Micro Basics Flashcards

1
Q

What is microbiology?

A

Study of entities too small to be seen with the unaided human eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the golden age of micro, scientists searched for answers for what?

A

Fermentation, disease, and prevention of disease/infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whats defined as generally any abnormal condition in the body?

A

Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prior to 1800’s disease was attributed to what various factors?

A

Evil spirits, astrological signs, imbalances in body fluids… etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Whats included in the triad or triangle of health?

A

Host, Agent and Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Robert Koch studied what?

A

Causation of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Koch was in a race with Pasteur to discover the cause of?

A

Anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When Bacillus anthraces was discovered it was the first time that a bacterium was prove to cause a

A

Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Koch also discovered the cause of?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Koch discovered the method of?

A

Isolation (agar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Semmelweis discovered what?

A

Handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lister discovered what?

A

Antiseptic Technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Snow discovered what?

A

Infection control/Field of Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Jenner discovered what?

A

Smallpox vaccine/Field of Immunology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

John snow determines that cause of the?

A

Cholera transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pasteur discovered vaccines against what?

A

Fowl cholera, anthrax, and rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Variant creutzfeldt jakob disease is an?

A

Emerging Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

vCJD affects the brain by slowly eroding nervous tissue and leaving the brain full of?

A

Sponge-like holes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

vCJD has no?

A

Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the processes of life?

A
  1. Growth
  2. Reproduction
  3. Responsiveness
  4. Metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prokaryotes lack a?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prokaryotes lack internal membrane bound?

A

Organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prokaryotes have what type of DNA?

A

Circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prokaryotes are smaller in diameter than?

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prokaryotes have what type of structure?

A

Simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prokaryotes are composed of what?

A

Bacteria and Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eukaryotes have a?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Eukaryotes have internal membrane bound

A

Organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of DNA do eukaryotes have?

A

Linear DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Eukaryotes are larger in diameter than?

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Eukaryotes have what type of structure?

A

More Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Eukaryotes are composed of what?

A

Algae, protozoa, fungi, animals and plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What microbe has had more impact on our society than any other microbe?

A

Saccharomyces Cerevisiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is credited for the IDEA of germ theory?

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What’s the singular most important characteristic that differentiates eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

A

Nucleus*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the external structures of bacterial cells?

A

Glycocalyces, Flagella, Fimbrae & Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 2 types of glycocalyces?

A

Capsule and Slime Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What glycocalaces are firmly attached to cell surface?

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What glycocalaces are loosely attached to cell surface?

A

Slime Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What prevents bacteria from being recognized by host?

A

Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What sticky layer allows prokaryotes to attach to surfaces?

A

Slime Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are responsible for movement?

A

Flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Flagella have long structures that extend?

A

Beyond cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Flagella is composed of what 3 parts?

A
  1. Filament
  2. Hook
  3. Basal Body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Flagella are NOT present on all?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Whats the function of flagella?

A

Propel bacteria through environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Rotation of flagella is reversible and can be?

A

Clockwise or Counterclockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the term used to describe bacteria moving in response to stimuli?

A

Taxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fimbrae and Pili are what type of extensions?

A

Rod-like Protienaceous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fimbriae has what type of projections?

A

Sticky, bristlelike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Fimbriae are used by bacteria to?

A

Adhere to one another, hosts, and substances in environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Fimbrae are shorter than?

A

Flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fimbrae serve an important function in?

A

Biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pili are tubules composed of?

A

Pilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pili are also known as ?

A

Conjugation Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pili are longer than fimbrae but shorter than?

A

Flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bacteria typically only have?

A

1-2 fimbrae per cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Pili mediate the transfer of DNA from one cell to another. This is known as?

A

Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bacterial cell walls provide structure and shape and protect cell from?

A

Osmotic Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Bacterial Cell walls assist some cells in attaching to other cells or in?

A

Resisting antimicrobial drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Bacterial cell walls give bacterial cells?

A

Characteristic shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bacterial cells walls are composed of?

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 2 types of bacterial cell walls?

A

Gram + and Gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Gram + cell walls have a relatively?

A

Thick layer of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gram + contain unique polyalcohols called?

A

Teichoic Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Gram + are what color following a gram staining procedure?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Gram - have only a?

A

Thin layer of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

With Gram -, there is a bilayer membrane outside the peptidoglycan which contains

A

Phospholipids, protiens and Lipopolysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What color is gram - following a gram staining procedure?

