Microbial detectives Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the risks associated with this practical?

A
  • Tubes, pipette tips or wooden sticks that have been in contact with the live organisms should be placed immediately after use into disinfectant containers or in the autoclavable bins.
  • Bunsen burner flames are a potential hazard. Don’t leave unattended
  • Acetone is flammable. Keep away from the Bunsen flame. When performing gram stains and spore stains be aware of others around you in the laboratory to avoid accidents
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2
Q

what names do we normally refer to bacteria by?

A

by their binomial genus and species names

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3
Q

What is the definitive method of identifying bacteria and fungi?

A

to determine the complete genomic DNA sequence of each isolate

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4
Q

What are the components we need for PCR?

A
  • DNA template containing original sequence of DNA to be amplified
  • Two DNA primers (forward and reverse) which target specifically the fragment to amplify
  • Taq DNA polymerase
  • dNTPs (deoxynucleotide triphosphates of adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine
  • Reaction buffers (often including MgCl2)
  • Water (to ensure final concentrations are accurate)
  • Loading buffer for the gel (not usually added to PCR mix but kit we are using includes it)
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5
Q

What are the three major steps in PCR?

A
  1. Denaturation at 90-95 degrees for 15s-1 min. Double stranded DNA melts open into single-stranded DNA molecules
  2. Annealing around 50-60 degrees for 45 secs (temp dependant on primer sequences). Drop in temperature allows the primers to find their complementary sequences on the single-stranded template and bind (anneal) through base complementarity. The templates strands also re-anneal but the primers are added in excess to out-compete other annealing events
  3. Extension at 72 degrees for 1-2 mins: the primers are in place so can ‘prime’ the synthesis of a new strand by providing a short sequence of double stranded DNA for the Taq polymerase to extend from and build a new complementary strand
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6
Q

How many times are the 3 steps in PCR repeated?

A

30 cycles or more

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7
Q

what is PCR achieved using?

A

achieved by automated heating and cooling of the tubes containing the reaction mixture in a programmable thermal cycler

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8
Q

What is the DNA fragment to be amplified determined by?

A

Where the primers bind

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9
Q

What are primers?

A

short (18-30 bp long) synthetic DNA strands that are complementary to the beginning and end of the DNA fragments to be amplified. Both primers must bind the genome only once

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10
Q

What is the ideal working temperature to Taq polymerase?

A

72 degrees

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11
Q

What does Taq polymerase do?

A

adds on the complementary dNTPs one by one to the template in the 5’-3’ direction. The Taq will stop adding dNTPs when there is no template left to read or when the extension time is over. The extension time is determined by the length of the fragment to be amplified.

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12
Q

What do universal yeast primers do?

A

bind specifically to the internal transcribed spacer regions found in eukaryotic ribosomal DNA (rRNA). These primers only bind to eukaryotic rRNA so they can be used to distinguish yeast isolates from bacterial

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13
Q

Why can PCR of the whole region (between yeast primers ITS1 and ITS4) be used to distinguish between different yeasts?

A

Because in yeast the size of the spacer ITS vary between species and genera

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14
Q

give features of PCR tubes?

A
  • tiny and hold a maximum of 0.2ml

- have thinner walls than other microcentrifuge tubes to allow efficient heat transfer

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15
Q

What is put in the PCR tube for the yeast PCR?

A
  • Two yeast DNA primers (ITS1 and ITS4)
  • Taq DNA polymerase
  • dNTPs
  • reaction buffer
  • MgCl2
  • Gel loading buffer
  • Water
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16
Q

What are the six different tubes set up in the yeast PCR?

A
  • Negative control (add 2ul water but no DNA or isolate)
  • Positive control (add 2ul yeast DNA -provided on ice)
  • Isolate A
  • Isolate B
  • Isolate C
  • Isolate D
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17
Q

How should you obtain the colony for the PCR mix?

A

When setting up A-D wooden spatulas should be used to scrape a small amount of colony from the growth plate and add directly to the PCR reaction mix in the thin-walled tube. Only very little is needed otherwise the PCR is inhibited by the cell-wall components of the sample.

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18
Q

How would water and purified yeast DNA be added to the PCR mix?

A

using a pipettor and a disposable plastic tip

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19
Q

What would you expect to see after electrophoresis of your PCR samples?

A
  • Expect to see nothing in negative control lane
  • Expect to see bases in positive control lane
  • Expect to see nothing in bacterial isolates
  • Expect to see the same as the positive control lane in yeast
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20
Q

How do you carry out the agarose gel electrophoresis for the yeast PCR?

