterial cytoplasm.

A
  • The nucleiod (DNA)

- Ribosomes (site of proteins synthesis composed of RNA and protein

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15
Q

Features of a bacterial cell membrane.

A
  • A thin structure inside the cell wall and enclosing the cytoplasm
  • Consists of a phospholipid bilayer
  • Contains selective carrier proteins
  • Acts as a semi-selective barrier that regulates the uptake of nutrients
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16
Q

Features of bacterial cell wall.

A
  • Very rigid to protect cell from rupturing
  • Antigenic, often contains toxic molecules and is a common site for antibiotic action
  • Two types differentiated by gram stain
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17
Q

How is the strength of a bacterial cell wall provided?

A

A mucopeptide called peptidoglycan which is unique to bacteria

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18
Q

Composition of cell wall in gram negative bacteria from inside to outside

A

Cytoplasm, Inner membrane, Cell wall, Outer membrane, Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

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19
Q

Composition of cell wall in gram positive bacteria from inside to outside

A

Cytoplasm, Inner membrane, Cell wall, Teichoic Acids

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20
Q

What do lipopolysaccharides do?

A

Otherwise known as endotoxin. Important virulence factor for evading phagocytosis and a barrier to certain antibiotics

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21
Q

What is teichoic acid?

A

Long anionic polymers that thread through the thick, multi layer of highly cross-linked peptidoglycan.

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22
Q

Describe the capsule of a bacteria

A

Firmly attached and highly organised

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23
Q

Describe the slime layer of a bacteria

A

Unorganised and loosely attached

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24
Q

What do flagella do?

A

Help a bacteria move by rotation

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25
Q

Describe flagella

A

Long whip like structure required for motility

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26
Q

3 Components of flagella

A
  1. Long spiral filament made of many proteins including flagellin and acts as a propeller
  2. Attached to a hook which can transmit torque
  3. Attached to motors that drive their rotation
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27
Q

What protein is the filament made of?

A

Flagellin

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28
Q

Structure of pili/fimbriae

A

Hair-like appendages, shorter, stronger and thinner than flagella

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29
Q

Functions of pili.

A
  • Involved in forming biofilms and attachment of cells

- Used for DNA transfer, called conjugation

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30
Q

What is an endospore?

A

A dormant form of the bacterium which is highly resistant to adverse environmental conditions

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31
Q

What is a broth and its purpose?

A

A liquid media

For enrichment of certain bacteria, obtaining large numbers of bacteria and for performing growth curves

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32
Q

What is agar and its purpose?

A

Solid media:

  • Usually first step of bacterial identification
  • Observe the colonial morphology which aids ID
  • Assess purity of the culture
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33
Q

What is sloppy agar and its purpose?

A

Semi-solid agar

  • Demonstrating mobility
  • Preserving bacteria
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34
Q

What are the 5 steps of staining for gram +/-

A
  1. Fixation
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Lugol’s iodine
  4. Decolourisation
  5. Safranin
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35
Q

What are the end colour results for gram +/- staining?

A

Gram positive - purple

Gram negative - pink

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36
Q

Structure of filamentous fungi

A
  • Consist of hyphae

- Some hyphae contain cross walls (septa) which divide them internally into distinct uni-nucleate units

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37
Q

What is hyphae?

A

Thin, thread-like filaments

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38
Q

Structure of non-filamentous fungi

A

Unicellular, round or oval cells

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39
Q

What is dimorphism?

A

The ability of a fungus to exist in both morphological forms

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40
Q

What are heterotrophs?

A

They don’t make their own food, they obtain their nutrients from pre-formed sources of organic carbon
Fungi are heterotrophs

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41
Q

What are saprotrophs?

A

Primary decomposers

Fungi are saprotrophs

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42
Q

What do fungi store food as

A

Glycogen

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43
Q

3 mechanisms of asexual reproduction in fungi

A
  1. Hyphae fragmentation
  2. Spore production
  3. Budding (only in yeast)
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44
Q

3 examples of fungi as a pathogen

A
  1. Superficial infections (dermatomycoses)
  2. Subcutaneous fungal infections
  3. Systemic mycoses
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45
Q

What are superficial infections with examples?

A

Also referred to as dermatomycoses, it’s infections of the outer layer of the skin, the hair and nails
Examples = athletes foot, ringworm

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46
Q

What are subcutaneous fungal infections?

A

Infections that usually occur in deeper layers of the skin and sometimes even reach the underlying bone
Examples = chromoblastomytosis and mycetoma

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47
Q

What is systemic mycoses?