A

Magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the passive processes?

A

Diffusion
Facilitated Diffusion
Osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the active processes?

A

Active Transport

Group Translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

With group translocation the substance is chemically modified during?

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Dehydration of the cell is known as:

A

Crenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A typical bacterial cell (with a cell wall) which has a solute concentration of 0.85% NaCl is placed into a tube containing a solution that has a 0.2% NaCl concentration. What type of solution is this?

A

Hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bacterial cells in hypotonic solution will swell up until it can’t anymore. What will happen to the cell wall?

A

It will NOT burst because the cell wall prevents it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of solution has an equal concentration of solutes on the outside as the inside?

A

Isotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of solution has a high concentration of solutes outside the cell?

A

Hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In a hypertonic solution the cell will?

A

Shrink (crenate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of solution has a low concentration of solutes outside the cell?

A

Hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In a hypotonic solution, the cell (no cell wall) will?

A

Burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The cytoplasm of bacteria includes?

A

Inclusions and Endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Inclusions may include reserve deposits of?

A

Chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Inclusions are stored when nutrients are in abundance and used when?

A

Nutrients are scarce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What has unique structures produced by some bacteria that are a defensive strategy against unfavorable conditions?

A

Endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Endospores are only produced by organisms in Genus?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the site of synthesis in prokaryotes?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes are?

A

70S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes are composed of 2 subunits which are?

A

30S and 50S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What lacks cell walls?

A

Animals and most protozoans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Fungi, algae, plants, and some protozoa DO HAVE?

A

Cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Endocytosis is specific to?

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Whats the physical manipulation of cytoplasmic membrane around cytoskeleton and forms pseudopodia?

A

Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When a solid is imported into the cell, it’s known as?

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When a liquid is imported into the cell, it’s known as?

A

Pinocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When substances are exported from the cell, it’s known as?

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Ribosomes in eukaryotes have what structure?

A

80S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of what 2 subunits?

A

60S and 40S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have what type of ribosomes?

A

70S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Microscope with a dark field has a?

A

Dark Background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Microscope with a light field has a?

A

Light Background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What’s the system that classifies organisms based on characteristics in common?

A

Linnaeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Linnaeus used what?

A

Binomial Nomenclature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How do you list genus and species?

A

Genus is capitalized and species is not capitalized. They should both be italicized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Linnaeus proposed what 2 kingdoms?

A

Animals and Plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Who proposed taxonomic approach based on 5 kingdoms?

A

Whittaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What were the 5 kingdoms Whittaker proposed?

A
Animalia
Plantae
Fungi
Protista
Prokaryotae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Who compared nucleotide sequences of rRNA subunits?

A

Carl Woese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Carol Woese proposed what 3 domains as determined by rRNA sequeces?

A

Eukarya
Bacteria
Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Cells in eukarya, bacteria and archaea also differ with respect to many other?

A

Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Carl Woese’s toxonomy is the?

A

Current way of organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Bacteria and Archaea are both?

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Eukarya have 5 subclasses which include?

A
Animals
Plants
Fungi
Protozoans
Algae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Helminths are classified as?

A

Animals (Eukaryotes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The shortest distance between 2 points on a specimen that can still be distinguished by the observer as separate entities is known as?

A

Resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The difference in intensity between 2 objects or between an object and background is?

A

Contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Contrast is important in determining?

A

Resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What increases contrast and resolution by coloring specimens with stains/dyes?

A

Staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Smear of microorganisms (thin film) made prior to staining must be?

A

Fixed with heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Crystal Violet stain is?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Safranin stain is?

A

Magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Methylene blue stain is?

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Malachite green stain is?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Carbol fuchsin stain is?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What stain has a crystal violet primary stain>

A

Gram Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What’s used to decolorize?

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What counterstain is used in a gram stain?

A

Safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A purple gram stain is?

A

Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

A magenta gram stain is

A

Gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What group of bacteria don’t have the typical peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

Mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Mycobacteria have cell walls with a high waxy mycolic acid content making them resistant to?

A

Decolorization by acids during staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Mycobacteria is referred to as?

A

Acid-Fast Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Whats the primary stain in acid-fast?

A

Carbol Fuchsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What’s the counterstain in acid-fast?

A

Methylene Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The red acid fast cells are?

A

Mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The blue non-acid fast cells are?

A

Human tissue and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What’s the primary stain for and endospore stain?

A

Malachite green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What’s the counterstain for an endospore stain?

