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mh-65 aircraft > MH65 1U-65A-1 Study > Flashcards

MH65 1U-65A-1 Study Flashcards

1
Q

Rotor diameter

A

39 ft 2 in

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2
Q

Overall static length

A

44ft 5in

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3
Q

Height to top of rotor head

A

12 ft 9in

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4
Q

Height to top of fin

A

13 ft 5in

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5
Q

Cyclic full forward, dynamic

A

5 ft 2 in

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6
Q

What are the engines named?

A

Turbomecca Adriel 2c2-cg

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7
Q

What are the shp ratings?

A

1058 shp single engine operation, 853 shp for dual engine operation, 100% mob torque represents 1294 shp

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8
Q

What are the five modules?

A
  1. Transmission shaft and accessory gearbox
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9
Q

How many fuel nozzles in each engine?

A

2

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10
Q

At what rpm does the centrifugal wheel rotate inside the combustion chamber?

A

52000 rpm

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11
Q

How is the free power turbine connected to the gas generator?

A

It is mechanically independent

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12
Q

What does the reduction gearbox do?

A

Reduces engine power turbine speed from 39000rpm at 100% n2 to 6000 rpm engine output shaft speed

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13
Q

What does the gas generator turbine turn at at 100% n1?

A

52000 rpm

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14
Q

Where is n1c sent?

A

Ebcau and vemd

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15
Q

What is n1c measured by?

A

Electro magnetic sensor mounted on the fadec alternator driveshaft

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16
Q

What are n1a andn1b derived from?

A

Dual channel engine alternators

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17
Q

What does the gas generator drive?

A

Oil pump, starter generator, fuel pump, and faded alternator

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18
Q

Where are the three sensors that measure n2?

A

Reduction gearbox casing and power turbine case

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19
Q

Where is n2a transmitted?

A

Nr gauge in cockpit

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20
Q

Where are n2b and n2c transmitted?

A

Faded and vemd for n2 speed control and overspeed protection

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21
Q

What does the power turbine drive?

A

Output shaft and engine compartment cooling fan

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22
Q

Each engine is protected from overspeed by what?

A

It’s respective faded in conjunction with the engine interface unit (bim)

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23
Q

When will the fadec operate the stop electro-valve via the bim and shut the engine down?

A

When n2 b and n2c sensors detect an n2 speed of 122.5% /-1%

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24
Q

Once an engine is shut down by the faded/bim, what is inhibited?

A

Overspeed protection on the second engine

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25
Q

Once tripped the system will remain in overspeed mode until what?

A

Bim is reset

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26
Q

The bim acts as a what between the faded and respective engine?

A

Start relay

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27
Q

At what pressure does the respective eng oil 1 and eng oil 2 p, located on the wca panel, illuminates in addition to the red engine status light on the overhead quadrant?

A

When oil pressure drops below 25 psi minimum

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28
Q

What does the conformation box do?

A

Provides average tot signal to faded and vemd

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29
Q

What are the three vemd modules?

A

One display module and two processing modules

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30
Q

Where do the vemd processing modules receive info?

A

Both fadecs and air data unit

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31
Q

What are the three vemd modes?

A

Operational, maintenance, configuration

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32
Q

What do the processing modules receive info from?

A

Both fadecs and air data unit

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33
Q

What are the three modes?

A

Operational, maintenance, configuration

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34
Q

How do you set the vemd in nvg compatible mode?

A

Pressing both brt and brt- buttons simultaneously for 3 seconds

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35
Q

What does vemd stand for?

A

Vehicle and engine multifunction display

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36
Q

Under normal conditions what will the screens display?

A

Top LCD: first limit indicator

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37
Q

If either screen fails, what will remain on other screen?

A

Scrollable between fli, vehicle, and fuel pages. Epc and system status page will no longer be available

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38
Q

What is the bleed air symbol and when is it displayed?

A

Green and white striped rectangle, anytime respective bleed air valve is open

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39
Q

What parameters does the fli zone display?

A

Torque (trq) turbine outlet temperature (tot) and engine turbine speed ( n1)

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40
Q

What does the single needle in the center of the screen measure in fli?

A

Parameter closest to reaching it’s limit

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41
Q

What is displayed on fli page when training mode is active?

A

A yellow triangle with the letter t inside

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42
Q

What is displayed on fli page when bleed air is used for cabin heating?

A

White circle inside a white square with a diagonal bar through it

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43
Q

When will the fli appear in aeo (all engine operating) mode?

A

Both engine n1 are above 40% and neither fadec is in oei, training or idle status

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44
Q

What is max continuous?

A

8.8 fli

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45
Q

What is max takeoff?

A

10

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46
Q

What is max transient?

A

10.7

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47
Q

What does the hips arm counter look like?

A

White pie shape underneath the needle

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48
Q

When will the hipsarm counter appear?

A

When fli needle exceeds 8.8 for 5 minutes with either n1 or tot as the limiting parameter or anytime max takeoff power is exceeded and either n1 or tot is the limiting parameter

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49
Q

How long will the hipsarm counter flash before turning solid white at 30 minutes?

A

2 minutes and 30 seconds

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50
Q

When will the fli start mode appear?

A

Whenever either fadec is in stop mode or the n1 of the engine is increasing and lower than 60% or decreasing and lower than 40%

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51
Q

In fli start mode the digital value for tot will be underlined with flashing red line when? Solid red line?

A

Tot greater than 750c … Tot reaches 840c

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52
Q

When will the fli oei mode be displayed?

A

Whenever n1 of either engine is lower than 40% or either engine is in idle

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53
Q

What does the single engine display include?

A
  1. Yellow dashed bar indicating continuous oei power
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54
Q

When will the fli oei training mode be displayed?

A

Anytime both engine n1’s are above 40% and fadec is in training mode

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55
Q

What are the engine parameters displayed on the simulated failed engine?

A

Actual engine values of trq tot and n1

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56
Q

When will the oei gov mode be displayed?

A

Whenever n1 on both engines is higher than40% and one of the fadecs is in an oei state but not in an idle state

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57
Q

Oei gov mode resembles aeo display with what exceptions?

A

The current oei setting will be displayed in the upper information zone and the maximum transient limit ( red diode) will shift to match the max takeoff power

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58
Q

What parameters does the vehicle page display?