A

Infection that often occurs via the inhalation of spores in individuals with weakened immune systems
Examples = Thrush and histoplasmosis

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48
Q

Describe fungi as a symbiont : mycorrhizae

A
  • Mutualistic relationship between fungus and plant root
  • Fungus functions like a root by growing in the soil and absorbing nutrients while the plant provides it with sugar for energy
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49
Q

Properties of ectomycorrhiza

A

-Common in temperate forest ecosystems
-Fungus - ascomycota and basidiomycota
Between root cells

50
Q

Properties of Arbuscular mycorrhiza

A
  • Common in grasslands and tropical ecosystems
  • Fungus - zygomycota
  • Invades root cells
51
Q

Describe fungi as a symbiont : Lichens

A
  • First forms of life to colonise bare rocks/soil

- Acts as barometer for air quality - change in lichens = change in pollution

52
Q

What is chimera and explain this is protozoa

A

Derived from two or more genetically different types

Protozoa are formed from two prokaryotes and kept the characteristics of them both

53
Q

Give examples of how protozoa are hard to classify

A
  1. The genus Euglena has chloroplasts and flagella
  2. Giardia have two nuclei and no mitochondria
  3. Entamoeba have many nuclei and no mitochondria
54
Q

What are the 4 main groups of protozoa and what are they characterised by?

A
  1. Ciliates
  2. Apicomplexa
  3. Flagellate
  4. Amoebae
    Characterised by : movement, nutrition and reproduction
55
Q

What do microorganisms need energy for?

A
  • Grow and move
  • Reproduce
  • Maintain cell structures
  • Defend themselves against threat
56
Q

What are the by products of anaerobic respiration?

A

Lactate and acetaldehyde (then to alcohol)

57
Q

What is an obligate aerobe?

A

Cannot survive without oxygen

58
Q

What is a facultative aerobe?

A

Primarily anaerobic but can respire using oxygen

59
Q

What is a obligate anaerobe?

A

Cannot grow in the presence of oxygen (vegetative cells)

60
Q

What is a facultative anaerobe?

A

Primarily aerobic but can respire anaerobically

61
Q

What is a microaerophillic organism?

A

Required oxygen but can only tolerate a small amount

62
Q

What is the main source of carbon?

A

Atmosphere and organic compounds

63
Q

What is an autotroph?

A

An organism that produces its own food using light, water, CO2/ other chemicals

64
Q

How does an autotroph acquire carbon?

65
Q

What is a heterotroph?

A

An organism that eats other plants or animals for food or energy/nutrients

66
Q

How do heterotrophs acquire carbon?

A

Amino acids, fatty acids, organic acids, sugars, nitrogenous bases, aromatic compounds

67
Q

What does chemoautotrophic mean?

A

Organisms that are able to synthesis they own organic molecules from the fixation of CO2 straight from sources

68
Q

What does chemoheterotrophic mean?

A

Organisms that cannot synthesis their own organic materials and therefore need to break down readily synthesised carbon in order to acquire it

69
Q

Photoautotrophic meaning

A

Organisms that can synthesise its own food from inorganic material using light as a source of energy

70
Q

Photoheterotrophic meaning

A

Organism that uses light for energy but cannot use CO2 as its sole carbon source and therefore uses organic compounds from the environment

71
Q

What are some of the benefits of viruses?

A
  • Control animal population
  • Kill pests
  • Oncolytic - destroy cancer cells
72
Q

What are zoonoses?

A

Diseases that can cross species boundaries

73
Q

How are viruses zoonoses?

74
Q

How were viruses discovered?

A

Through a filtration process that would normally filter out bacteria so it was concluded that they’re smaller than bacteria

75
Q

Characteristics of viruses?

A
  • Small (20-300nm - too small to be seen with light microscope)
  • No metabolism
  • Obligate intracellular parasites (need hosts)
  • Dormant on surfaces but replicate when they penetrate a host cell using hosts synthesising machinery
  • Genetic information usually encoded as one linear OR circular piece of DNA/RNA
  • Contain protein coat surrounding nucleic acid
76
Q

What are some methods used for culturing animal virus?

A
  • Embryonated eggs
  • Living animals
  • Cell cultures
77
Q

What is the plaque method?

A

Sample mixed with phages
Monolayer of cells-detect number of cells destroyed
Viral infection = lysed cells = clearings
Clearings = Plaque

78
Q

Why don’t antibiotics work against viruses and what is used instead?

A

Viruses have no metabolism
Instead antiviral medicines are used but they usually interfere with viral multiplication which can interfere with the host cell and be toxic

79
Q

Attenuated vaccination meaning?

80
Q

Inactivated vaccination meaning?

81
Q

Subunit vaccination meaning?

A

Only antigenic (stimulated immune system)

82
Q

Conjugate vaccination meaning?

A

Antigen and protein to aid its recognition

83
Q

Nucleic acid vaccination meaning?

A

Injected DNA/mRNA

84
Q

How do most viruses come to be?