A

Safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

If the cells are green they are?

A

Endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

If the cells are magenta they are?

A

Vegetative cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

A series of paired statements where only one or two “either/or” choices applies to any particular organism is know as a?

A

Dichotomous Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Dichotomous Key directs the user to another pair of statements or provides?

A

Name of organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What disease is caused due to S. pyogenes?

A

Necrotizing Fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

When speaking of reproductive activities of microbes, use what term to refer to an increase in the size of a population of microbes?

A

Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

An aggregation of cells arising from a single parent cell is?

A

Colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

A collection of microbes in a complex community is?

A

Biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is the MC biofilm?

A

Plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What uses carbon dioxide (self) and light?

A

Photoautotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What uses carbon dioxide (self) and chemical compounds?

A

Chemoautotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What uses organic compounds (outside self) and light

A

Photoheterotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What uses organic compounds (outside self) and chemical compounds?

A

Chemoheterotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the photoautotrophs?

A
Plants
Some protozoa
Algae
Bacteria
Archaea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the chemoautotrophs?

A

Bacteria and Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What are the photoheterotrophs?

A

Bacteria and Archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the chemoheterotrophs?

A

Animals, fungi, and other protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the growth requirements for microorganisms?

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Temperature
  3. pH
  4. Moisture
  5. Osmotic Pressure
  6. Light
  7. Food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Microorganisms vary widely in their?

A

Oxygen requirements for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

As a rule, temperature is the what, affecting the growth of microorganisms?

A

Most important Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Bacteria can grow within a range of?

A

Temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What organisms prefer cold temperatures?

A

Physhrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What organisms prefer moderate temperatures?

A

Mesophilic

161
Q

What organisms prefer high temperatures?

A

Hyper Thermophilic

162
Q

The most pathogenic organisms are?

A

Mesophiles

163
Q

Mesophiles are usually about?

A

Normal human body temp

164
Q

Most microorganisms thrive in a pH range of?

165
Q

Most animal pathogens work best near a pH of?

166
Q

Vegetative cell maintenance and growth requires?

167
Q

Food and waste are transported through the cell wall in?

A

Water Solutions

168
Q

What is a building material necessary in cell synthesis?

169
Q

Osmotic pressure is created by?

170
Q

Cell in a hypertonic environment:

A

Water is drawn out of the cell

171
Q

Cell in hypotonic environment:

A

Water is drawn into the cell

172
Q

Green and purple pigmented bacteria use what as a source of part of all of their energy?

173
Q

In comparison, most pathogens are killed by?

A

Direct Sunlight

174
Q

Both UV rays and warmth?

A

Harm bacteria

175
Q

Organisms require what for building cell components and proteins and for the energy necessary for cell survival?

176
Q

Microbial activity is limited when food supplies become?

177
Q

The amount and type of food available will have an impact on the organism’s?

A

Survival and growth

178
Q

Which growth requirement is most critical to the survivability of the organism?

A

Temperature

179
Q

A sample is called an:

180
Q

A collection of nutrients such as broth or solid is called a?

181
Q

Microorganisms that grow from an inoculum is called a?

182
Q

The act of cultivating microorganisms is known as?

183
Q

Cultures that are visible on the surface of solid media is called?

184
Q

Some microbes are not particular and can be grown in a variety of media, while others require?

A

Specific Nutrients

185
Q

What are 2 types of culture media?

A

Selective media

Differential Media

186
Q

The exact chemical composition of defined (synthetic) media is?

187
Q

Defined Media is usually composed of?

A

Pure Biochemicals off the shelf

188
Q

The exact chemical composition of complex media is?

189
Q

Complex media usually contain complex materials of biological origin such as?

A

Blood or milk

Yeast or Beef extract

190
Q

What media can support a wider variety of microogranisms

A

Complex Media

191
Q

What media contains substances that favor or inhibit the growth of particular organisms?

A

Selective Media

192
Q

What media has a presence of visible changes in medium or differences in the appearance of colonies that help differentiate organisms?

A

Differential Media

193
Q

What is the selective media for fungus?

A

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar

194
Q

What is the differential media for streptococcus?

A

Blood Agar

195
Q

What media only allows gram -?

A

MacConkey Agar

196
Q

MacConkey Agar is a combination of?

A

Selective and Differential Medias

197
Q

Small molecules of extra chromosomal DNA that replicate independently are known as?

198
Q

Plasmids are not essential for normal?