A

Engine oil temperature, engine oil pressure, mgb oil pressure, mgb oil temperature, primary and secondary hydraulic pressures

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59
Q

What does the vehicle page display?

A

Engine oil temperature, mgb oil temperature, engine oil pressure, mgb oil pressure, primary and secondary hydraulic pressures, oat fuel state and fuel endurance

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60
Q

What does the fuel page display?

A

Fuel pressure, fuel flow, quantity and endurance

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61
Q

When fuel bar and quantity change to amber and a “low” alert appear?

A

Whenever fuel quantity drops below 3%

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62
Q

What annunciations does the fuel page contain?

A

Eng 1 chip, eng 2 chip, mgb chip, tgb chip, servo limit, pedal limit, ldg lock

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63
Q

When can an epc be performed?

A

Whenever nr is between 340 and 360 rpm, n1 is between 92 and 101% and the bleed air valve is closed

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64
Q

What does the system status page display?

A

Fadec system data

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65
Q

What is generated automatically at the end of each flight?

A

Flight report

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66
Q

The maintenance mode allows the recall of what?

A

Past 256 internal vemd failures, last 8 epc results, last seven flight reports, last two flights worth of over limit recording

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67
Q

The maintenance mode is only accessible when?

A

On ground, and when vemd is off

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68
Q

How many boost pumps are incorporated into each fuel system?

A

2

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69
Q

The outlet side of the low pressure pump is fitted with a switch that will activate the eng fuel p on wca whenever fuel pressure is less than what?

A

8.4 psi

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70
Q

When fuel filt 1 or fuel filt 2 caution light illuminate?

A

If pressure differential across the filter increases to approximately 10 psi and pre blockage switch closes

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71
Q

Actual bypassing of the fuel filter occurs at what?

A

17 psi differential

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72
Q

Fuel enters the metering assembly where flow is controlled by what?

A

Fadec

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73
Q

On startup fuel flow is preset to a basic flow amount based on what to allow proper starting of the engine?

A

Oat and residual tot

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74
Q

What maintains a constant fuel pressure differential across a metering valve?

A

A bypass valve

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75
Q

What is actuated when the fadec sends a fuel demand and controls the fuel flow and returns a signal to the fadec?

A

Dual stepper motor

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76
Q

What will illuminate in the event of a dual stepper motor failure?

A

Fadec fail

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77
Q

Upon shutdown the stepper motor automatically goes to what position?

A

Closed

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78
Q

Which part of the engine driven fuel pump is centrifugal and includes an impeller that is driven proportional to the n1 speed?

A

Low pressure pump

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79
Q

Which part of engine driven fuel pump is a gear type pump?

A

High pressure pump

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80
Q

How many cells does the number 1 fuel system have?

A
  1. Right forward, left forward, left center
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81
Q

What is the combined capacity of the number one fuel system?

A

964 lbs

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82
Q

How many cells does the no. 2 fuel system have?

A
  1. Right center and aft
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83
Q

What is the combined capacity of the no. 2 fuel system?

A

1005 lbs

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84
Q

Each fuel system has an engine feed tank..what is the capacity of each tank?

A

43 lbs

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85
Q

What shall be on if operating above 8000ft to prevent a possible feed tank failure?

A

Both boost pumps

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86
Q

What is the fuel jettison rate?

A

270 lbs per minute

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87
Q

When will jettison able fuel be exhausted?

A

6.5 minutes

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88
Q

What will remain after jettison able fuel is exhausted?

A

43 lbs in each feed tank plus residual fuel which is retained by cells without a jettison valve…158 lbs in no. 1 system and 174 lbs in the right system

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89
Q

The remaining fuel after jettisoning is consumable except for what?

A

27 lbs in the left system, 14 lbs in the right system

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90
Q

What functions during hifr to provide overfill protection?

A

High level shutoff

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91
Q

What is the maximum allowable pressure for pressure refueling?

A

55 psi

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92
Q

Which cell is not provided with a variable capacitor fuel gauge transmitter?

A

Forward right cell

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93
Q

When will the feed tank 1 and feed tank 2 lights illuminate?

A

Feed tank drops below approximately 37 lbs

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94
Q

What is indicated fuel at normal hover attitude (4 degrees nose up)?

A

10% less than actual fuel

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95
Q

A pressure relief valve refitted oil to the inlet side of the pump at what?

A

218.5 psi

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96
Q

The oil filter also incorporates what?

A

Fuel- oil heat exchanger

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97
Q

The pre blockage indicator will activate at what in the oil system?

A

36 psi

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98
Q

Actual bypass of filter occurs at what?

A

82 psi

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99
Q

The low pressure switch activates when oil drops below what?

A

25 psi

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100
Q

How many magnetic plugs will give the pilots an indication on the vemd and wca panels?

A

One

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101
Q

When will the oil bypass the cooler?

A

Oil temp is less than 45 degrees

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102
Q

Each oil tank has what capacity?

A

2 gallons

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103
Q

Proper servicing levels of oil will be checked when?

A

Within 15 minutes of engine shutdown

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104
Q

Where should the oil level be during a preflight?

A

Between minuend max lines

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105
Q

What provides air flow through the coolers?

A

A fan driven by the mgb, above 75 kias forward, ram air alone is sufficient

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106
Q

What are the main functions of the fadec?

A

Starting, speed control, automatic backup control, overspeed protection, system monitoring, and fault management

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107
Q

The fadec is redundantly powered by what?

A

Engine driven, dual channel alternators as well as aircraft power supply

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108
Q

What will happen if both alternators fail?

A

The internal transformer rectifier will allow the fadec to operate normally on dc power

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109
Q

The fadec is designed to match what in both engines?

A

N1

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110
Q

What happens if neither channel can control the engine?

A

A major fadec failure has occured and fuel metering is frozen

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111
Q

Backup operation is available through what?

A

Emergency backup control auxiliary unit ( ebcau)

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112
Q

When is the fadec energized?

A

When the battery is turned-on and will perform a self test

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113
Q

Fadec fault detection logic will prevent the second engine from starting on what?

A

An alternate power source

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114
Q

What will happen if there is a failure of tot or oat inputs upon start?

A

Fadec will use conservative baseline parameters to avoid overtemperature

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115
Q

When will automatic engine shutdown occur during the start phase?

