Microbio Pracs Flashcards

1
Q

AA. LEARNING OUTCOMES

A
  1. Understand the basis on which bacteria are differentiated & classified.
  2. Be familiar with the application of one method, that of Cowan & Steel, for the identification of medically important bacteria.
  3. Understand the basis of some biochemical, rapid & molecular methods currently available for lab identification of medically implicated microbes.
  4. Be able to apply these methods to characterise & identify micro-organisms.
  5. Have a significant understanding of the importance to human health & well-being of the relationship bw microbes & human host defences.
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2
Q

AB. Morphological characterisation of bacteria involves assessment of:

A. results from cultural tests
B. biochemical tests for metabolic pathways
C. serological tests for presence of bacterial antigens
D. PCR probing and amplification for presence of specific sections of DNA

A

A. results from cultural tests

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3
Q

AC. Biochemical tests are used to determine:

A. production of immunoglobulins
B. substrate utilisation
C. serological characteristics
D. DNA base sequences

A

B. substrate utilisation

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4
Q

AC. Name 6 characteristics used to describe bacterial colony morphologies on solid media.

A

SIZE - measured as diameter in mm
SHAPE - e.g. circular, filamentous, irrregular, punctiform, spindle, rhizoid
ELEVATION - e.g. flat/effuse, raised, convex, dome-shaped/pulvinate, umbonate, umbilicate
MARGIN - edge of colony, e.g. entire, undulate, lobate, erose, filamentous, curled
COLOUR - by reflected light, e.g. white, cream, etc. || fluorescent, iridescent, opalescent, self-luminous || pigment - diffusible or non
SURFACE - e.g. glistening, dull, striated, granular, etc.
DENSITY - by transmitted light (ability to see through the colony) - opaque/transparent/translucent
CONSISTENCY - observed by picking up with loop, e.g. butyrous, viscid, friable, brittle, membranous
OTHER - odour, growth down into medium

NB: Characterisitcs are recorded under stated conditions of time, temperature & atmosphere, and are influenced by conditions of incubation.

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5
Q

AD. Describe how motility is achieved in some microbes, and how it may be visualised.

Give an example of how a type of bacterium might move in an aqueous environment.

A
  • Motility is facilitated by hair-like appendages known as FLAGELLA; 10-20 um long and 0.2 um in diameter.
  • They cannot be seen with LM w/o staining
  • They originate in the plasma membrane
  • Rotate, pushing against the surrounding medium, propelling the bacterium

Arrangements:

  • Monotrichous - single
  • Polar - single at one end
  • Amphitrichous - at both ends
  • Peritrichous - over entire surface of the cell

Staining: Mordants are used to precipitate on the flagella, making them thicker. The mordant is then stained & flagella can be seen under the LM.

E. coli (e.g.) moves in a straight line (run) when flagella rotate in synchrony. When the flagella rotate asynchronously, the cell begins to tumble. When the flagella rotate synchronously again, the cell changes direction.

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6
Q

AE. Aseptic techniques are methods of handling materials which:

A. involve isolating microbes only as pure cultures
B. minimise contamination of pure cultures and the environment
C. prevent epidemic outbreaks
D. ensure that cultures are never found to be contaminated

A

B. minimise contamination of pure cultures and the environment

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7
Q

AF. Which one of the following items is NOT an example of aseptic technique?

A. working carefully to ensure accuracy
B. working close to a Bunsen at all times
C. passing the neck of open containers through a flame at the beginning and end of
each manipulation
D. holding open containers in a near horizontal position

A

A. working carefully to ensure accuracy

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8
Q

AG. Jenny performed an oxidase test on a gram negative rod microbe as follows:

After sanitising the work space, with forceps she picked up a fresh oxidase test strip and placed on a clean glass slide. She used a sterile stick to transfer a large number of cells from a pure culture plate. This was sampled on the oxidase paper. The test was a partial false positive, as she soon found out the microbe to be E. coli, which should test negative for oxidase.

What small step regarding aseptic technique did Jenny forget to carry out?

A

Jenny should have flamed the forceps in the Bunsen, allowing them to cool, BEFORE she picked up the oxidase test strip. These forceps could have been contaminated with an oxidase positive organism such as Pseudomonas/Vibrio (both G-, rods).

Otherwise - her aseptic technique was relatively good and she didn’t use the nichrome wire, which can induce false positives due to zinc reacting with the substrate.