A

Metabolism
Growth
Reproduction

199
Q

Plasmids can confer?

A

Survival Advantages

200
Q

What are the different types of plasmids?

A

Fertility factors (F plasmids)
Resistance factors (R plasmids)
Bacteriocin factors
Virulence Plasmids

201
Q

F plasmids carry the instructions for?

A

Conjugation

202
Q

R plasmids carry genes for?

A

REsistance to Antibiotics

203
Q

Bacteriocin factors carry genes for?

A

Toxins called bacteriocins.

204
Q

Bacteriocin can kill it’s?

A

Competitors

205
Q

Virulence plasmids carry instructions that?

A

Enable bacterium to become pathogenic

206
Q

Organisms that replicate their genomes and provide copies to descendants is called?

A

Vertical Gene Transfer

207
Q

Vertical gene transfer is a normal process in both?

A

Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes

208
Q

What is it called when genes are acquired from other microbes of the same generation?

A

Horizontal Gene Transfer

209
Q

With horizontal gene transfer, the donor cell contributes part of the genomes to?

A

Recipient cell (may be different species)

210
Q

What are the 3 types of horizontal gene transfer in prokaryotes?

A

Transformation
Transduction
Bacterial Conjugation

211
Q

When the recipient cell takes up DNA from environment it’s called?

A

Transformation

212
Q

The cells that take up DNA during transformation are called?

213
Q

Transformation occurs in only a few types of?

214
Q

The transfer of DNA from one cell to another via a replicating virus is called?

A

Transduction

215
Q

Tranducing phage carries what from donor to recipient?

A

Random DNA segment

216
Q

With transduction only certain donor DNA sequences are?

A

Transferred

217
Q

A virus that attacks bacteria is called a?

A

Bacteriophage

218
Q

What is it called when the transfer of DNA from one cell to another is mediated by conjugation pili?

A

Conjugation

219
Q

In conjugation, the donor cell requires?

A

F plasmid (F+)

220
Q

In conjugation, the recipient cell LACKS?

A

F plasmid (F-)

221
Q

Bacterial conjugation has no offspring and do not?

222
Q

What emerging disease infects a person by penetrating directly into a deep wound, cut or even a tiny scratch?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

223
Q

What are the typical prokaryote morphologies?

A
Coccus (sphere)
Bacillus (rod)
Vibrio (comma)
Spirochete (spiral)
Pleomorphic (many shapes)
224
Q

All prokaryotic cells reproduce?

225
Q

What are the 3 main methods of asexual reproduction in prokaryotic cells?

A

Binary Fission
Snapping Division
Budding

226
Q

What type of asexual reproduction is most common?

A

Binary Fission

227
Q

Binary fission starts with 1 parent cell and ends with?

A

2 daughter cells

228
Q

Snapping division is a variation of binary fission, except the cell doesn’t completely?

A

Separate (stays connected by a hinge)

229
Q

With budding, it starts with 1 parent cell and ends with?

A

1 parent and 1 daughter cell

230
Q

2 cocci is called a?

A

Diplococci

231
Q

A chain of cocci is called?

A

Streptococci

232
Q

A 4 square arrangement of cocci is called?

233
Q

A cubed shaped arrangement is called a?

234
Q

If the arrangement of cocci is in any direction/orientation/cluster it is called?

A

Staphylococci

235
Q

2 bacillus is called?

A

Diplobacilli

236
Q

A chain of bacilli is called?

A

Streoptobacilli

237
Q

What reemerging disease is usually considered a childhood disease but can also strike adults?

238
Q

What are the eukayotic microbes of clinical interest?

A

Protozoa
Fungi
Parasitic Helminths

239
Q

Reproduction in eukaryotes is more complicated than?

A

Prokaryotes

240
Q

Eukaryotes have a variety of reproduction methods which include?

A
Binary Fission
Budding
Fragmentation
Spore Formation
Schizogony
241
Q

Eukaryotes may also reproduce sexually by forming?

A

Gametes and Zygotes

242
Q

Algae, fungi and some protozoa reproduce BOTH?

A

Sexually and Asexually

243
Q

Protozoa typically LACK a?

244
Q

Protozoa require moist environments and very few are?

245
Q

Protozoa are characterized by great morphological diversity and most reproduce?

A

Asexually Only

246
Q

All protozoa produce?

A

Trophozoites

247
Q

Trophozoites are in the?