A

Fadec detects a tot of 840 degrees c or if the tot does not exceed 100 degrees c by 27% n1

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116
Q

In the event of an inflight restart, the start sequence will not initiate until when?

A

N1 is below 17%

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117
Q

What happens when the fcs is placed in the idle position?

A

The engine will complete the start sequence and remain at 68% n1

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118
Q

In idle, the fadec is powered by it’s dual channel alternator once n1 reaches what?

A

65%

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119
Q

What enables the rotor brake to remain engaged for the start of one engine only?

A

Engine start-low idle function

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120
Q

What will the engine idle at with start RBk/ on?

A

52%

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121
Q

The engine will remain at 52% with engine start- low idle function until what?

A

Mode is canceled and rotor brake is released

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122
Q

During flight, collective lever position represents the power required and will determine the n1 operating datum. What is this function also known as?

A

Anticipation

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123
Q

What are the nr hi limitations?

A

135 kias and 40 degrees angle of bank

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124
Q

How is n2 datum calculated?

A

Calculated according to the control mode and dependent on aircraft altitude

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125
Q

What is designed to increase rotor rpm at higher altitudes to maintain rotor efficiency and reduce surcharge noise signature?

A

Variable nr system ( which is a function of the n2 controller)

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126
Q

Above 1650 ft nr is increased 1 rpm for every how many feet? It will increase to a maximum of 360 rpm at what altitude?

A

840 ft, 5740 ft

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127
Q

If the nr system fails, the nr will default to what?

A

360 rpm

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128
Q

In normal torque limitation flight envelope, where does the fadec stop torque at?

A

110%

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129
Q

The fadec will begin increasing trq up to 118% (11.8) when nr decreases to what?

A

< 335 rpm

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130
Q

If nr continues to decrease to less than 317 rpm, the torque stop will increase up to a minimum of what?

A

125% (12.5)

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131
Q

At what drooping rate will the torque stop be immediately increased to a minimum of 125% as soon as nr reaches 324 rpm?

A

2 rpm/ second

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132
Q

What is a level 1 fadec failure?

A

Loss of redundancy

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133
Q

Level 1 fadec failures will be annotated by what?

A

Flashing gov light on the wca panel

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134
Q

What is a level 2 fadec failure?

A

Loss of non redundant resource

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135
Q

What will a level 2 fadec failure manifest?

A

Steady gov light on the wca panel

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136
Q

What is a level 3 fadec failure?

A

Major fadec failure

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137
Q

What is the hips arm power rating and when is hips arm used?

A

Rating is a dual engine rating above max continuous (8.8) and below the maximum takeoff power (10.0)… Used during demanding hover maneuvers

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138
Q

What is not used to determine hips arm time?

A

Engine torque

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139
Q

What is enabled any time the fadec detects a 6% n1 split or a frozen fuel meter in oei?

A

The oei hi operation is enabled; if in training mode, the oei lo range

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140
Q

How is the ebcau energized?

A

Switching the fadec normal/ backup control switch

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141
Q

What happens when the training mode is selected by placing the switch in either idle 1 or idle 2?

A

The simulated failed engine is governed to 320rpm n2 and the oei training mode is displayed on the vemd

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142
Q

What will happen to the idled engine in training mode if nr droops to 320 rpm?

A

The n2 controller on the idled engine will increase n1 and power the mgb to prevent excessive droop below 320 rpm

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143
Q

Nr will not increase above 320rpm in the training mode until what happens?

A

The collective is reduced to a power level below the good engines topping (approximately 62% torque)

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144
Q

When nr droops below 320 in training mode, the idled engine will continue to increase torque without regard to what?

A

Aircraft limitations

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145
Q

When should the training switch be switchedback to the flight position?

A

With the fli below8.0 and the nr stable at 355rpm

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146
Q

The two bimetallic fire detectors located on the accessory/ reduction gearbox are rated at what?

A

200* c

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147
Q

The fire detector located on the gas turbine is rated at what?

A

400* c

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148
Q

What do the fire bottles contain?

A

Bromtrifloromethane

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149
Q

When will the caution lights labeled l ext and r ext illuminate?

A

When pressure in the corresponding extinguisher drops below 230 psi

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150
Q

What kind of leading edge strip does each main rotor blade have?

A

Stainless steel

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151
Q

What is installed inside the leading to counteract natural flapping frequencies that result from the light composite?

A

Integral brass weight

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152
Q

What will prevent engine start unless the rotor brake is released or the start rbk function is utilized?

A

Fadec logic

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153
Q

Each tail rotor blade is constructed of composite materials by what means?

A

Resin transfer molding

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154
Q

Resin transfer molding eliminates what?

A

Debonding

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155
Q

What protects the leading edge of the tail rotor blades?

A

Reinforced stainless steel cap

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156
Q

Why are the tail rotor blades arranged in an uneven pattern?

A

Reduce the noise signature

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157
Q

The main gearbox is a ———– stage reduction gear system.

A

Three

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158
Q

At what ratio does the reduction gear system reduce engine input rpm to drive the main rotor?

A

17 to 1

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159
Q

At what ratio does the reduction gear system reduce engine input rpm to drive the tail rotor?

A

1.5 to 1

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160
Q

What does the left accessory gearbox drive?

A

Secondary hydraulic pump and no. 1 alternator

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161
Q

What does the right accessory gearbox drive?

A

Primary hydraulic pump and no. 2 alternator

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162
Q

What is the total quantity of self contained oil?

A

9.34 quarts

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163
Q

At what pressure will oil bypass to the mgb sump through the main system relief valve?

A

130.6 psi

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164
Q

What will occur when the auxiliary pump is providing mgb lubrication?

A

An increase in oil temperature and a lower oil pressure

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165
Q

At what speed is ram air sufficient for mgb oil cooling?

A

120 kias

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166
Q

At what pressure at the filter outlet will the mgb press warning light illuminate and the two master warning lights on the instrument panel to flash?

A

9 /- 1

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167
Q

What is the maximum allowable mgb oil temperature?

A

120*c

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168
Q

Where does the copilot indicator receive main rotor speed?

A

Tachometer generator mounted on and driven by the mgb

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169
Q

Where does the pilot indicator receive main rotor speed?

