Micro- Infections in Recipients of Solid Organ Transplantation Flashcards

1
Q

What is presensitization for SOT?

A

when the transplant recipient has a high number of preformed circulating anti-HLA antibodies leading to increased risk of rejection of the transplanted organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do antiproliferative agents used for immunosuppression do?
Which drugs are anti-proliferatives?

A

Anti-proliferative drugs inhibit purine synthesis which limits B and T cell division and proliferation blunting CELL-MEDIATED immunity

  1. azathioprine
  2. Mycophenolate Mofetil [MMF]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of MMF?

What 2 infections does it put patients at an increased risk for?

A

It is inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor which disrupts de novo purine synthesis

[disrupts guanine synthesis]

It puts patients at increased risk for:

  1. BK nephropathy
  2. CMV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do corticosteroids cause immunosuppression?

A

They block T-cell and APC cytokine expression:

  1. impairing T-cell activation/proliferation [IL-2]
  2. inhibiting inflammatory response [IL-1]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ultimate result of using corticosteroids?

A
  1. lymphocytopenia, monocytopenia, neutrophilia

2. antibody suppression only occurs at high doses for long periods of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MOA of polyclonal anti-lymphocyte antibodies?

A

Opsonize leukocytes and platelets and elicit immune suppression via T-cell inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For how long does lymphopenia last after giving a patient polyclonal anti-lymphocyte antibodies?
What syndrome can be caused by this?
What infections are patients at an increased risk for?

A

lymphopenia lasts for a year and has increased infection risk for over 3 months after administration.

Cytokine release syndrome due to ativation of T-cell before it is destroyed:
fever, chills, pulm edema, aseptic meningitis

Increased risk of:

  1. viral infection
  2. lymphoid malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 main polyclonal anti-lymphocyte antibodies?

A
  1. ATG [anti-thymocyte globulin] = rabbit

2. ATGAM [anti-human thymocyte globulin] = equine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 5 monoclonal antibodies used in host immunosuppression?
What specifically do they each attack?

A
  1. OKT3 = anti-CD3
  2. Basiliximab, Daclizumab = anti CD25
  3. Alemtuzumab = anti CD52
  4. belatacept = CTLA4-Ig complex that binds to APCs
  5. rituximab = anti CD20
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of OKT3?

What is the major side effect?

A

It is anti-CD3 and depresses T-cells via TCR transduction blockade

[Does not allow activation of T-cells]

SIDE EFFECT = cytokine release syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is MOA of basiliximab, daclizumab?

A

They are anti CD-25 so they block IL-2R inhibiting clonal proliferation and differentiation of activated T cells.

  • no cytokine storm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the MOA of alemtuzumab? What is the major side effect?

A

It is anti-CD52, so it binds T, B, NK, monocytes and macrophages that have CD52.

This leads to Ab-dependent, cell-mediated lysis.

Side effect: neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of rituximab?

What is it specifically used for?

A

It is anti-CD20 and targets B cell lymphocytes.

It is used to reduce presensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the MOA of calcineurin inhibitors?

What are the 2?

A

Block calcineurin and inhibit T-cell activation and IL-2 production

  1. Cyclosporine
    - isolated from tolypocladium
  2. tacrolimus
    - isolated from streptomyces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of mTOR inhibitors?
How do they compare to calcineurin inhibitors?
What is the main example?
What 2 side effects?

A

They inhibit mTOR thus blocking G0 to G1 transition and G1-S phase of T-cell activation.

They are more selective than CIs.

Sirolimus

Side effects: delayed wound healing, oral ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What 4 factors affect risk of infection in SOT?

A
  1. time period after transplant
  2. type of transplant
  3. pre-transplant exposure
  4. donor-derived infections
17
Q

What factors contribute to a patients “net state of immunosuppression”?

A
  1. type, dose, timing of immunosuppressive meds
  2. Immunomodulatory viruses:
    - CMV, EBV, HIV, HBV, HCV
  3. diabetes or renal insufficiency
18
Q

What epidemiologic exposures affect a patients risk of infection post-transplant?