A

Motile Feeding Stage

248
Q

Some protozoa produce?

249
Q

Cysts are in the?

A

Hardy Resting Stage

250
Q

Some protozoa have?

A

Contractile vacuoles

251
Q

Contractile vacuoles actively pump water from the cells, protecting them from?

A

Osmotic Lysis

252
Q

Fungi produce?

A

Antibiotics

253
Q

30% of fungi cause?

A

Diseases of plants
Animals
Humans (mycoses)

254
Q

What can spoil fruit, pickles, jams, and jellies?

255
Q

In fungal morphology what is a thallus?

A

Non-reproductive body

256
Q

The thalli of molds are composed of long branched tubular filaments called?

257
Q

Fungi that produce 2 types of thalli are called?

258
Q

Generally, yeast form of dimorphics cause?

259
Q

A tangled mass of hyphae is called?

260
Q

All fungi have some means of?

A

Asexual Reproduction

261
Q

Most fungi reproduce?

262
Q

Yeasts bud in a manner similar to?

A

Prokaryotic Budding

263
Q

A series of buds that remain attached to one another and to the parent cell is called?

A

Pseudohypha

264
Q

Pseudohypha are found in?

A

Candida albicans

265
Q

What produced lightweight spores that disperse over large distances?

A

Filamentous Fungi

266
Q

What is a rare, but increasingly frequent pathogen of the immunocompromised?

A

Aspergillosis

267
Q

Aspergillosis is an emerging disease and is treated with?

A

Antifungal medication

268
Q

What is a minuscule, acellular infectious agent having either DNA or RNA?

269
Q

Viruses cause many infections of?

A

Humans
Animals
Plants
Bacteria

270
Q

What causes most of the diseases that plague the industrialized world?

271
Q

The extracellular state of a virus is called a?

272
Q

What surrounds a nucleic acid core of a virus?

A

Protein Coat (Capsid)

273
Q

The capsid and nucleic acid core together are referred to as?

A

Nucleocapsid

274
Q

Some virions have a?

A

Phospholipid enevelope

275
Q

A phospholipid envelope is the outer structure that encloses the?

A

Nucleocapsids of some viruses

276
Q

Once the virus is inside the host, the?

A

Capsid is removed

277
Q

Virus exist simply as?

A

Nucleic Acid

278
Q

The process of getting rid of the capsid is called/

279
Q

Most viruses infect only particular?

A

Host’s cells

280
Q

Viruses may be what, that they only infect particular kind of cell in a particular host?

281
Q

Some viruses infect many kinds of cells in many different host. These viruses are called?

A

Generalists

282
Q

What types of organisms are susceptible to some sort of viral attack?

A

All types of organisms

283
Q

What are the viral shapes?

A

Complex
Helical
Polyhedral

284
Q

What is the most common viral shape?

A

Polyhedral (icosahedron)

285
Q

Complex viral shapes have capsids of?

A

Many Shapes

286
Q

Rabies has a complex shape which is called a?

A

Bullet Shaped Capsid

287
Q

Polyhedral viral shape is a?

A

Geodesic Dome

288
Q

Helical viral shape is?

289
Q

The viral envelop is acquired form?

A

Host Cell during viral replication or release

290
Q

Some viral envelopes have viral glycoproteins that project, called?

291
Q

What’s the function of the viral envelope?

A

Provide Protection
Host Recognition
Help virus enter host cell

292
Q

If a virus has an envelope, it’s called a?

A

Enveloped Virion

293
Q

If a virus has no envelope, it’s called a?

A

Non enveloped/naked Virion

294
Q

Viruses are classified by?

A

Type of nucleic acid
Presence of an envelope
Shape
Size

295
Q

Viruses have recognized viral?

A

Family and genus names

296
Q

Virions are dependent on hosts organelles and enzymes to produce new?

297
Q

What replication cycle usually results in death and lysis of host cell?

A

Lytic Replication

298
Q

What are the stages of lytic replication cycle?

A
Attachment
Entry
Synthesis
Assembly
Release
299
Q

In the attachment stage, the virion attaches to?

300
Q

In the entry stage, the virion or genome enter into?

301
Q

In the synthesis stage, what’s synthesized by the hosts cells enzymes and ribosomes?

A

New Nucleic Acids

Viral Proteins

302
Q

In the assembly stage, the new virions within the host cell are?

303
Q

In the release stage, what is released?

A

New Virions from host cell

304
Q

Lysis results in?

