Micro 107 Unit 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is the only Enteric bacteria whcih is oxidase positive?

A

Plesiomonas spp.

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2
Q

What are the selective and differential media for Enterobacteriacae(Enterics)?

A

MAC, EMB, HE(K), XLD.

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3
Q

What is MAC differential for?

A

Lactose fermentation

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4
Q

What is EMB differential for?

A

Lactose and Sucrose fermentation

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5
Q

What is HE(K) differential for?

A

Lactose and Sucrose fermentation. Bile salts inhibit gram-positive and some gram-negative

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6
Q

What color do Shigella colonies apear as on AXD agar?

A

Colorless or red

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7
Q

What are the two major types of pathogens?

A

Opportunistic: Normal Flora
Primary: Ingesting contaminated food or water

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8
Q

What are the key 3 primary Enteric pathogens?

A

Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia

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9
Q

What are the general characteristics of Escherichia coli (E. coli)

A

Dry pink colony with a halo on MAC
Green metallic sheen on EMB

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10
Q

What are the key tests described in the IMViC accryonym

A

Indole
Methyl red
Voges-Proskauer
Citrate

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11
Q

What is the IMViC for E. coli

A

++–

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12
Q

What carbs does E. coli ferment

A

Glucose, Lactose, Trehalose, and Xylose
GTXL

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13
Q

Why is Uropathogenic E. coli clinically significant

A

Most common cause of UTI’s in humans

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14
Q

What are the 5 major categories of E. coli

A

ETEC
EPEC
EIEC
EHEC
Enteroadherent
- DAEC
- EAEC

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15
Q

What climate is ETEC generally acquired in giving it the name “travelers diarrhea”

A

tropical and subtropical climates

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16
Q

Where do EPEC outbreaks occur

A

Nurseries and daycares

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17
Q

What conditions can EHEC O157:H7 lead to

A

Hemorrhagic diarrhea
Colitis
Watery diarrhea progressing to bloody diarrhea in young children and elderly
HUS

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18
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for E. coli O157:H7

A

Primary screening on a stool culture
MAC agar with sorbitol (SMAC)

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19
Q

What seperates E. coli 157:H7 from most other E. coli

A

Does not ferment sorbitol in 48 hours

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20
Q

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Pantonea, Cronobacter, and Hafnia are associated with what kind of infections

A

opporunistic and nosocomial

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21
Q

Klebsiella pnumoniae is the most common isolate of the Klebsiella family and appears ______ on a BAP

A

moist, gray, mucoid colonies

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22
Q

What are the 4 clinically significant species of Enterobacter

A

E. cloacae
E. aerogenes
E. geroviae
E. hormaechei

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23
Q

Which 2 Enterobacter species are the most commonly isolated

A

E. CLoacae
E. aerogenes

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24
Q

Proteus Species are what kind of bacteria

A

normal intestinal microbiota (Normal Flora)

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25
Q

What is the colony morphology of Proteus spp.

A

Swarming colonies and a distinct “burnt chocolate” smell

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26
Q

The Morganella spp.’s only species, M. morganii is isolated in ___ infections and is a cause of ___

A

UTI
Neonatal Sepsis

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27
Q

P. stuartii is implicated in nosoomial outbreaks in what unit of the hospital

A

Burn unit

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28
Q

P. stuartii is isolated in ___ cultres

A

Urine

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29
Q

What makes Providencia spp. difficult to treat

A

High resistance to antimicrobials

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30
Q

Edwardsiella does not grow on what medium

A

Simmon’s citrate

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31
Q

Of the 11 Citrobacter spp. what are the 3 most common isolated

A

C. freundii
C. koseri
C. braakii

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32
Q

What infection is C. freundii associated with

A

UTI

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33
Q

What infection is C. koseri associated with

A

Neonatal Meningitis

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34
Q

What is the colony morphology of Salmonella spp.

A

Clear, colorless, non-lactose fermenting colonies with black centers on MAC agar

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35
Q

What tests do we run to dfferentiate Salmonella subgroups

A

Lysine decarboxylase rules out S. paratyphi
Ornithone decarboxylase rules out S. typhi
Trehalose fermentation rules out S. cholaraesuis

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36
Q

What is the primary virulence factor of S. enterica

A

Enterotoxin: involved in gastroenteritis

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37
Q

Clinical infections of S. enterica present as ____ and are caused by ___

A

Food poisoning with vomiting and diarrhea

Ingestion of organism in contaminated food

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38
Q

When do symptoms of S. enterica appear

A

8-36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food

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39
Q

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis (Salmonellosis) are ____

A

Self Limiting

40
Q

Development of Typhoid fever, caused by S. typhi can lead to

A

Fever, malaise, anorexia, lethargy, myalgia, and a dull headache

41
Q

Define Carrier State

A

Individuals who recover from infection but harbor the organisms in the gallbladder

42
Q

All Shigella spp. can cause ___

43
Q

The only resivoir of Shigella spp. is ___

44
Q

Local inflammation and shedding of intestinal lining containing mucus, blood, ulcer formation, and tenesmes (rectal prolapse)

45
Q

Biochemical identificaton of SHigella spp.