A

A phonic wheel located on the upper left housing of the mgb

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170
Q

When is the 3 hz modulated tone for rotor under speed heard?

A

When rpm is less than or equal to 345

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171
Q

When is the 10hz modulated tone for rotor overspeed heard?

A

Rpm is greater than or equal to 380

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172
Q

During rotor engagement, the under speed warning tone is suppressed until rotor speed reaches what?

A

172 rpm

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173
Q

The tgb reduces tail rotor drive output rpm by what ratio?

A

1 to .0914

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174
Q

How is the tgb lubricated?

A

Splash lubricated from a self contained oil supply

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175
Q

At 100% rpm, what speed does the tail rotor spin?

A

4000rpm

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176
Q

What do the mgb driven alternators supply what?

A

200 volts, three phase (115 volts single phase) ac

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177
Q

What do the engine driven generators supply?

A

28 volts

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178
Q

What does the battery supply?

A

24 volts

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179
Q

What should not be used to charge the aircraft battery?

A

Spike suppression swithch

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180
Q

What is the aircraft battery rated at?

A

43 amperes

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181
Q

How long will a fully charged battery power the dc system?

A

30 minutes

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182
Q

What supplies 28 vdc emergency power to both main dc buses?

A

Transformer rectifier

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183
Q

What powers the transformer rectifier?

A

Three phase 115 vac from alternator no. 2

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184
Q

When will the transformer rectifier energize the battery bus?

A

When both generators are switched off or have failed

185
Q

What will happen if the voltmeter switch Is left in the bat position for an extended period of time?

A

Deplete the battery

186
Q

What supplies power for the navigation instruments?

A

Two 26 vac transformers

187
Q

What can not be used to start engines?

A

External ac

188
Q

What kinds of protection do the alternator control units provide?

A

Short circuit, overload protection, under voltage, over voltage, underfrequency

189
Q

When is under frequency protection provided?

A

Ground operations

190
Q

Two transformers convert 115 vac into 26 vac for what?

A

Instrument and avionics use

191
Q

Under voltage detection circuits for the 26vac transformers will illuminate fail lights when transformer outputs drop below what?

A

14 /- 1 volts

192
Q

What is the primary hydraulic system rated at?

A

870 psi

193
Q

What does the primary hydraulic system provide for?

A

Upper bodies of the main rotor servos and right body of tail rotor servo

194
Q

What is the capacity of the primary reservoir?

A

1 gallon

195
Q

Where is the clogging indicator for the primary system?

A

On the regulation manifold

196
Q

What is the secondary system rated at?

A

3000 psi

197
Q

Where is the clogging indicator for the secondary system?

A

On top of the reservoir and another on the generation manifold

198
Q

When fully charged, the wheel brake accumulator will allow for how many braking cycles?

A

Approximately 20

199
Q

Placing the elec pmp switch to bkp actuated the electric pump only and pressurizes the accumulator to a maximum of what?

A

1800 psi

200
Q

What is the capacity of the secondary hydraulic system reservoir?

A

2.1 gallons

201
Q

When will one isolation valve downstream of the of the 3000 to 2000 psi reducer close to isolate the landing gear, wheel brake, and talon as well as isolate normal electrical power to the rescue hoist and the other isolation valve close to isolate the left body of the dual body tail rotor flight control servo?

A

If secondary hydraulic reservoir drops below one gallon

202
Q

What will be isolated if the tail hyd isolate switch is placed in cutoff?

A

Landing gear, wheel brakes, talon, normal electrical power to hoist, left body of the dual tail rotor flight control servo

203
Q

The 2000 psi isolation valve is what?

A

Fail safe open

204
Q

The tail rotor isolation valve requires what to open it?

A

Power

205
Q

What will happen in the event of a #2 dc bus short or sec hyd breaker popped?

A

Tail rotor isolate valve will close

206
Q

What kind of switch is the low level probe in the secondary hydraulic reservoir?

A

Magnetic float switch

207
Q

Where is the isolation relay located?

A

Copilot landing/ hover light

208
Q

When will the servo jam lights illuminate?

A

Should one or more distributor valves become jammed or of there is a loss of hydraulic pressure to either system

209
Q

When will the pri servo p or sec servo p warning lights illuminate?

A

When hydraulic pressure to the flight controls in either primary or secondary drops below 145 psi

210
Q

When will the sec hyd lo press warning light illuminate?

A

When secondary system hydraulic pump pressure drops below 2450 psi

211
Q

When will the sec hyd hi press warning light illuminate?

A

When secondary system hydraulic pump pressure exceeds 3480 psi

212
Q

Sec hyd lo press, sec hyd hi press, servo jam and sec hyd isolate lights will be accompanied by what?

A

Flashing master warning light

213
Q

When will the elec pmp warning light illuminate?

A

Electric pump switch is positioned to bkp and system pressure rises above 1377 psi

214
Q

When will both limit lights illuminate?

A

When aircraft is on the ground and cyclic travel exceeds 20 percent on either side of the neutral stick position

215
Q

There is no limit warning for what?

A

Lateral cyclic travel

216
Q

What do the parallel trim/feel units work in conjunction with?

A

Afcs

217
Q

What controls the magnitude of rotor lift by varying the pitch angle on all main rotor blades simultaneously and equal?

A

Collective

218
Q

When will the load limit warning light illuminate?

A

If there is a main rotor condition that could exceed design limits

219
Q

How is the landing gear powered?

A

28 vdc from the no. 1 main bus

220
Q

Retraction of the main landing gear will only take place when?

A

The nose wheel is centered and all of the oleo struts are fully extended

221
Q

What is a restriction with skis installed?

A

Landing gear must remain down

222
Q

What kind of gas and at what psi is the blow down bottle?

A

Nitrogen pressurized to 2500psi

223
Q

What happens when the landing gear emergency extension handle is raised?

A

Nitrogen is discharged through a shuttle valve which isolates the secondary hydraulic system from the emergency system and electrical power to the landing gear solenoid valve is shut off

224
Q

At what altitude will both l gear lights illuminate in conjunction with an aural intercom signal?

A

200 ft radar altitude if the wheels are up

225
Q

The beak is free to rotate how many degrees?

A

360

226
Q

What will prevent the probe from extending?