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9
Q

AH. What are the 2 main rationals behind aseptic technique?

A
  1. Ensure cultures remain free from contamination

2. Ensure the microbes you work with do not contaminate you or the environment

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10
Q

AI. In the Gram stain, after the primary stain, mordant and decolouriser have been added. Before the counterstain has been used, Gram positive organisms are stained ………………………….. & Gram negative are stained ……………………….. .

A. purple, purple
B. purple, colourless
C. purple, pink
D. pink, pink

A

B. purple, colourless

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11
Q

AJ. What is a mordant and how does it facilitate the Gram stain process?

A

A mordant sets dyes on a substrate material by forming a chemical coordination complex.

Iodine is referred to as a ‘mordant’ in Gram stains, but it is in fact a trapping agent. In the form of ‘iodide’ in Gram’s Iodine (Step 2), it binds to crystal violet (from the primary stain, Step 1) and traps it in the cell.

This will remain in G+ microorganisms after decolorization (with ethanol/acetone, Step 3), due to the multilayered nature of their peptidoglycan, but will be lost in G-‘s as the outer lipopolysaccharide membrane interacts with the alcohol decolorizer, leaving the inner peptidoglycan layer exposed, from which the crystal violet-iodine complexes wash out.

This is the basis of distinguishing between the gram morphologies.

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12
Q

AK. Phase contrast microscopy is valuable for observing:

A. viable, stained organisms
B. viable, unstained organisms
C. internal details of live microbes
D. the molecular structure of microbial cell components

A

B. viable, unstained organisms

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13
Q

AL. Suppose you were viewing through the microscope a Gram-stained field of uniform rods arranged in chains of varying lengths containing purple and some red
bacilli. You should conclude that:

A. the culture is an environmental isolate
B. you should repeat the stain as you have made a mistake
C. a mixed culture
D. some old cells are present in the chains

A

D. some old cells are present in the chains

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14
Q

AM. Fermentation of carbohydrate by bacterial cells producing energy involves all of the following EXCEPT:

A. aerobic breakdown of the carbohydrate
B. anaerobic breakdown of the carbohydrate
C. oxidation of the carbohydrate without an exogenous electron acceptor
D. the carbohydrate may act as both the primary electron donor as well as the final electron acceptor

A

A. aerobic breakdown of the carbohydrate

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15
Q

AN. OBLIGATE ANAEROBES can grow with/without oxygen BECAUSE:
they can metabolise energy aerobically/anaerobically. They gather mostly at the top of the tube* because aerobic respiration generates more ATP than either fermentation or anaerobic respiration.

Regarding the above,

a) The explanation correctly matches the subject.
b) The explanation inaccurately matches the subject.
c) The explanation is a true statement but the subject is incorrect.
d) Both the subject & explanation are false statements.

A

c) The explanation is a true statement but the subject is incorrect:

Obligate anaerobes CANNOT grow in oxygen, they are poisoned by it so they gather at the bottom of the tube where the concentration is the lowest.

FACULTATIVE ANAEROBES match the subject & description.

*NB thioglycollate broth

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16
Q

AO. Which Stage 1 Cowan & Steel Test utilises Kovac’s Reagent?

a) Catalase
b) Indole Production
c) Spore Stain
d) Oxidation-Fermentation
e) None of the above

A

e) none: the OXIDASE test uses Kovac’s reagent; it contains tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine which serves as an alternative substrate for the oxidase enzyme. In the reduced state, the reagent is colourless; when oxidised becomes blue.

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17
Q

AP. Micrococcus luteus & Neisseria gonorrhoeae are both coccus, non-motile, catalase & oxidase positive and oxidative (aerobic).

What are two ways to differentiate these two microbes?

A

Morphology under light microscope should reveal:

  • Gram-positive TETRAD formations of M. luteus
  • Gram-negative DIPLOCOCCI formations of N. gonorrhoeae.

NB Neisseria species are typically in pairs but some types can appear in tetrad forms!

