Microbial Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

mechanism of polymixin

A

causes loss of selective permeability of the cell membrane

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2
Q

mechanism of Quinolones (Cipro)

A

inhibits replication and transcription by inhibiting gyrase (unwinding enzyme) in humans this is topiosomerase

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3
Q

Mechanism of rifampin

A

inhibits RNA polymerase

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4
Q

Mechanism of macrolides (erythromycin)

A

inhibits 50s

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5
Q

Mechanism of aminoglycosides

A

inhibits 30s

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6
Q

Which 4 inhibit 50s

A

chloramphenicol, erythromycin, clindamycin, streptogramin

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7
Q

4 that inhibit 30s

A

aminoglycoside, gentamycin, streptomycin, tetracycline

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8
Q

Inhibit metabolism of bacteria

A

sulfonamides, trimethoprim

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9
Q

Ab with the broadest spectrum

A

Tetracylcines

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10
Q

Ab with Gram+ and Gram- coverage

A

carbapenems, sulfonamides, cephalosporins, tetracyclines

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11
Q

Mycobacteria coverage ( Tuberculosis)

A

isoniazid, streptomycin, less coverage tobramycin, polymixin

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12
Q

Mostly gram positive, some gram -, some chlamydias

A

Penicillin

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13
Q

Coverage for rocky mountain fever (rickettsias)

A

only tetracyclines

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14
Q

S aureus is resistant to penicillin by

A

cleaving the beta lactam ring inactivating the drug

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15
Q

Aminoglycoside point mutation

A

changes shape of the receptor the drug binds, drug cannot enter the cell

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16
Q

Pseudomonas/E coli resistance mechanism

A

MDR efflux pumps, pump drugs out of the cell

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17
Q

Erythromycin resistance

A

change in shape of the 50s ribosome, drug has no effect on protein synthesis

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18
Q

Sulfonamide resistance

A

change mechanism of folic acid production

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19
Q

What are the end products of Glycolisis

A

(2) 3 carbon pyruvates, 2 ATP, 2 NADH

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20
Q

What is the purpose of gluconeogenesis

A

maintains blood glucose levels providing intermediates needed for Citric acid cycle, clears products of metabolism such as lactate (muscles) and glycerol (adipose)

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21
Q

3 irreversible steps of glycolysis

A
  1. glucose to glucose 6 phosphate
    via hexokinase/glucokinase, 1 ATP used
  2. Rate limiting step: fructose 6 phosphate to Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
    via PFK1, 1 ATP used
  3. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate
    via pyruvate kinase, 2 ATP produced

Energy requiring phase

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22
Q

After transamination or deamination glucogenic amino acids yield

A

pyruvate - citric acid cycle intermediates

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23
Q

What is pyruvate converted into to enter the citric acid cycle

A

acetyl coA

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24
Q

one molecule of glucose is ____, one molecule of pyruvate is ____

A

C6H12O6
C3H3O3

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25
Q

Where does glycolysis occur

A

the cytosol

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26
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur,

A

the matrix of the mitochondria

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27
Q

What steps in glycolysis release energy

A
  1. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate (G3P) —-> 1,3 BPG
    via G3P dehydrogenase, +2 NADH
  2. 1,3, BPG —> 3 phosphoglycerate
    via phosphoglycerate kinase, +2 ATP
  3. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) —-> Pyruvate
    via pyruvate kinase, +2ATP
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28
Q

RBCs are completely reliant on what for energy?

A

lack mitochondria, reliant on glucose and anerobic glycolysis

29
Q

Glycolysis under anerobic conditions

A

pyruvate is reduced to lactate producing only 2 ATP

30
Q

Net products of glycolysis

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH

31
Q

What process can occur in critically ill patients in response to injury/infection and contributes to hyperglycemia

A

Gluconeogenesis

32
Q

the citric acid cycle is the catabolism of what molecules

A

carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins

33
Q

what begins the citric acid cycle

A

acetyl portions of acetyl coA

34
Q

What type of reactions occur in the CAC

A

redox reactions

35
Q

What happens in the electron transport chain

A

NADH and FADH2 go through oxidative phosphorylation to generate most of the ATP produced in cellular respiration

36
Q

What are the 3 irreversible reactions (control points) in the CAC

A
  1. acetyl coA –> Citrate
    via citrate synthase
  2. isocitrate —>a-ketoglutarate + NADH
    via isocitrate dehydrogenase
  3. a-ketoglutarate —-> succinyl-coA + NADH
    via oxidative decarboxylation
37
Q

The citric acid cycles provides electrons that fuel the process of _____ ___________

A

oxidative phosphorylation

38
Q

How much energy is produced in the CAC?