A

• When the PCR has finished 10 ul of each PCR component is loaded on a 2% agarose gel

  1. The gel is placed into the electrophoresis tank and submerged so that the level of electrophoresis buffer is about 2m above the gel. The gel contains SafeView which is a skin irritant
  2. DNA markers (‘M’) are pipetted in Lane 1. These are molecular weight markers that can be used to calibrate the gel and serve as standards to estimate the size of the unknown DNA fragments
  3. The PCR mix including loading buffer: this contains glycerol to ensure that the DNA samples sink into the wells in the agarose gel, and a red dye, which acts as a marker dye to indicate the progress of electrophoresis. PCR sample (10ul) is loaded into separate lanes of the gel.
  4. When all the samples are loaded the samples are electrophoresed at 80-100 V until the dye has migrated to just before the end of the gel. This takes 30-45 min. After this the gel is taken out of the buffer and placed on a UV transilluminator to visualise the DNA and is photographed (gloves must be worn when handling the gel)
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21
Q

What do you know if the electrophoresis markers are resolved?

A

Electrophoresis has worked

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22
Q

Why may your positive control not show?

A

may because the enzymes are too old or you forgot to put primers in

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23
Q

How does a bacterial or fungal cell divide on an agar plate?

A

exponentially

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24
Q

What do different bacterial and fungi species have?

A

Different colony morphologies

25
Q

What are some of the potential differences between colonies?

A
  • Smell
  • Shape
  • Pigmentation
  • Margin
  • Elevation
  • Size
  • Texture
  • Appearance (glistening or dull)
  • Optical property
26
Q

How many biochemical tests are there for gram positive bacteria?

A

10

27
Q

How many biochemical tests are there for gram negative bacteria?

A

8

28
Q

what does gram staining do?

A

differentiates bacteria into two main groups depending on the structure of their cell walls. This correlates with other important properties such as sensitivity to antiseptics and antibiotics

29
Q

What are the features of gram positive bacteria?

A

thick peptidoglycan cell wall and no outer membrane

30
Q

What are the features of gram negative bacteria?

A

outer membrane and thin peptidoglycan cell wall

31
Q

Describe gram staining and what happens during it?

A
  1. Crystal violet dyes is applied to cells attached to attached to a microscope slide
  2. All bacterial cells will stain purple
  3. Addition of Lugol’s iodine allows large crystals of iodine-crystal violet to form that become enmeshed in the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cells
  4. Acetone is added which dissolved lipids in the outer membrane of the gram negative cells, allowing the dye-crystals to be removed from the thinner peptidoglycan layer.
  5. This leaves the gram negative bacteria colourless whereas the gram positive bacteria remain purple
  6. A red counterstain (safranin) is now applied so that the gram negative bacteria stain red
32
Q

What is the gram stain procedure?

A
  1. Prepare films of organisms by scraping a bacterial colony from an agar plate and mixing it into a small drop of water on a microscope slide. Use the wooden stick
  2. Allow to dry completely and then fix by passing above a blue Bunsen flame two or three times. Use forceps to avoid burning fingers
  3. Apply crystal violet and allow it to act for 60 seconds ensuring that the entire bacterial film is covered with dye
  4. Pour excess dye into the sink (you should wear gloves)
  5. Return the slide to the staining rack and apply Lugol’s iodine, leaving this to act for 60 seconds and again ensuring that the entire bacterial film is covered
  6. Pour the excess into the sink and pour acetone over the slide; immediately wash it off with water
  7. Drain the slide, place the slide on the rack and flood the whole slide with safranin leaving this to act for 60 seconds
  8. Thoroughly wash the slide with water, drain it and blot it dry with absorbent (blotting) paper
  9. When dry examine under the microscope. Focus using low magnification before moving to the oil immersion high power (x100) objective
33
Q

What should I check to find out about how to use a reticle and use an oil immersion lens?

A

Practical 2: algae and biofuels

34
Q

Give features of endospores

A
  • formed in gram-positive bacterial genera when nutrient supplies are low and the cell cannot continue to grow with exponential growth
  • spores are refractile and resistant to heat and chemicals
  • spores are found in vegetative cells
  • spores carry a thick proteinaceous coat and cannot be stained by cold basic dyes
  • can be different shapes and located in different areas of te cell
35
Q

What is the procedure of spore staining?

A
  1. Fix the specimen to the slide as for the gram stain using a wooden stick
  2. Place the slide on the staining rack in the sink and flood with malachite green. Use a Bunsen burner to keep the slide heated for approx. 1 min from below so that steam rises from the slide (but should not boil or dry)
  3. Wash thoroughly with water and tip off excess water
  4. Flood with safranin and leave for 30 seconds
  5. Thoroughly wash the slide with tap water, drain off excess and blot dry with absorbent paper. Examine under x40 before applying immersion oil for microscopy with the x100 objective. You will find it easier to see the spores if you partially close the condenser diaphragm
36
Q

Why is it easy to see the spores stand out from the vegetative cells after spore staining?