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18
Q

AQ. The physiological significance to a bacterium of production of catalase is:

A. to catalyse reactions involved in aerobic respiration
B. breakdown of the toxic end product of its own metabolism, hydrogen peroxide
C. breakdown of hydrogen peroxide, producing essential oxygen for cellular respiration
D. to support the cytochrome electron transport chain producing oxygen to act as the final electron acceptor

A

B. breakdown of the toxic end product of its own metabolism, hydrogen peroxide

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19
Q

AR. False positive catalase test results:

A. can occur when the test is performed on the open bench
B. can be obtained when some of the blood growth medium is picked up with the organisms being tested
C. can be obtained when testing a pathogen growing in liquid, broth blood culture
D. are never found, as the organism either produces catalase enzyme or it does not

A

B. can be obtained when some of the blood growth medium is picked up with the organisms being tested

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20
Q

AS. False negative catalase test results:

A. can occur when the culture growth being tested is dead
B. can be obtained when the culture being tested is in exponential growth phase
C. can be obtained when the hydrogen peroxide reagent used is old and has degraded to water
D. are never found, as the organism either produces catalase enzyme or it does not

A

C. can be obtained when the hydrogen peroxide reagent used is old and has degraded to water

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21
Q

AT. Regarding the Catalase Test,

a) Mixing a sampled culture into the hydrogen peroxide sample will increase visible bubbles
b) Aerobic or Anaerobic bacteria can produce catalase.
c) It tests for cytochrome C catalase in the electron transport chain of certain bacteria.
d) Catalase catalyses the breakdown of a metabolic end product which might otherwise accumulate and kill the organism which produces it.
e) a & d

A

CORRECT: d)

a) Sample should be PLACED, NOT mixed as this will REDUCE bubble visibility and the confirmation of oxygen gas. (immerse! not emulsify).
b) Anaerobic bacteria do NOT produce catalase (especially obligate anaerobes; poisoned by oxygen). However some facultative anaerobes do.
c) This refers to (cytochrome C) Oxidase

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22
Q

AU. The catalase test is useful to distinguish:

A. Clostridium from Bacillus
B. Staphylococcus from Streptococcus
C. Pseudomonas from Proteus
D. all bacteria, one from another

A

B. Staphylococcus from Streptococcus

Whilst clostridium is catalase negative and bacillus positive, they may prove to be not as easy to grow in culture than Staphylococcus & Streptococcus; Clostridium in particular is an obligate anaerobe, meaning oxygen is toxic to this microorganism.
Further, clostridium & bacillus may be differentiated by an oxidase test (neg & pos respectively). The oxidase test for staph & strep are both negative, and their only 1st stage difference hence lies in the catalase test.

23
Q

AV. What confirms a positive reaction in the oxidase test?

a) A dark purple colour developing on the paper within 10 seconds.
b) Presence of bubbles from the production of oxygen.
c) A colour-gradient as a result of pH change.
d) Oxidase organisms are red. Other organisms are blue.
e) none of the above

A

CORRECT: a) A dark purple colour developing on the paper within 10 seconds constitutes a positive reaction, i.e. the organism possesses the enzyme.

b) Describes Catalase test.
c) Vaguely describes O-F test.
d) Describes results of Spore Stain test (definitely not helpful; for G+ organisms only!).

24
Q

AW. Which first stage tests only apply to Gram-Positive organisms?

a) Acid Fast Stain & Oxidase Test
b) Oxidase Test & Catalase Test
c) Glucose Utilization & Spore Stain
d) Spore Stain & O-F Test
e) Acid Fast Stain & Spore Stain

A

e) Acid Fast Stain & Spore Stain

25
Q

AX. Members of the Family Enterobacteriaceae are able to grow aerobically, being able to employ oxygen in the generation of energy and as the final component of
the electron transport chain. However they are oxidase negative. These bacteria can do this because they:

A. produce energy using a different biochemical pathway that does not use oxygen
as the final electron acceptor
B. possess alternative electron transport chains in their cell membranes that employ oxygen as the final electron acceptor
C. utilise a different terminal electron acceptor, such as nitrate & which is reduced by a reductase enzyme
D. utilise cytochrome c oxidase to reduce oxygen to water

A

B. possess alternative electron transport chains in their cell membranes that employ oxygen as the final electron acceptor

These are facultative anaerobes; they will use oxygen if available but do not solely require it for cellular respiration.

26
Q

AY. Oxidase production is particularly useful in the identification of Gram-negative bacteria,

especially to distinguish between Enterobacter & Proteus Genera.

Regarding the above,

a) The explanation correctly matches the subject.
b) The explanation inaccurately matches the subject.
c) The explanation is a true statement but the subject is incorrect.
d) Both the subject & explanation are false statements.