A

Two weight on wheel switches, one on each main landing gear

227
Q

What are the four light segments on the master switch?

A

One to provide illumination and three that indicate the status of the system: 1. On indicates there is electrical power to the system 2. Arm indicates the momentary switch is in the engage position 3. Lid indicates the probe is engaged

228
Q

Why is the front of turbojet boom painted black?

A

To reduce glare during nvg operations

229
Q

What is the hoist capable of lifting?

A

600 lbs

230
Q

What is the limit of the 10 ft cable extremities?

A

0-50 ft per minute

231
Q

What is the speed capabilities of the hoist cable?

A

0-200 ft per minute (except for 10 ft extremities)

232
Q

When controlling the hoist with the pilots collective, what is the speed of the hoist?

A

Fixed rate of 100ft per minute, except for 10 ft extremities which are limited to 50

233
Q

What is the total length of the cable?

A

245 ft

234
Q

In case of an electrical failure, the hoist may be manually operated using what?

A

Hydraulic controls mounted inside the hoist operators control box

235
Q

When is the cable shearing power circuit armed?

A

Anytime the hoist selector switch is in the ply or crew position

236
Q

In case of total generator failure, cable shear power is provided through what?

A

Battery bus

237
Q

What does the emergency hoist power switch do?

A

Provides power directly from the battery bus should the electrical system fail

238
Q

Hoist rate in the manual mode is preset at what?

A

50 ft per minute

239
Q

Who does not have hoist controls?

A

Copilot

240
Q

What is the hoist cams field of view?

A

34* at a 30 ft hover

241
Q

Where is the audio signal for the hoist cam obtained?

A

From the alternate output of the left passenger audio control box

242
Q

What kind of power does the pru utilize?

A

115 volt ac

243
Q

Since the pru records all selected audio from the flight mechanic station, hat should be done to prevent unintentional recording of sensitive or classified information?

A

Secure radios over which such transmissions may be received

244
Q

What does the air data system display in the cockpit?

A

Indicated airspeed, vertical speed, altitude

245
Q

The airdta system provides airspeed and altitude data to what?

A

FDs, mfds, afcs, fms, air data converter, and iff transponder

246
Q

The system is made up of how many separate systems?

A

2: for pilot and copilot

247
Q

What does the pilots system consist of?

A

Pitot head, static ports, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter encoder, static source select valve, tubing and drains

248
Q

What does the folklore system consist of?

A

Pitot head, static ports, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, indicated airspeed sensor, electronic altitude controller, tubing and drains

249
Q

What does the pilots system provide?

A

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude indications to the pilots side of the cockpit and an encoded altitude output to the iff transponder for transmission whenever mode c is interrogated

250
Q

What does the cookouts system provide?

A

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude indications to the cookouts side of the cockpit

251
Q

What is provided by the ias sensor and altitude controller

A

Airspeed, altitude, altitude rate, altitude error, and valid air data outputs

252
Q

What can be done if the pilots altimeter encoder and vertical speed indicator display erratic or erroneous information?

A

The static press valve can be positioned to standby

253
Q

The static press valve is secured to what position with breakaway wire?

A

Normal

254
Q

Where is static pressure taken from if the static press valve is in the stand by position?

A

Cockpit

255
Q

What does the pilots pitot static system have that the copilots does not?

A

Alternate static pressure source

256
Q

What can be done if the copilots altimeter and vertical speed indicator display erratic or erroneous indications?

A

Use the static press isolating valve, which shuts off static pressure to the avionics rack

257
Q

What is used to shut off pitot pressure to the avionics rack if the copilots airspeed indicator displays erratic or erroneous information?

A

Total press isolating valve

258
Q

What provides avionics compartment. And cabin cooling through the upper duct system?

A

Vapor cycle air conditioning unit

259
Q

What might happen if the cool switch on both fcss are idle?

A

Damage ecs systems

260
Q

What happens any time either engine exceeds approximately 101.9 n1 /- .8%?

A

Bleed air shutoff valve automatically closes and the air conditioner compressor clutch disengages

261
Q

When will bleed air automatically shutoff?

A

Engine failure

262
Q

Control of the cabin heat selector knob is limited to what temperature unless placed in the override position?

A

68* f

263
Q

When will the freon hi pres caution light illuminate and compressor disengage?

A

Condenser inlet pressure execs approximately 392 psi for more than 20 seconds

264
Q

What will happen approximately 20 seconds after low pressure is detected at the evaporator outlet?

A

Compressor disengages, no visual indications

265
Q

A thermostatic probe is installed in the lower right heat duct aft of the 9 degree frame, which will direct the regulator valve to close if duct temperature reaches what?

A

185* f

266
Q

When will the heat o/heat warning light illuminate?

A

Temperature of approximately 275* f and above is detected at one or more thermoswitches near the fadec computers, the bleed air pneumatic control valve in the aft cabin overhead or the lower duct system

267
Q

If oat is above what, the ecs system may not provide adequate cooling to the avionics rack?

A

85* f

268
Q

When will the av rack o/ heat light illuminate?

A

Inlet air to av rack goes above 68f or thermoswitch detects 109.4f

269
Q

When should the windshield wipers never be operated?

A

On a dry surface

270
Q

Describe the contents of the windshield wiper plastic tank

A

Filled with water-ethylene glycol solution and has a capacity of three pints

271
Q

At what temperature will heating of the windshields occur?

A

Temperature sensed atwindshiekd is below 22* c

272
Q

When will heating at windshield stop?

A

Temperature rises to 28*c

273
Q

What will happen if the temperature sensor in one windshield fails?

A

Control is automatically provided through the temperature regulator of the opposite windshield

274
Q

Which interior lights are not nvg compatible?

A

Crew cabin lights

275
Q

When will the emergency lights illuminate?

A

Impact force in ecxess of 3.2 vertical g’s or 4.0 horizontal g’s

276
Q

At what rate does the anti collision lamp illuminate?

A

50 times per minute

277
Q

The focus knob for the searchlight can adjust the beam within what parameters?

A

2* to 10*

278
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for opening and closing the sliding door?

A

80kias

279
Q

The sliding door must be maintained closed above what speed?

A

100kias

280
Q

What is the maximum speed for opening and closing the hatch?