A

Death of the cell

305
Q

What is a modified replication cycle where infected host cells grow and reproduce normally for generations before they lyse?

306
Q

What are prophages?

A

Inactvie Phages

307
Q

When phages carry genes that alter phenotype of a bacterium it is called?

A

Lysogenic Conversion

308
Q

Lysogenic conversion can turn bacterium from harmless into a?

309
Q

Animal viruses have the same basic replication pathway as?

A

Bacteriophages

310
Q

The differences in replication pathways of animals viruses include?

A

Presence of envelope around some viruses
Eukaryotic nature of animal cells
Lack of cell walls in animal cells

311
Q

Animal viruses have what type of attraction?

312
Q

Animal viruses do not have?

A

Tails or Tail Fibers

313
Q

Animal viruses have what that mediate attachment

A

Glycoprotein Spikes

Other Attachment Molecules

314
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of entry into animal viruses?

A

Direct Penetration
Membrane Fusion
Endocytosis

315
Q

Membrane fusion fuses with?

A

Host cell membrane

316
Q

With endocytosis, brings solid into cell and engulfs the?

A

Entire Virus

317
Q

The process of budding in enveloped viruses, has no?

318
Q

What is it called when animal viruses remain dormant in host cells?

A

Latent virus or Provirus

319
Q

Latent viruses may be prolonged for?

A

Years with no viral activity

320
Q

Some latent viruses do not become incorporated in the?

A

Host’s Chomrosome

321
Q

Incorporation of provirus into host DNA is?

322
Q

Culturing viruses in the lab in mature organisms include

A

Bacteria

Plants and Animals

323
Q

Culturing viruses in lab in embryonated chicken eggs is?

A

Inexpensive

324
Q

In embryonated chicken eggs, they are free of contaminated microbes and contain a?

A

Nourishing Yolk

325
Q

Embryonated chicken eggs are among the?

326
Q

Culturing a virus in lab in cell culture, consists of cells isolated from an organism and grown on a?

A

Medium or in broth

327
Q

What are proteinaceous infectious agents that lack nucleic acids?

328
Q

What are made by all mammals and is the normal structure with alpha helices?

A

Cellular PrP protein

329
Q

What is a disease causing form with Beta sheets?

330
Q

Prion PrP converts Cellular PrP into Prion PrP by inducing?

A

Conformational Change

331
Q

Prions are only destroyed by?

A

Incineration

Autoclaving in sodium hydroxide

332
Q

The expression of prion diseases in most predominant in ?

A

Nervous System

333
Q

With prion diseases, large vacuoles form in the brain and have a what appearance?

334
Q

Spongiform encephalopathies include?

A

BSE
vCJD
Kuru

335
Q

Prions composed of different proteins may lie behind other muscular and neuronal degenerative diseases including?

A

Alzheimers disease
Parkinson’s Disease
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

336
Q

Aedes Albopictus causes what emerging disease?

A

Chikungunya

337
Q

The use of microorganisms in food production prevents?

A

Food Spoilage

Food related illnesses

338
Q

Any desirable change that occurs to a food or beverage as a result of microbial growth is called?

A

Fermentation

339
Q

Many common products result from fermentation of?

A

vegetables
meats
dairy products

340
Q

Starter cultures are used in?

A

Commercial food and beverage production

341
Q

Starter cultures are composed of known microorganisms that consistently perform specific?

A

Fermemtation

342
Q

Adverse changes to a food due to the action of microorganisms is called?

343
Q

Undesirable metabolic reactions, growth of pathogens and the presence of unwanted microorganisms in food is due to?

344
Q

What are some common fermented foods?

A
Grain
Vegetable 
Beans 
Fruit 
Dairy 
Honey
345
Q

The acid produced by bacteria during fermentation curdles?

346
Q

Curds are separated by from the whey and provide the base of?

347
Q

Whats due to consumption of spoiled foods or foods containing harmful microbes or their products?

A

Foodborne Illness

348
Q

Symptoms of food borne illnesses include?

A
Nausea 
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Fever
Fatigue
Muscle Cramps
349
Q

What are the 2 categories of food poisoning?

A

Food infection

Food Intoxication

350
Q

Food infections is due to consumption of?

A

Living Microorganism

351
Q

Food intoxication is due to consumption of?

A

Microbial toxin rather than the microbe

352
Q

1 in 6 americans get?

A

Food borne illness every year

353
Q

Where do food borne illnesses come from?