A

b) The explanation inaccurately matches the subject.

Enterobacter & Proteus are both Gram-positive AND oxidase NEGATIVE.
Pseudomonas are Oxidase POSITIVE, and especially distinguished in this way. (Note these are all rod morphology)

Other G- Ox+ bacteria include Neisseria &
Micrococcus (both coccus).

Other G- Ox- bacteria include Escherichia (also rod).

27
Q

AZ. Hugh & Leifson OF medium differentiates organisms that can utilise a sugar, such as glucose, using oxidative or fermentative biochemical pathways. It can do this because this medium employs which of the following:

i. an oxygen gradient
ii. a glucose gradient
iii. an indicator sensitive at the acid/alkaline break point
iv. an indicator sensitive at low pH ie high acid
v. peptone as an alternative nutrient to glucose

A. i, ii, iii, v are correct
B. i, iii, v are correct
C. i, iv, v are correct
D. ii, iv, v are correct

A

B. i, iii, v are correct

The indicator used is bromothymol blue, which is yellow at pH 6.0 and blue at pH 7.6.

Oxygen gradient as the OF tube is open to oxygen at the top but oxygen cannot reach the bottom of the gel medium. Glucose is distributed evenly throughout the medium.

28
Q

BA. The Test of Glucose Utilisation (Cowan & Steel Stage 1 ) can often be determined from the results of O-F medium inoculation (Hugh-Leifson’s medium) as it also contains glucose. Explain how this works and suggest an alternative Glucose Utilization test.

A

An O-F medium is inoculated by stabbing with a straight wire to within 1 cm of the bottom of the tube, and incubated as necessary (2-14 days). With respect to glucose utilisation, the O-F test determines whether an organism attacks sugar oxidatively requiring the presence of oxygen, or fermentatively in the absence of oxygen.

Other methods could include inoculating a glucose broth containing a Durham tube with the organism, or, after incubation, examine for the production of acid or acid & gas. (?* see page 13 Appendix for Ex 1&2)

29
Q

BB. Why would one use a solid medium consisting of Nutrient Agar + 7.5% NaCl for colony growth?

a) General purpose based medium for the growth of a wide range of non-fastidious heterotrophic organisms.
b) To detect production of haemolysins which lyse red blood cells.
c) To distinguish organisms possessing exclusively oxidative metabolism from those with fermentative pathway.
d) Selective medium for salt tolerant organisms such as staphylococci & micrococci.

A

d) Selective medium for salt tolerant organisms such as staphylococci & micrococci.

a) Describes Nutrient Agar (broth?)
b) Describes Blood Agar - generally used for the isolation & cultivation of nutritionally versatile human microflora.
c) Describes Hugh & Leifson’s Medium (O/F Medium)

30
Q

BC. Which of the following is NOT a member of the normal flora of the throat?

A. Clostridium
B. Corynebacterium
C. Neisseria
D. Streptococcus

A

A. Clostridium - Normal flora of the gut & lower female reproductive tract.

Corynebacterium - mucosa + skin

31
Q

BD. What is the hottest part of the Bunsen flame you should be sterilising equipment (e.g. loops) in?

a) The inner yellow flame
b) The inner conical blue flame
c) The outer blue flame
d) The outer yellow flame

A

b) The inner conical blue flame - precisely, the tip

32
Q

BE. What am I?
I am a gram-positive fermentative microbe. I am drumstick/bowling pin-like in morphology, although this is usually not the case…

A

CLOSTRIDIUM.

Gram Positive + Fermentative (obligate anaerobes i.e. doesn’t rely on oxygen; as opposed to oxidative, aerobic) microbes include Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, Clostridium & Bacillus.
Only the latter 2 have a variable morphology as hinted in the question, however, the drumstick shape represents the endospore formation for Clostridium. In normal circumstances they are rod shaped.
Bacillus is also rod-shaped in normal circumstances, and also forms endospores, but these are typically ovoid in morphology, whilst the drum-stick shape is distinct of Clostridium.
NB: The only G+ microbe (studied) that’s Oxidative is Arthrobacter. It also has a variable morphology (cocci-rod) but the information given should rule this out easily.

33
Q

BF. What am I?
I test for the ability to break down tryptophan into a specific chemical. My procedure involves inoculating a peptone water lightly from agar slope culture and incubating at 37 degrees for 40-48 hours. 1 mL of Kovac’s reagent is then added which will form a layer on top of the medium. Without shaking, the results are read immediately.
A bright pink colour in the top layer indicates the presence of the specific chemical.