A

No urease production
No H2S in TSI
Nonmotile

46
Q

Which Yersinia spp. is considered a class A bioterrorism agent

47
Q

Y. pestis causes _____

A

Plague in the Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms

48
Q

When does the septicemic form of the plague occur

A

when the bacteria migrate to the bloodstream

49
Q

What specialized agar is used for the identification of Y. enterocolitica

50
Q

What cultures is Kluyvera isolated from

A

Respiratory, Urine, and Blood

51
Q

What transport media must labs provide for Enterobacteriaceae

A

Cairy-blair
Amies
Stuart

52
Q

What should all fecal specimens be screened for

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter

53
Q

What selective media should be used for stool specimens

A

HE(K)
XLD
EMB

54
Q

What environment is Vibrio commonly found in

A

Aquatic environments including fresh and salt water

55
Q

An increase in the isolation of Vibrio can be linked to

A

Increased consumption of seafood
Undercooked or raw seafood

56
Q

V. cholera is the causative agent of ____

57
Q

Where does V. cholera originate

A

The Bengal region of India and Bangledesh

58
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cholera

A

Severe acute gastroenteritis
Rice-water stool ( stool with fleks of mucus)

59
Q

What is the recomended treatment of cholera

A

IV and oral fluids containing electrolytes

60
Q

What is the second most common Vibrio spp.

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

61
Q

V. parahaemolyticus was discovered in ___

A

Japan in 1950
Known as summer diarrhea

62
Q

As of 2007 the CDC requires that cases of _____ be reported to local and state public health agencies

A

V. vulnificus

63
Q

If clinical history indicates Vibrios use

A

thiosulfate, citrate, bile salts, sucrose
(TCBS agar)

64
Q

Biochemical identification of Vibrios spp.

A

Catalase positive
Oxidase positive
Ferments glucose
Reduces nitrate to nitrite
Susceptible to Vibriostat disc

65
Q

Biochemical identification of Aeromonas

A

Oxidase positibe
Indole positive

66
Q

Where is Plesimonas found

A

Soil and aquatic environments

67
Q

What are the 3 major clinical types of gastroenteritis

A

Watery diarrhea
Subacute or chronic disease( 2 weeks to 3 months)
Dysenenteric form resemblig cholitis

68
Q

Who is most at risk of Plesimonas

A

Vets and zookeepers

69
Q

What agar can be used to enhance the isolation of Plesimonads

70
Q

Biochemical Identification of Plesimonas

A

Oxidase Positive

71
Q

What is unique to Campylobacter spp.

A

They are Microaerophillic organisms
- They require oxygen but at a concentration of only 5%

72
Q

The transmisson of Campylobacterioses has ben attributed to

A

Infected pets such as dogs cats and birds

73
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis

A

Campylobacter jejuni

74
Q

What symptoms follow infection of Campylobacer jejuni

A

Cramps, bloody diarrhea, fever, chills, and rarely nausea and vomiting

75
Q

Helicobacter pylori is repsonsible for

A

Damaging tissue, resulting in gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers

76
Q

What transport medium must be used for Campylobacter

A

Cary-Blair for stool samples

77
Q

What environment must Campylobacter plates be incubated in

A

Microaerophillic, and Capnophilic
5%-10% oxygen and 10% CO2 at 42*C

78
Q

What is the microscopic morphology of Campylobacter

A

Non-spore forming gram negative rods
S or segull-wing shape

79
Q

biochemical identification of Campylobacter

A

Oxidase positive
Exhibits a “darting” motility on hanging drop preperations

80
Q

For the laboratory identification of Helicobacter, gastric biopsy can be tested for the presens of a ___

A

Rapid Urease reaction

81
Q

Rapid Urease reaction test

A

Requires christensen’s urea
Rapid color change in 2 hours

82
Q

Another commercial rapid test for Helicobacter

A

Urea breath test

83
Q

Miscellaneous Gram negative bacilli

A

Do not ferment carbohydrates
grow only in aerobic environments
prefer moist environments

84
Q

Clinical infections of non-fermenters

A

Account for 15% of all gram-negative bacilli isolated in clinial infections (Pseudomonas aeruginosa 5-15%)

85
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa accounts for ____ of all nosocomial infections, especially pneumonia and bacteremia

86
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause

A

pulmonary disease, especially among individuals with cystic fibrosis

87
Q

What is the primary virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Alginate
-A polysaccharide polymer

88
Q

Overproduction of the Alginate factor in Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces

A

Mucoid colonies. Seen primarily in cystic fibrosis patients

89
Q

Laboratory identification of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Many strains produce a fruity grape like odor caused by the presence of 2-aminoacetophenone

90
Q

Biochemical identification of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Motile
Indole negative
ADH positive
Growth at 42*C

91
Q

Antimicrobial susceptibility for Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Carbapenems
Flouroquinolones

92
Q

Clinical infections for P. stutzeri

A

Endocarditis
Septic arthritis
Conjunctivitis

93
Q

Culture and colony morphology for P, stutzeri

A

Wrinkled, leathery, adherent colonies that may produce a light yellow or brown pigment

94
Q

P. mendocina is considered

A

A contaminant

95
Q

Acinetobacter spp. appears as

A

gram negative coccobacilli