A

MC–> Food Service Industry

  1. Home preparation
  2. Unknown
354
Q

Physical water pollution is the presence of?

A

Particulate Matter

355
Q

Chemical water pollution is the presence of?

A

Inorganic or Organic Compounds

356
Q

Biological water pollution is due to too many or not native?

A

Microorganisms

357
Q

Polluted waters supports a greater than normal?

A

Microbial Load

358
Q

Consuming contaminated water can cause various diseases such as?

A

Diarrheal Diseases (worldwide)

359
Q

Waterborne diseases are rare in?

360
Q

Water treatment removes most?

A

Water borne pathogens

361
Q

What virus affects people living in close quarters and is due to poor personal hygiene?

A

Norovirus Gastroenteritis

362
Q

What is water that considered safe to drink?

A

Portable water

363
Q

Water is not devoid of microorganisms and chemicals, but levels are low enough that it is not a?

A

Health Concern

364
Q

The presence of what in water indicates fecal contamination?

365
Q

Presence of coliforms increases the likelihood that what’s present?

A

Disease-causing microbes

366
Q

Treatment of drinking water involves what four stages?

A
  1. Coagulation and Flocculation
  2. Sedimentation
  3. Filtration
  4. Disinfection
367
Q

Sedimentation removes?

A

Large and Particulate materials

368
Q

Filtration removes microbes by 3 methods such as?

A
  1. Sand Filtration
  2. Activated Charcoal
  3. Membrane filtration
369
Q

Inactivation of remaining microbes is removed by disinfection including?

A

Chlorine
Ozone
UV Light

370
Q

What does remediate mean?

A

To solve a problem

371
Q

to use biological organisms to solve an environmental problem such as contaminated soil or groundwater is known as?

A

Bio-remediate

372
Q

Bio-remediation uses organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous or recalcitrant compounds by?

A

Degrading them to harmless compounds

373
Q

What uses microbes or their toxins to terrorize human populations?

A

Bioterrorism

374
Q

What uses microbes to terrorize human populations by destroying the food supply?

A

Agroterrorism

375
Q

What are the criteria for assessing biological threats to humans?

A
  1. Public Health impact
  2. Delivery potential
  3. Public perception
  4. Public Health preparedness
376
Q

Public health impact depends on the ability of hospitals and clinic to?

A

Handle the casualties

377
Q

Delivery potential means how easy the agent can be introduced into the?

A

Population

378
Q

Public perception is the effect of public fear on the ability to control an?

379
Q

Public health preparedness is associated with existing?

A

Response Measures

380
Q

Biosafety level one handles the pathogens that?

A

Do not cause disease in healthy humans

381
Q

Biosafety level two handles?

A

Moderately hazardous agents

382
Q

Biosafety level three handles microbes in?

A

Safety Cabinets

383
Q

Biosafety level 3 may cause serious or potentially lethal disease after?

A

Inhalation

384
Q

Biosafety level four handles microbes that cause?

A

Severe or Fatal diseases

385
Q

Traits of various agents could be combined to create novel agents and no immunity would?

A

Exist in the population

386
Q

Terrorist theoretically could make their own?

387
Q

Genetic technology in bioterrorism could be used to?

A

Thwart Bioterrorism

388
Q

Scientist can identify unique sequences that may aid in tracking biological agents and determining their?

389
Q

Genetic techniques could help develop?

A

Vaccines
Treatments
Pathogen-resistant crops

390
Q

Normal Microbiota is also called?

A

Normal flora

Indigenous Microbiota

391
Q

Organisms that colonize the body’s surfaces without normally causing disease is called?

A

Normal Microbiota

392
Q

What remains part of normal microbiota of a person for life?

A

Resident Microbiota

393
Q

What remains in the body for few hours, days, months before disappearing?

A

Transient Microbiota

394
Q

What are the sites that are free of any microbes and are never colonize by normal flora?

395
Q

If microbes colonize in which areas, they are considered to be abnormal?

A
Alveoli of Lungs
CNS
Circulatory system
Upper urogential regions
Uterus
396
Q

In the uterus there is no exposure to?

A

Microbiota (Axenic)

397
Q

Normal microbiota begins to develop during?

A

Birth Process

398
Q

During the birthing process what happens for the baby to develop normal microbiota?

A

Mouth and nose through birth canal
first breath
handling by staff and family

399
Q

Most of ones resident microbiota is established during?

A

1st month of life