A

Indole Production

34
Q

BG. When sampling the flora of the fingers before and after washing with ordinary soap, more organisms are seen on a finger print culture on nutrient agar after washing than before. This is because the washing procedure:

A. removes the protect film of sebum, exposing the resident flora
B. adds microbes to the skin because the soap is contaminated from previous uses
and environmental contamination
C. adds microbes to the skin because the paper towel used for drying is
environmentally contaminated
D. removes the protective film of sebum, leaving transient microbes exposed

A

A. removes the protect film of sebum, exposing the resident flora.

Transient microbes reside in the film of sebum, all of which is washed away, while the resident flora remain and flourish from the reduced competition.

35
Q

BH. A sample of tissue, which has been taken from a post-operative infected wound, is added to a culture medium that has been designed to identify Staphylococcus
aureus from other members of the Family Micrococcaceae. This medium is:

A. defined
B. differential
C. selective
D. minimal

A

B. differential

Differential medias allow

36
Q

BI. A false positive reaction may occur in oxidase tests.
What from?
How is this avoided?

A

A stick (/plastic loop) is used because zinc in the nichrome wire may induce a false positive reaction by reacting with the oxidase substrate.

37
Q

BI. How is the method for identification of bacteria carried out in the Cowan & Steel approach?

A
  1. Gram Stain the organism
  2. Apply a set of 1st Stage Tests depending on the Gram reaction of the organism. Fromthe results obtained from these tests it is possible to decide to which genus the organism may belong.
  3. Apply the relevant 2nd Stage Tests to differentiate the genera & species.
38
Q

BI. How should cells be sampled from agar in a gram stain?

a) By touching a colony with the loop.
b) Picking up a whole colony with the loop.
c) Making sure to take the underlying agar to the colony with the loop.
d) Re-sampling if the initial amount taken wasn’t enough.

A

a) Just by lightly touching a colony with the edge of the loop provides an optimal amount for the gram stain. When dispersed by water, it ensures that the concentration of cells is so dense that individual characteristics / morphologies are missed.

39
Q

BJ. During Gram Staining, why is the glass slide initially passed through a Bunsen flame?

a) warms the slide making it easier to label with the grease pencil
b) warms the slide making adherence of staining chemicals quicker
c) clears the slide of any dust/lindt
d) a & c
e) b & c

A

d) a & c

b) is incorrect.

40
Q

BK. For gram stains, why is it important to prepare thin smears?

a) If a smear is thick it may have areas where gram-negative cells fail to be completely decolourised.
b) Overcrowded cells make it difficult to observe shapes & characteristic cell arrangements.
c) Older cells of gram-positive types may lose the ability to retain the crystal violet-iodine complex and hence the smear may appear to contain a mixture of G+ and G- organisms.
d) all of the above
e) a & b
f) b & c

A

e) a & b

Both of these points essentially emphasise accurate visualisation of the gram stain, obtained with thin smears.

c) Refers to the necessity to stain cells from physiologically young cultures, being the best material for definitive Gram staining. With older cells losing their staining quality, this can be particularly the case for endospore formers.

41
Q

BK. Regarding Gram stains, why are any potential contaminating microorganisms tap water not an issue?

A

They are irrelevant compared with the amount of cells you will have in the smear.

42
Q

BK. Regarding heat fixing the smear in gram staining, which is INCORRECT?

a) Heating the slide too much may cause it to shatter.
b) The smear should be facing downwards so that the cells are adhered to the slide whilst also killing them.
c) The slide should be held with forceps and passed through the flame three times.
d) All of the above are correct.

A

b) Is incorrect in saying that the smear should be facing downwards; it should be facing UPWARDS.

Having direct contact of the smear with the flame could destroy cells and ruin what you are trying to visualise…

43
Q

BL. Which of the following is NOT a Cowan & Steel 2nd Stage Test?

a) Methyl-Blue Test (MB)
b) Growth on Desoxycholate/MacConkey Agar
c) Urease Production
d) Indole Production
e) Hydrogen Sulphide Production

A

a) Methyl-Blue is NOT a test, however, the Methyl-RED test (MR) is.