A

3 NADH = 9 ATP
1 FADH = 2 ATP
1 GTP = 1 ATP
12 Total x2 = 24 per glucose molecule

39
Q

triacylglycerols are hydrolyzed by lipases to form….

A

fatty acids and monoacylglycerol which are taken up through the small intestine

40
Q

stored fat is hydrolyzed to ____ and ____ when needed as fuel

A

glycerol and fatty acids

41
Q

How is energy extracted from glycerol

A

glycolysis

42
Q

the pathway used by cells to obtain energy from fatty acids is called

A

beta oxidation

43
Q

the major storage of chemical energy is

A

triacylglycerol’s

44
Q

purpose of beta oxidation

A

break down fatty acid to generate acetyl coA to enter the citric acid cycle and produce NADH and FADH2

45
Q

When sugar is plentiful fatty acid oxidation is inhibited ad fats are stored

A

in muscle tissue or adipose tissue

46
Q

How ketone bodys are formed

A

low glucose = acetylcoA build up
Acetoacetate is hydrolyzed then reduced to form B-hydroxybutyrate and acetone which are known as ketone bodies

47
Q

serve as fuel for the brain during starvations

A

ketone bodies

48
Q

What happens as a result of ketoacidosis

A

blood pH drops = Na+ decreased in interstitial fluid drawing out K+, water and glucose lost in the urine decreasing BP

49
Q

Central Dogma

A

transcription - DNA to mRNA
Translation - tRNA interprets mRNA in to sequence of amino acids (proteins)

50
Q

Vertical gene transfer

A

copy of DNA to offspring

51
Q

Horizontal transfer

A

donor to recipient, contributes to genetic diversity if forms a RECOMBINANT donor DNA is incorporated into recipient DNA

52
Q

Transformation

A

recipient cell is able to take up donor DNA from a lysed bacteria cell that dies and releases DNA into the environment

53
Q

Transduction

A

A phage accidentally incorporates bacterial DNA during replication and assembly, the phage then infects another bacteria and inserts the bacterial DNA which is incorporated into the bacteria

54
Q

Conjugation

A

donor creates a pilis and passes a plasmid to neighboring bacteria, plasmids often contain multiple resistance genes, plasmid is incorporated in recipients DNA

55
Q

kirby bauer/ AST testing

A

incubating bacteria with antibiotics to find out which are effective

56
Q

Advantages/Disadvantages of PCR

A

A: culture not required, specific & sensitive, rapid, accurate, reduced risk of contamination multiplex can ID many pathogens simultaneously

D: highly precise thermal cycler needed
trained laboratory personnel needed to perform the test

57
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of DNA sequencing

A

A: 16s and 18s rDNA are gold standard, can ID fastidious and uncultivable organisms

D: trained laboratory personnel and powerful software required, expensive, not suitable for routine clinical use

58
Q

Temps and steps for PCR

A

Denaturation 94-96C
Annealing 68C
Elongation 72C

Can melt DNA apart and utilize polymerase that functions at high temperatures

59
Q

How do you target DNA you want to amplify

A

design specific primers that are added to the OH 3 prime end

60
Q

what direction does DNA polymerase work

A

3 prime to 5 prime

61
Q

what subunit is used in PCR amplification

A

the 16s subunit which is part of the 30s subunit

62
Q

What area is targeted by the primer

A

the conserved region of 16s, same for all prokaryotes

63
Q

What region is used for identification in PCR

A

The variable region of the 16s allows for identification by comparing it with the database

64
Q

What do you need for a PCR reaction

A

dNTP - nucleotides needed to build DNA
DNA Ligase
Taq Polymerase
Two primers
DNA Template
reaction buffer

65
Q

When is PCR used in medicine

A
  1. Detect disease and cancer
  2. Personalized medicine
  3. Pathogen testing
  4. efficacy of drug therapy
  5. to produce drugs – insulin
  6. directed evolution - enzymatic drug treatments
  7. organ transplant screening
66
Q

AST =

A

antibiotic susceptibility testing

67
Q

NAAT

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Test, or NAAT, is a type of viral diagnostic test for SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes COVID-19. NAATs detect genetic material (nucleic acids). NAATs for SARS-CoV-2 specifically identify the RNA (ribonucleic acid) sequences that comprise the genetic material of the virus

68
Q

qPCR

A

qPCR is a technique for the selective amplification and quantitative detection of regions of DNA or complimentary DNA (cDNA). Oligonucleotide primers flanking a region of interest are used to amplify the sequence utilizing a DNA polymerase enzyme.1 Repeated cycling of the amplification process leads to exponential expansion of the number of copies of the target region which is tracked either using an intercalating dye or sequence-specific probe whose fluorescence is then detected in the qPCR machine and plotted on an output graph.