A

60kias forward airspeed and 30 knots sidewrd flight

281
Q

When must the hatch be fully latched open?

A

Speeds from 60 to 80 kias forward airspeed and up to 35 knots sideward flight

282
Q

What kind of portable fire extinguisher is in the cabin?

A

Halon

283
Q

On what frequencies does the elt transmit?

A

121.5 and 243.0 mhz

284
Q

At what distance will the elt transmit?

A

200 miles

285
Q

When will the elt automatically start transmitting?

A

Impact of 5 g’s or more in the direction of flight

286
Q

What is the battery life of the elt?

A

In excess of 100 hours

287
Q

What is the underwater acoustic beacon attached to?

A

Vfdr

288
Q

The underwater acoustic beacon can withstand deep water immersion up to what depth?

A

20,000ft

289
Q

When will the underwater acoustic beacon automatically activate?

A

When immersed in water

290
Q

On what frequency does the underwater acoustic beacon transmit?

A

37.5 khz

291
Q

What is the operating life and detection range of the underwater acoustic beacon?

A

30 days and 2000 to 4000 yards

292
Q

How many independent air bags are in each cylindrical float?

A

Three

293
Q

What kind of air fills the floats?

A

Helium

294
Q

With all four floats properly deployed, how long will the helicopter stay afloat?

A

At sea state 2 condition, at least four minutes with the waterline below the cabin floor

295
Q

What kind of landing should be made with the flotation gear inflated?

A

Vertical landing

296
Q

The floats are inflated to shape in what amount of time?

A

2.5 seconds

297
Q

The helium cylinders are completely discharged in what amount of time?

A

Less than four seconds

298
Q

What does the pilots adi receive signal inputs from?

A

Flight director computer, radar altimeter, altitude gyro no. 1, yaw rate gyro no.1 and the vor/localized receiver

299
Q

Where does the copilots adi receive signal inputs from?

A

Flight director computer, radar altimeter, attitude gyro no.2, yaw rate gyro no.2 and the vor/ localized receiver

300
Q

The attitude gyros provide inputs for which axis?

A

Pitch and roll

301
Q

Attitude gyro no.1 send inputs to what?

A

Pilot adi and arcs computer

302
Q

Attitude gyro no.2 send inputs to what?

A

Copilot adi, afcs computer, fd computer, radar antenna stabilization

303
Q

When does the decision height annunciator light?

A

When the aircraft descends to the radar altitude that has been set on the respective radar altimeter

304
Q

When will the radar altitude pointer retract from view on the adi?

A

Radar altitude is greater than 200 ft

305
Q

What does the collective command pointer represent?

A

Collective pitch required to obtain the commanded flight profile

306
Q

What will appear in the upper left corner of the adi whenever there is a loss of adi power or loss of a valid signal from the attitude gyros?

A

Red flag marked att

307
Q

What will appear in the upper right corner whenever there is a loss of a valid Fdc signal?

A

Red flag marked fd

308
Q

What will appear in the lower right corner of the adi if there is a loss of valid radar altitude?

A

Red flag marked alt

309
Q

What is the hsi?

A

Horizontal situation display mode of the mfd

310
Q

What will happen if there is a loss of compass validity on the mfd?

A

The lubber line will disappear and a slashed heading symbol to appear in it’s place….the desired course pointer will point to the original position of the lubber line and the display becomes a course deviation indicator

311
Q

Why does the double bar pointer point to on the bdi?

A

Vor or adf/df

312
Q

What does the single bar pointer point to on the bdi?

A

Vor or tacan

313
Q

What is the digital electronic clock time controlled by?

A

Quartz crystal oscillator

314
Q

What combines a conventional barometric type altimeter with a counter drum pointer display and an altitude reporting encoder in one self-contained unit?

A

Altimeter encoder

315
Q

What is the difference between the altimeter encoder and the copilot altimeter?

A

It does not have an altitude encoder or a code off display mechanism

316
Q

Where is the oat reading on the cdu taken from?

A

Temperature sensor on the oads assembly

317
Q

Where is the oat on the vemd taken from?

A

Adu

318
Q

The radar altimeter system provides altitude for what range?

A

Above ground level flight below 2500ft

319
Q

When is the self test function inhibited on the radar altimeter?

A

If the radar altimeter is coupled to the flight director computer when t-hov, hov, aug, or appr mode is selected

320
Q

What should the altitude pointer read when the radar altimeter is tested?

A

400 /- 40

321
Q

What audio signals does the radar altimeter provide?

A

Whenever the help descends below 200ft and 40ft radar altitude with the landing gear not down and locked, decision height warning,

322
Q

How can low altitude warnings be canceled?

A

Placing the horn aural warn switch in the rst position

323
Q

What are the indications of the radar altimeter?

A

Black and yellow striped NO TRACK flag will appear in both indicators, a continuous aural tone will sound in pilot and copilot headsets, the altitude pointer will go behind the NO TRACK mask, the RA flag will appear on the MFD hover page, vertical guidance in the THOV and HOV AUGmodes of the flight director will become inoperative, the red ALT flag will appear in the lower right corner of each ADI

324
Q

The primary control of the fms is through what?

A

Cdu’s

325
Q

Utilization of the data bus is controlled by what?

A

System coupler computers (scc)

326
Q

What does the siu do?

A

Provide signal interfacing and conditioning for the fms

327
Q

What provides complete integration of the tuning, control, and display of the communication and navigation radios?

A

Scc

328
Q

What do the scc’s contain to interface those avionics lru’s that are not connected directly to the dual data bus?

A

Interface adapter modules (iam)

329
Q

During normal operation, which cdu assumes data bus control?

A

Pilots (bc), copilots acts as a remote terminal (rt)

330
Q

What does the rt cdu do?

A

Processes keystrokes and displays data

331
Q

Both rru’s are controlled by what?

A

Scc 1

332
Q

What two tests does the cdu provide?

A

Initiated built-in-test (ibit), continuous built-in-test (cbit)

333
Q

When is the ibit available?

A

Through activation of the weight on wheels switch

334
Q

What happens when the hoist operator selects alternate?

A

Switched in parallel to nearest auxiliary audio control nd hd intercom capability only

335
Q

What happens when the pilots audio bypass is placed in bypass?