A

Self-assemble spontaneously

85
Q

Where is the structural information of a virus stored?

86
Q

What is the capsid?

A

A protein coat that surrounds the genetic material (genome)

87
Q

What is a capsomer?

A

Clusters of proteins that make up the capsid (EM)

88
Q

What is the envelope of a protein?

A

Lipid bi-layer surrounding the capsid in some viruses

89
Q

What are peplomers?

A

Glycoproteins in the EM

90
Q

What is multimeric?

A

Multiple peptide chains

Capsomers and peplomers are both multimeric

91
Q

What is a complete virus particle called?

92
Q

What does the capsid need to be protected from and why?

A

Nucleic acids are fragile and needed to be protected from:

  • UV radiation
  • Extreme pH (gastrointestinal tract)
  • Dehydration (exposure to air)
  • Enzymatic attack (bodily fluids)
93
Q

Functions of the capsid?

A
  • Packaging nucleic acid
  • Host cell recognition
  • Genomic material delivering
94
Q

Structures of capsid

A
  • Linear array of capsid proteins can coil to helix to protect genome
  • Triangular unit can form individual faces of a larger structure
95
Q

What is the most common structure of capsid?

A

Icosahedral - 20 faces of equilateral triangles

96
Q

What are the host cells machinery?

A

Enzymes, ribosomes, tRNA’s

97
Q

What are the host cells raw materials?

A

Nucleotides, amino acids and energy

98
Q

Describe the use of non-structural proteins in viral replication

A
  • Enzymes needed to replicate viral genome
  • Needed immediately in small amounts (upon infection)
  • Required only inside infected cell
  • Will not become part of the virus
99
Q

Describe the use of structural proteins in viral replication

A
  • Needed to form progeny particles
  • Needed in large quantity
  • Only needed after genome is replicated
  • Needed later to package the genome
    e. g. spike proteins, lipid bi-layer
100
Q

Describe positive sense RNA

A

Has the same structures of mRNA: methylated cap, start codon, stop codon, open reading frame etc.

101
Q

Describe negative sense RNA

A
  • Is the complement of mRNA sense
  • Has a sequence related to the + by rules of base pairing but is not a reversal of it
  • Lacks all recognised features of mRNA
  • Cannot be translated - doesn’t make proteins
  • Can be copied (transcribed) making a complimentary (positive sense mRNA) strand that might be translated
102
Q

Which cells do viruses attack?

A
  1. Susceptible cell

2. Permissive cell

103
Q

What is meant by susceptible cell?

A

Entry allowed by having the right cell attachment factors, receptors or co-receptors

104
Q

What is meant by permissive cell?

A

Viral replication is supported, all the right tools and building blocks are there for a given virus

105
Q

What is the endocytic route of virus attack?

A

(no membrane) Clathrin mediated endocytosis and penetration

106
Q

What is the non-endocytic route of virus attack and the 4 steps (HIV as example)?

A

(present membrane) fusion at cell surface to release capsid into cell

  1. HIV glycoprotein binds to receptor (CD4)
  2. HIV glycoprotein binds to co-receptor (CCR5 mainly)
  3. HIV envelope and plasma membrane fuse together
  4. HIV capsid released and disassemble in cytoplasm
107
Q

What is a mesophile?

A

Organisms that grow best at body temperature (37ºC) - most pathogens thrive at body temperature
Ranges from 10-50ºC

108
Q

What is a thermophile?

A

Thrives between 40-70ºC

Above 65ºC, only prokaryotes survive

109
Q

What is a hyperthermophile?

A

Thrives between 65-110ºC

Mainly archaea thrive at very high temperatures (no bacteria above 95ºC

110
Q

What is a psychotroph?

A

Optimum grown rate at approx 20ºC

Range is 0-30ºC

111
Q

What is a psychophile?

A

Optimin growth is approx 10ºC

Range is -10-20ºC

112
Q

What is an acidophile?

A

Tolerates low pH

pH 0-6

113
Q

What is a neutrophile?

114
Q

What is an alkaliphile?

115
Q

What is a halophile?

A

Organisms that require salt, specifically NaCl

116
Q

What is an osmophile?

A

Adapted to environments with high osmotic pressure like high sugar concentrations

117
Q

What is a xerophile?

A

Organisms adapted to living in low Aw

118
Q

What is a hypotonic environment?

A

Low salt so water moves into the cell - cell may burst

119
Q

What is an isotonic environment?

A

No net movement of water

120
Q

What is an hypertonic environment?

A

High salt/sugar so water moves out of the cell - cell might shrink

121
Q

What is a microaerophillic?

A

Requires oxygen but at lower levels than atmospheric oxygen

122
Q

What is aerotolerant?

A

Cannot use oxygen for growth but are unaffected by the presence of it