A
  1. nosocomial vs. CA
  2. exposure pre and post transplant
  3. prophylaxis
19
Q

What is given as prophylaxis if the patient has:

  1. CMV
  2. PCP
  3. Fungal infection
  4. TB
A
  1. ganciclovir/valganciclovir
  2. TMP- SMX or [dapsone, atovaquone, inhaled pentamide]
  3. nystatin, fluconazole, ampho B
  4. pyridoxine, isoniazid
20
Q

What are the 3 most common infections that occur in the first month after SOT?

A
  1. Nosocomial infections predominate
    - ventilator pneumo, CVC bacteremia, UTIs
  2. Bacterial & Candida from surgical technique and post-op care
  3. donor-derived infection
21
Q

What time period after SOT has the highest net state of immunosuppression?

A

1-6 months

22
Q

What infections are most common in the intermediate post-transplant stage [1-6 months]?

A
  1. viral reactivation - CMV, EBV, HBV, HCV
  2. opportunistic infections
    - aspergillus
    - Cryptococcus
    - nocardia
    - listeria
    - t. gondii
23
Q

What causes reactivation of CMV during intermediate posttransplant stage?

A

discontinuation of gangiclovir prophylaxis

24
Q

What type of infection predominates the late post-transplant stage [over 6 months]?

A

community-acquired infections because not the patient is at home with a good allograft and minimal suppression.

  1. Viral respiratory infections: Flu, parainfluenza, RSV, adenovirus, human metapneumovirus
  2. bacterial respiratory infections: legionella, pneumococcus
25
Which organ when transplanted has the lowest number of incidence of infection with scarce deep fungal infection?
Renal
26
What infection is most associated with renal transplant?
1. UTIs | 2. pyelonephritis [if within the first 3 months, reduced graft survival]
27
What type of transplant carries the highest risk of bacteremia and the second highest rate of deep fungal infections?
Liver transplant
28
What types of infections predominate liver transplants? What are the infections related to? What organisms are most present?
1. biliary tract 2. abdominal These infections are related to surgical complications like: abscesses, peritonitis, cholangitis Enteric G-, enterococci, anaerobes, staph, candida
29
What increases the risk of bacterial infection with liver transplant?
1. prolonged surgery duration 2. multiple transfusions 3. repeated transplants 4. CMV
30
What increases the risk of a deep fungal infection post liver transplant?
1. elevated Cr 2. long surgery 3. repeated transplant 4. Fe overload 5. candida
31
Which organ transplant has the highest rate of infection OVERALL? Why?
Heart-Lung or Lung 1. decreased mucocililary clearance 2. decreased lymphatic drainage 3. absent cough reflex 4. environmental exposure 5. ischemia at anastomoses 6. allograft rejection --> bronchiolitis obliterans
32
Which transplant has: 1. second highest rate of bacteremia 2. highest rate of mediastinitis 3. highest rate of deep fungal infections 4. highest rate of CMV reactivation 5. highest mortality from infection?
lung
33
What is bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome?
Chronic allograft rejection with decreased FEV1
34
What infections predominate with heart transplants?
1. lung infections | 2. endocarditis within the first month
35
With a heart transplant, what infectious agents are associated with mediastinitis and sternal wound infections?
1. s. aureus | 2. s. epidermitis [coag neg staph]
36
What 4 infections can occur in heart transplants?
1. mediastinitis, sternal wound = staph aureus, coag neg staph 2. Toxo from infected donor 3. nocardiasis 4. chaga's - reactivation of T. cruzi
37
What 10 things are studied for pre-transplant history for the recipient?
1, HSV 2. CMV 3. EBV 4. HBV 5. HCV 6. RPR [syphilis] 7. VZV 8. T. gondii 9. TB 10. HIV
38
What tests are done on donors to see if they are eligible to donate organs?
1. HIV 1/2, PCR to "catch" window period 2. RPR/VDRL 3. HepB 4. Hep C 5. EBV 6. CMV 7. tracheal swabs for lung transplants 8. urine/blood culture if febrile or with leukocytosis