A

Continued radio communication on comm 1 only

336
Q

What happens when copilots bypass is placed in bypass?

A

Also places hoist operator in bypass ics and provides continued radio communication on comm 2 only

337
Q

How can the pilot and copilot communicate in bypass?

A

Both switches must be in bypass

338
Q

What does the remote readout unit (rru) do?

A

Dedicated to the display of comm 1 or comm 2 active and alternate frequency display/selection

339
Q

What are the radio guard frequencies?

A

40.5 fm, 121.5am, 156.80 am, 243.0 am

340
Q

What is the hf frequency range?

A

2000.0 to 29999.9 kHz

341
Q

Why is the frequency range of the fm system?

A

150.0000 to 173.9975 MHz

342
Q

How many series actuaries are there?

A

Four…two for roll, one for one in pitch, one in yaw

343
Q

What provides airspeed inputs for the yaw axis sideslip prevention function?

A

The ias transducer and the lateral accelerometer

344
Q

What does the trim switch on the overhead panel do?

A

Merely engages or disengages the electromagnetic clutch that provides cyclic stick position holding….does not turn the cyclic trim on or off

345
Q

What must be on to power the trim release button?

A

Overhead trim switch

346
Q

What will activate the force breakout switch and permit pilot induced “fly-through”?

A

One half pound of cyclic pressure

347
Q

The afcs will maintain the attitude selected by the pilot to what limit?

A

45* left or right

348
Q

What is the limit of pitch attitude selected by the pilot?

A

12*

349
Q

What is not possible during single gyro operation?

A

Hardcover protection

350
Q

What is the horizontal situation indicator (hsi)?

A

Full 360* compass which displays deviation data and selected course information to the aircrew for navigation

351
Q

What is the map page?

A

A compass rose with an 80* arc displaying a pictorial of the current flight plan

352
Q

What is the weather radar with map page?

A

(rmap) the same as the map mode with the addition of a weather radar video overlay

353
Q

What is the circle map page?

A

(cmap) provides a 360* top-downed pictorial of the current flight plan

354
Q

What is the hover page?

A

Provides flight director visualization and indications to attain and control the aircraft at designated hover points

355
Q

What is the video page?

A

Displays the selected video source, wxr, flir, or video camera

356
Q

On which pages are mfd and aircraft sensor failure/validity flags displayed?

A

All mfd pages

357
Q

What is mode 1?

A

Security identification. 32 possible codes

358
Q

What is mode 2?

A

Personal identification 4096 codes available

359
Q

What is mode 3a?

A

Traffic identification. 4096 possible codes

360
Q

What is mode 4?

A

Special encrypted military code identification

361
Q

What is mode c?

A

Altitude interrogation 4096 codes available

362
Q

What is emergency mode?

A

Enables all modes, and switches mode 3a to the emergency code 7700

363
Q

How many hours of flight data can be recorded on the vfdr?

A

25 hours

364
Q

How many hours of audio monitored by the pilot, flight mechanic and area microphone can be recorded by the vfdr?

A

Four hours

365
Q

On what frequencies does the Tcas transmit and receive?

A

Generates 1030mhz interrogation pulses and receives 1090mhz reply

366
Q

What are the four Tcas modes?

A

Normal, above, below, ground

367
Q

What does the traffic alert symbol look like on the Tcas?

A

Solid yellow circle

368
Q

Tcas system may not display targets in what area?

A

/- 8* aft and above own aircraft

369
Q

When are aircraft considered a traffic alert?

A

It will intercept your own aircrafts track within approximately 15-30 seconds or when an intruder is within 0.55nmand /- 800 feet vertically

370
Q

When does Tcas automatically revert to the standby mode?

A

24 seconds after the aircraft weight on wheels switch senses the aircraft has landed

371
Q

At what speed does the omnidirectional airspeed sensor rotate?

A

720 rpm

372
Q

What are the radar ranges?

A

2.5, 5.0, 10.0, 20.0, 40.0, 80.0, 160.0 nautical miles

373
Q

What are the radar modes?

A

Search 1, search 2, search 3, test, wx,wxa

374
Q

What are the ranges for search 1 and search 2?

A

2.5 to 10 nm

375
Q

What ranges are search mode 3 and the weather modes best suited for?

A

20nm or greater

376
Q

When is search 1 primarily for?

A

Target search when operating in a high sea state environment

377
Q

What is search 2 primarily for?

A

High resolution target search in low sea states or precision ground mapping

378
Q

What is search 3 designed for?

A

Maximum clutter returns as required for mapping oil slick areas

379
Q

What does the scan integration switch do?

A

Enhances target detection in high sea clutter

380
Q

The antenna will no longer be stabilized in relation to the horizon if what fails?

A

The copilot vertical gyro

381
Q

When will the afc/agc monitor lamp illuminate?

A

When the radar mode select knob is in the stby or test position. If in srch 1,2,3, wx or wxa illumination will indicate a malfunction in the automatic frequency control or automatic gain control

382
Q

When shall the hoist hook be in the locked position?

A

Direct deployments of the rescue swimmer to a vertical surface, rescue litter recoveries

383
Q

The hoist should be in the locked position for what?

A

Rescue basket deliveries and recoveries, rescue litter deliveries

384
Q

When shall the the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?

A

Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer

385
Q

When should the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?

A

All other rescue swimmer deployments and recoveries

386
Q

When is the rescue litter used?

A

Where the survivor is not ambulatory

387
Q

How should the sling be delivered?

A

Only one end connected to the hook

388
Q

Describe the trail line

A

Triple strand polypropylene, 105 feet in length

389
Q

What force will cause the weak link to fail?

A

300 lbs

390
Q

What is the direct method of delivering a dewatering pump?

A

Standard hoist with or without a trail line

391
Q

Describe the procedure for the indirect method for delivering the dewatering pump

A

The weak link end of trail line, with weight bag, is lowered to the vessel. The helicopter is moved left and a low hover is established. The non weak link end of the trail line is clipped to the two pump bridle d-rings and the pump is dropped into the water

392
Q

How much does the lru-20 raft weigh?

A

65 lbs

393
Q

How do you deliver the lru-20 raft to a vessel?

A

The same as a dewatering pump except the hoist hook is attached to one of the raft handlesvfor a direct delivery

394
Q

How do you deliver an lru-20 to people in the water?