Other tests include the Voges Proskauer Test (V-P) and Carbon Source (Citrate) Utilization

44
Q

BM. Why is it important not to put the lid down of a slope/broth culture when sampling on a loop?

a) Contaminating the work space
b) Contaminating the culture
c) Quick replacement after sampling
d) all of the above
e) you should put the lid down, otherwise you have too many items in your hands

A

d) all of the above

45
Q

BN. Facultative organisms are those that:

A. have specific nutrient requirements
B. grow on natural or synthetic media
C. grow in the presence or absence of blood
D. grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

A

D. grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

46
Q

BO. Organisms that are present in the anterior nares ie just inside the nostrils, survive in this dry, salty, acidic environment, because they most likely have:

A. mutated to be able to survive the adverse conditions
B. developed resistance once they colonised the nose
C. been selected because they can survive in these adverse conditions
D. developed different pathways of metabolism from the wild-type strain of the same organism

A

C. been selected because they can survive in these adverse conditions

47
Q

BP. Humans have evolved to produce lysozyme in mucous & body fluids. The eye is protected by lysozyme, however, when bacterial eye infections do occur, they are most likely to be caused by Gram-negative organisms. This is because, in comparison to Gram-positives, Gram-negative microbes:

A. do not possess peptidoglycan, the target of lysozyme
B. possess lipopolysaccharide in their cell walls that stimulates endotoxic shock & an inflammatory response
C. evade destruction by phagocytosis because they are resistant to the oxidative burst in the phagolysosome
D. possess an outer membrane that prevents lysis and acts as a diffusion barrier

A

D. possess an outer membrane that prevents lysis and acts as a diffusion barrier

48
Q

BQ. A Bali burns victim was air-lifted to Perth Hospital with complications of high fever, delirium & severe headache. She was subsequently diagnosed with a
septicaemia caused by a Gram-negative, motile, aerobic, oxidase-positive rod.
This organism would most likely be:

A. Enterobacter aerogenes
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Enterobacter: oxidase negative, facultative anaerobe.
Neisseria: coccus, non-motile.
Proteus: oxidase negative, facultative anaerobe.

49
Q

BR. Clostridium difficile is an important pathogen that is readily transmitted between immunocompromised elderly patients. Infection control is therefore critical in
hospitals managing such patients. Which one of the following is NOT an important infection control step during such an outbreak?

A. limit visitors
B. rapid laboratory diagnosis
C. stringent hand washing enforcement
D. isolation, use of gloves, protective clothing

A

A. limit visitors

50
Q

BS. In order to determine the minimum concentration of an antibiotic that will kill & not simply inhibit a particular microbe, the culture would first be inoculated & incubated in media containing increasing concentrations of the drug, then tested for survivors by subculturing into medium containing:

A. no drug
B. the same amount of the drug
C. an increased amount of the drug
D. a decreased amount of the drug (but not zero)

A

A. no drug

51
Q

BT. Which one of the following options does NOT contribute to intrinsic bacterial antibiotic resistance?

A. the bacterium lacks the specific target site
B. the bacterium lacks a transport mechanism
C. the bacterium develops a spontaneous mutation for resistance to the antibiotic
D. the bacterial outer membrane acts as a permeability barrier

A

C. the bacterium develops a spontaneous mutation for resistance to the antibiotic

52
Q

BU. Which one of the following is the major reason why it has been difficult to treat viral infections with chemotherapeutic agents?

A. viruses resemble their hosts and therefore offer no selective point of attack
B. viruses use the metabolic machinery of their hosts, which limits selective points of attack
C. viruses have no metabolism & therefore offer no selective point of attack
D. actually, viruses are not difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents

A

B. viruses use the metabolic machinery of their hosts, which limits selective points of attack

53
Q

BV. Mueller-Hinton medium is used for antibiotic sensitivity tests because it:

A. is guaranteed to be free of any antibiotic
B. contains a background of antibiotic to minimise growth of background normal flora
C. is not necessary to be standardised in type & concentration of constituents
D. has no carbohydrate source to confound the test result

A

A. is guaranteed to be free of any antibiotic

54
Q

BW. How does a Biosafety Cabinet protect laboratory workers and the environment from infectious laboratory material?

A

By directing a curtain of sterile air onto the work area, and by the use of high-efficiency filters, capturing and removing any infectious aerosols produced by microorganisms.

This also achieves the cross-contamination of materials manipulated in the cabinet.