MICRO MINIMAL QUESTIONS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What does sterilisation mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of germs are reduced to a safety level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?

A
  • the number of the germs
  • the resistance of the germs
  • the concentration of the disinfectants
  • the presence of the organic materials
  • the initial time
  • the presence of the biofilm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?

A
  • 180 C for 1 hour
  • 160 C for 2 hours
  • 140 C for 3 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

+ 1 atm overpressure, 121 C, for 20-30 minutes

OR

+2 atm overpressure, 134 C, for 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?

A
  • Etilene oxide
  • Formaldehyde
  • Beta-propiolacton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A
  • Hydrogen-peroxide (H2O2) in high electric field will form plasma stage.
  • The produced free radicals will kill the microbes.
  • At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other nontoxic products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biological method used for checking the effectivity of the sterilisation.

A
  • By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothemophilus spores.

- It the procedure was performed in correct way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; the blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on non-living surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A
  • O: cell wall
  • H: flagella
  • K: capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro antigen-antibody reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines?

A

Live attenuated microbe;

  • killed microbe
  • toxoid
  • antigens of the microbe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

The microbe is examined without killing procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of information can we get by light microscopically examination? (3 examples)

A
  • size of the microbe
  • shape of the microbe
  • motility of the microbe
  • the staining can be examined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The solutions of the Gram-stain?

A
  • Sodium oxalate
  • Crystal violet
  • Iodine solution
  • 96% of ethanol
  • Fuchsin or Safranin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A
  • Anaerostate
  • Gas-pack jar
  • High agar
  • Anaerobic chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definitions: bacteriostatic, bactericide

A
  1. Bacteriostatic - inhibits bacterial growth

2. Bactericide - kills bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition: selective toxicity

A
  • The antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Chemotherapeutic index?

A

Dosis tolerata maxima (DTM)/dosis curativa minima (DCM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?

A
  • Penicillin
  • Cephalosporin
  • Carbapenem
  • Glycopeptide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glycopeptide antibiotics

A
  • Vancomycin

- Teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:

A
  • Polymixines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 examples)

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracycline
  • Macrolide
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Linezolid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are… (2 examples)

A
  • Quinolones
  • Rifampicin
  • Sulphonamide
  • Trimethoprim
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer?

A
  1. Conjugation (plasmid)
  2. Transduction (bacteriophage)
  3. Transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Antibiotic resistance mechanism are..

A
  • Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics
  • Efflux pump
  • Modifying of the antibiotic binding site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does MRSA mean?

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

35
Q

What does ESBL mean?

A

Extended Spectrum of Beta Lactamase enzyme

36
Q

What does MIC mean?

A

Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.

37
Q

What does MBC mean?

A

Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml

38
Q

Definitions: MBL, MACI, PACI

A
  1. MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase
  2. MACI: multi-resistant Acinetobacter
  3. PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter
39
Q

Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?

A
  1. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b)
  2. Preventar/Pneumovax (against 13/23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae)
  3. Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) - but NOT B!
40
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of typical pneumonia?

A

Sputum and haemoculture

41
Q

What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiology diagnostics laboratory in case of atypical pneumonia?

A
  • Blood
  • Urine
  • Broncho-alveolar lavage
42
Q

What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin?

A

Infections caused by bacterial exotoxins:

  • tetanus
  • botulism
  • diphtheria
43
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with catalase test?

A
  • Staphylococci (+)

- Streptococci (-)

44
Q

Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-. so called “coagulase-negative staphylococci”)

45
Q

Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci

A

Gram-positive cocci, arranged in grape-like structures

46
Q

Colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate

A
  • Average size
  • Round colonies with butter consistency
  • Golden pigment production
  • Beta-haemolysis
47
Q

What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus Aureus? (3 examples)

A
  • Protein A
  • Endocoagulase (clumping factor)
  • Exocoagulase
  • Adhezins
  • Teicoic acid
  • Hialuronidase
  • Protease
  • Lipase
    DN-ase
48
Q

What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus Aureus?

A
  • Leucocidin
  • Toxic shock syndrome toxin
  • Exfoliative toxin
  • Enterotoxin
  • Haemolysin
49
Q

Disease caused by Staphylococcus Aureus?

A
  • Folliculitis
  • Furuncle
  • Carbuncle
  • Impetigo
  • Pneumonia
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Food poisoning
50
Q

Diseases caused by Staphylococcus Aureus exotoxins? (2 examples)

A
  • Food poisoning
  • Scalded skin syndrome
  • Toxic shock syndrome
51
Q

List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species !

A
  • S. Epidermidis
  • S. Saprophyticus
  • S. Haemolyticus
  • S. Lugdunesis
52
Q

Diseases caused by coagulase negative Staphylococci?

A
  • Nosocomial infections

- Biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices

53
Q

Which bacterium can cause “Honeymoon cystitis”?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

54
Q

Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate?

A
  • Small
  • Pin-point colonies
  • Surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone
55
Q

Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?

A
  • Streptococcus pyogenes

- Streptococcus agalactiae

56
Q

Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Viridans streptococci (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)

57
Q

Which species is the Lancefield group A Streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

58
Q

Which species is the Lancfield group B streptococcus?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

59
Q

What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

60
Q

Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or Erythrogenic toxin

61
Q

What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?

A

Hyaluronic acid

62
Q

Disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)

A
  • Pharyngitis
  • Tonsillitis
  • Sinusitis
  • Impetigo
  • Erysipelas
  • Necrotising fasciitis
  • Scarlet fever
  • TSST
63
Q

What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A
  • Acute rheumatic fever

- Glomerulonephritis

64
Q

Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?

A
  • Streptococcus pyogenes

- Streptococcus agalactiae

65
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused in new-borns by streptococcus agalactiae?

A

In new born meningitis, sepsis, penumonia

66
Q

Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

67
Q

Microscopic morphology of streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Gram-positive diplococci

68
Q

How can be prevented the invasive disease caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule (adults) or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine (children, elderly)

69
Q

Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance

A

Streptococcus pneumonia (S) and Viridans streptococci (R)

70
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by viridans group streptococci?

A

Dental decay or endocarditis

71
Q

What are the two most frequent Enterococcus species?

A

E. Faecalis and E. Faecium

72
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci

73
Q

What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar

74
Q

Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Gram-negative, capsulate diplococci

75
Q

How can Neisseria meningitidis spread?

A

By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx

76
Q

What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Meningitis
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
77
Q

What kind of diseases can be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A
  • Gonorrhoea
  • Blenorrhoea neonatorum
  • Proctitis
  • Orchitis
78
Q

What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

79
Q

What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A
  • Macroscopic examination
  • Gram-stain
  • Latex agglutination
80
Q

What can we do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis infection?

A

Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin

81
Q

What can cause Neisseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?

A

Opthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum

82
Q

Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?

A

The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule “b” serotype.

83
Q

How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?

A

By Hib vaccine