MI: Bacterial and Viral Vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

What R0 is required for a disease to be halted?

A

R0 < 1

R0 = number of people infected by one infectious person

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2
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

Form of immunity that occurs when vaccination of a significant proportion of the population provides a measure of protection for individuals that are not immune

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3
Q

What is the herd immunity threshold?

A

Threshold = 1 - 1/R0

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4
Q

What are the main immunological targets of vaccines?

A

Lymphocytes and antibody production

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5
Q

Which other response is important for live-attenuated vaccines?

A

T cell response to destroy infected cells

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6
Q

What are the three main types of memory cell?

A
  • Memory B cells
  • Memory killer T cells
  • Memory T helper cells
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7
Q

What are protective antigens?

A

Microbial components that give rise to a protective immune response to future infection

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8
Q

What’s an inactivated vaccine?

A

Inactivated

  • Whole organism is detroyed (using heat, radiation or antibiotics)
  • NO risk of causing infection in the host
  • Immune response may not be particularly strong or long-lasting
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9
Q

What’s a live attenuated vaccine

A

Live attenuated

  • Live organisms are modified to be less virulent
  • Risk of acquiring virulence
  • Should be avoided in pregnant women and immunocompromised patients
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10
Q

What’s a toxoid vaccine?

A

Toxoid

  • Inactivated toxin components
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11
Q

What’s a subunit vaccine?

A

Subunit

  • Protein components of the microorganisms or synthetic virus-like particles
  • Lack genetic material and are unable to replicate
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12
Q

What’s a conjugate vaccine?

A

Conjugate

  • Poorly immunogenic antigens are paired with a protein that is highly immunogenic (adjuvant)
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13
Q

What’s a heterotypic vaccine?

A

Heterotypic

  • Using pathogens that infect other animals but do NOT cause disease in humans
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14
Q

List some examples of the following types of vaccines:

  1. Inactivated
  2. Live attenuated
  3. Toxoid
  4. Subunit
  5. Conjugate
  6. Heterotypic
A
  1. Inactivated
    • Influenza
    • Polio
    • Cholera
  2. Live attenuated
    • MMR
    • Yello fever
  3. Toxoid
    • Diphteria
    • Tetanus
  4. Subunit
    • Hepatitis B
    • HPV
  5. Conjugate
    • Haemophilus influenza type B
  6. Heterotypic
    • BCG
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15
Q

What are stabilisers?

A

Substances that are added to the vaccine to keep it chemicall stable

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16
Q

What is a commonly used adjuvant?

A

Aluminium hydroxide

17
Q

Why are antibiotics sometimes mixed with vaccines?

A

Prevent contamination

18
Q

What are the determinants of the antibody response to a vaccine?

A
  • Vaccine type
  • Antigen nature
  • Vaccination schedule
19
Q

List some contraindications for vaccines.

A
  • Previous anaphylactic reactions
  • Anaphylactic reaction to egg is contraindicated with the influenza vaccine
  • Immunocompromised and pregnant women should not receive live attenuated vaccines
  • If acutely unwell on the day of vaccination
  • DTP is contraindicated if evidence of neurological abnormality
20
Q

List some examples of serious reactions associated with the following vaccines:

  1. DTP
  2. Poliovirus
  3. Measles
  4. Rubella
  5. T/DT/Td
  6. Hepatitis B
A
  1. DTP​
    • Encephalopathy
    • Shock
    • Anaphylaxis
  2. Poliovirus
    • Guillian-Barre syndrome
    • Polio
  3. Measles
    • Anaphylaxis
    • Thrombocytopaenia
  4. Rubella
    • Acute arthritis
  5. T/DT/Td
    • Guillian-Barre syndrome
    • Brachial neuritis
    • Anaphylaxis
  6. Hepatitis B
    • Anaphylaxis
21
Q

List some prerequisites for successful disease eradication.

A
  • No animal reservoir
  • Antigenically stable pathogen with one/few strains
  • No latent reservoir of infection and no integration of pathogenic material into host genome
  • Vaccine induces a lasting immune response
  • High coverage of vaccination
22
Q

Describe the typical presentation of measles.

A
  • Fever
  • Rash (appearing 4 days after fever)
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Coryzal symptoms
23
Q

When are patients with measles infectious?

A

4 days before rash to 4 days after rash