A

In this method organisms are first stained a green colour with hot malachite green; subsequent application of cold safranin superimposes a brownish red colour on the vegetative cells, and this contrasts well with the green colour of the spores (which are not penetrated by the cold red dye)

37
Q

How does the motility test take place?

A

Motility can be determined by looking at the movement of bacteria through a semi-solid medium. A needle is used to inoculate bacteria in a medium containing 0.5% agar. Non-motile bacteria will only grow along the line of inoculum, whereas motile bacteria can spread into the medium and will be seen as a cloud of turbidity throughout the bottle

38
Q

What does growth in air test and how was this carried out?

A
  • This tests the ability to grow in the presence of oxygen.

- All of the strains were incubated in standard atmospheric conditions

39
Q

How was the growth anaerobically test carried out?

A

An inoculated plate is incubated in the absence of oxygen either in an anaerobic hood or in a jar with a sachet of chemicals to remove oxygen

40
Q

Why do some bacteria produce catalase?

A

Because some bacteria are susceptible to hydrogen peroxide (which they produce) so produce the enzyme catalase which protects them from its harmful effect

41
Q

Why do some bacteria not produce catalase?

A

because they do not produce hydrogen peroxide or are not susceptible to it

42
Q

How do you test for the presence of catalase?

A
  • add a drop of H2O2 to a small amount of bacteria on a glass slide
  • the production of bubbles in oxygen will occur if any catalase is excreted by the bacteria
  • If no catalase is present, then no bubbles of gas are produced
43
Q

What colour is the cytochrome oxidase reagent when:

i) it is freshly prepared
ii) after a few moments

A
  • colourless when freshly prepared

- rapidly oxidised to a purple coloured derivative by organisms that produce both peroxidase and hydrogen peroxide

44
Q

How is the presence of oxidase test carried out?

A
  • Two or three drops of the oxidase-reagent are dropped onto a filter paper. The reagent is soaked for a few seconds so the paper is not too wet. A colony to be tested is smeared with a stick across the impregnated paper.
  • An oxidase-positive organism gives a dep purple colour on the paper immediately. Oxidase negative organisms either produce no colour change or may even show a bleaching of the paper.
45
Q

What is glucose metabolism?

A

the production of acid from carbohydrates

46
Q

What may the end products of bacterial action be?

A

neutral, acidic or gaseous

47
Q

How is the glucose metabolism test carried out?

A
  • The isolates were inoculated into a bottle of glucose-peptone media and incubated overnight at 37 degrees.
  • If acid is produced the pH indicator in the test medium is changed from a very pale yellow to red
  • If the medium has turned pink then the isolate is + for acidification of glucose
48
Q

What may the production of acid and gas from glucose result from?

A

either from oxidation or fermentation of the sugar

49
Q

How is the oxidation fermentation (O-F) test carried out?

A

In a test to distinguish between oxidisers and fermenters, two bottles of culture-medium are stab-inoculated with the test organism and allowed to grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
• Oxidisers show a pH change in the presence of oxygen but not the absence of oxygen
• Fermenters show a pH change in the absence of oxygen and may of may not change in the presence of oxygen

50
Q

What do bacteria differ in in terms of antibiotics?

A

their susceptibility

51
Q

What is innate resistance?

A

When bacteria lack the structures that are targeted by the antibiotics (e.g. no cells walls).

52
Q

How can bacteria acquire resistance?

A

by gaining ‘useful’ genes. This can occur either by direct mutation or by acquiring plasmids that contain useful genes from other bacteria.

53
Q

How is antibiotic susceptibility testing (AST) performed?

A

By spreading a lawn of bacteria on a plate and adding sterile filter paper discs impregnated with different antibiotics. The antibiotics diffuse through the agar creating a concentration that kills (bactericidal effect) or inhibits (bacteriostatic effect) sensitive bacteria. Bacteria will not grow near the filter paper if they are susceptible to the action of the antibiotic
• However if they are resistant to the antibiotic there will be growth right up to the edge of the discs

54
Q

What are zones of inhibition?

A

the zones bacteria don’t grow on because they are susceptible to the antibiotic

55
Q

Where does the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) appear?

A

At the edge of the zone of inhibition

56
Q

When is the Kirby-Bauer method used?

A

to determine if the organism is sensitive to a range of antibiotics

57
Q

How is the Kirby-Bauer disc method carried out?

A
  • A lawn of bacteria is plated and several discs containing different antibiotics are placed around the plate
  • The ensuing zones of inhibition are measured and can be compared to a known standard to determine if the organism is resistant, susceptible or if there is an ‘indeterminate’ result to each antibiotic
  • A lawn of bacteria is seen if the bacteria are resistant to the antibiotics found in the KB ring; a zone of inhibition forms around the antibiotic disc if the bacteria are susceptible
58
Q

What search can you use on the NCBI database to definitively identify organisms?

A

the BLAST search