A

Indirect method. Attach float strobe and weight bag to weak end and other end to raft case handle. Attach additional flotation, such as swing to trail line.

395
Q

Main gearbox fire

A

Corrective action:

396
Q

Engine compartment fire in flight

A

Corrective action:

397
Q

Engine compartment fire on deck

A

Corrective action:

398
Q

Internal fire (cabin, electrical, and/or avionics)

A
  1. Designate crew member to fight fire
399
Q

Smoke and fume elimination

A
  1. Heat/cool switches -off
400
Q

Engine post shutdown fire

A
  1. Fadec control switch - check off
401
Q

Tgb chip detected

A
  1. Establish safe altitude and airspeed for possible loss of tail rotor thrust
402
Q

The big four

A
  1. Nr- maintain
403
Q

N1 divergence/partial power loss

A
  1. Complete the big “4”
404
Q

Major fadec/governor failure

A
  1. Complete the big 4
405
Q

Minor fadec/governor failure

A

Complete the big four

406
Q

Primary hydraulic system failure

A
  1. Cruise airspeed - 75 to 100 kias
407
Q

Dual ac bus failure

A

Flight controls - stabilize aircraft

408
Q

Ac system failure (main ac bus short, alternator, alternator control unit or 115/26 vac system failure)

A
  1. Flight controls- stabilize aircraft
409
Q

Battery over temperature/thermal runaway

A

Batt relay switches - both off

410
Q

Engine fuel pressure low

A
  1. Complete the big 4
411
Q

Nose wheel shimmy damper failure

A
  1. Lift aircraft off ground immediately or reduce taxi speed
412
Q

Heater overheat

A

Heat switch- off

413
Q

Hoist cable fouled/damaged

A

If injury or damage is imminent:

414
Q

Hoist failure

A
  1. Advise the pilot “committed” or “not committed”
415
Q

Hoist boom failure

A
  1. Hoist master switch - check crew position
416
Q

Hoist electrical runaway

A
  1. Secure hoist power at the hoist control panel only
417
Q

Lost communications during hoisting operations

A
  1. Flight mechanic - tap the pilot and give hold signal (closed fist)
418
Q

Emergency egress procedures

A
  1. Wait for all violent motion to stop
419
Q

Malfunctioning cabin sliding door

A

Flight mechanic - remain secured to aircraft

420
Q

What is the minimum required crew?

A

One pilot in the right seat and one crew member in the cabin

421
Q

The fli will provide information in the message zone to alert crew to what limit exceedances?

A

Fuel, hydraulics, or engine

422
Q

What are the airspeed and angle of bank limitations with nr hi?

A

135 kias and 40*

423
Q

What is the maximum operating density altitude for takeoffs and landings?

A

10,000 ft

424
Q

What is the maximum operating density altitude for forward flight?

A

18000 ft

425
Q

What is the tot limit for engine starting and what are the indications?

A

750, will be underscored with a red blinking line when reached. If tot exceeds 840c during start cycle, it will be indicated as a solid red line and the fadec will automatically shut down the engine

426
Q

What is the max tot for continuous?

A

891*c

427
Q

What is the max tot for max takeoff 5 min?

A

929 *c

428
Q

What is the max tot for hip/Sarm 30 min?

A

929* c

429
Q

What is the max tot for transient 5 sec?

A

944*c

430
Q

N1 limit values change based on what?

A

Altitude and oat

431
Q

What happens should a difference >_ 6% n1 develop between the two engines?

A

Fadec assumes an engine failure and arms oei 30 second rating for both engines

432
Q

When will the fadec overspeed safety feature shut down an engine?

A

429 rpm /- 4 rpm

433
Q

When shall nr hi be used?

A

Hover flight greater than 10 ft gal and all lateral flight

434
Q

What’s the limit on starter engagements?

A

Five consecutive attempts; allow a minimum of 60 seconds between start attempts and 30 minutes after the fifth attempt

435
Q

What is the maximum limit for cranking?

A

20 seconds, max of three consecutive crankings with 5 minute cooling periods

436
Q

What will happen if the crank button is used with the efsl pulled?

A

Severe damage to the engine fuel pump

437
Q

What is the minimum fuel pressure required prior to engine start?

A

5.8psi

438
Q

What is the minimum fuel pressure required for the starting and operating phase?

A

3.6 psi

439
Q

What is the maximum voltage for the dc electrical system?

A

30 volts

440
Q

What is the maximum voltage for the ac electrical system?

A

120 volts

441
Q

What is the maximum gross weight?

A

9,480 lbs

442
Q

Weight on the cabin deck should not exceed what?

A

125 pounds per square foot

443
Q

What is the tiedown ring strength?

A

1800 lbs acting upward or through a 30 degree arc from vertical

444
Q

What is the maximum allowable weight in the baggage compartment?

A

440 lbs, center composite panel is limited to 125 lbs, two outboard metal panels limited to 61.5 pounds per square foot

445
Q

What is the maximum permissible forward airspeed?

A

175 kias at sea level, at a gross weight not exceeding 6614 lbs

446
Q

What is the maximum cargo hook load speed?

A

90 kias

447
Q

What is the max speed with floats armed or inflated?

A

90 kias

448
Q

What is the maximum touchdown speed

A

60 kgs

449
Q

What is the maximum brake speed?

A

Gross weight at or less than 8900lb: 38 kgs

450
Q

What is the maximum light extension speed?

A

135 kias

451
Q

What are the rotor engagement limitations?

A

55 knots within 20 degrees of aircraft heading, 35 knots from all other directions

452
Q

What is the maximum touchdown sink rate at maximum gross weight of 8900lbs?

A

600 ft per minute

453
Q

What is the maximum speed for touchdown?

A

60knots

454
Q

What is the slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor?

A

10 degrees

455
Q

What is the maximum rotor speed for using the rotor brake?

A

170rpm

456
Q

What is the maximum rotor braking time?

A

13 seconds

457
Q

What is the maximum permissible hook load weight?

A

2000 lbs

458
Q

At what airspeeds may fuel be jettisoned?

A

40 to 120 kias

459
Q

What are the prohibited maneuvers?

A
  1. Aerobatic flight

mh-65 aircraft (1 decks)

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