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Mg Flashcards

1
Q

What is minimum range that you receive a return from the ELRF?

A

200m

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2
Q

What are the five video modes for the Improved Thermal Sighting System (ITSS)?

A

Normal, Stare Hi, Stare Low, Local Area Contrast Enhancement (LACE), Target Motion Indicator (TMI).

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3
Q

When does Overspill occur?

A

Overspill occurs when the laser beam is large enough to hit the first desired target and then hits an object behind the target.

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4
Q

When does Underspill occur?

A

Underspill occurs when an obstruction is between the laser and the desired target.

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5
Q

What is the max effective range of the Target Practice with Trace (TP-T)?

A

1600m

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6
Q

What is the max effective range of the Armor Piercing Discarding Sabot with Tracer (APDS-T)?

A

2000m

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7
Q

What is the max effective range of the Target Practice Discarding Sabot with Tracer (TPDS-T)?

A

2000m

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8
Q

What are the three types of detonations for the High Explosive with Incendiary Tracer (HEI-T)?

A

Direct Impact, Grazing, and Self-Destruct

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9
Q

What are the eight steps in the cycle of operation for the M242?

A

SEAR, Feed, Ram, Lock, Fire, Unlock, Extract, and Eject.

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10
Q

What is the nomenclature of the component shown below?

A

HE feed Shaft extentsion

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11
Q

What is the nomenclature of the component shown below?

A

SEAR retractor lever

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12
Q

What is the nomenclature of the component shown below?

A

Barrel support bearing

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13
Q

What is condition 2 for the M240 Coaxially mounted machine gun?

A

Rounds in ready box, rounds in feed chute, rounds on feed tray, feed tray cover closed, bolt to the rear, manual safe and electrical safe on safe.

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14
Q

What is condition 3 for the M240 Coaxially mounted machine gun?

A

Rounds in ready box, rounds in feed chute, rounds on feed tray, feed tray cover closed, bolt forward, manual safe on fire, and electrical safe on safe.

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15
Q

What is condition 3 for the M242?

A

Rounds in ready box, rounds in feed chute, rounds in feeder, ghost round not cycled, and manual safe and electrical safe on safe.

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16
Q

What is condition 4 for the M242?

A

Rounds in ready box, no rounds in feeder, ghost round not cycled, and manual safe and electrical safe on safe.

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17
Q

What is the immediate action procedure for a runaway coax?

A
  1. Point coax gun in a safe direction.
  2. Set TURRET POWER CB to OFF.
  3. Set WEAPON POWER CB to OFF.
  4. If coax gun keeps firing after power is removed:
    a. Pull charger cable back and hold it there; or
    b. Grab coax ammo belt at ammo box, twist, and hold it there; or
    c. If near end of ammo belt, let coax gun fire until end of ammo.
  5. If gun is not hot (less than 100 rounds in 2 minutes), go to step 7.
  6. If gun is hot (more than 100 rounds in 2 minutes), wait 30 minutes
  7. Clear coax gun.
  8. Unload coax gun.
  9. Notify organizational maintenance.
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18
Q

What is condition 2 for the M242?

A

Rounds in ready box, rounds in feed chute, rounds in feeder, ghost round cycled, manual safe and electrical safe on safe.

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19
Q

What is the immediate action for clearing a hot M240 Coax?

A
  1. Notify all persons aboard vehicle of cookoff danger.
  2. Notify driver to stop vehicle.
  3. If conditions permit, commander aims gun downrange; sets TURRET POWER, WEAPON POWER, and AUXILIARY POWER CBs to OFF; and sets TURRET DRIVE LOCK lever to LOCKED. All personnel evacuate turret.
  4. After 30 minutes, return to turret and clear the coax.
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20
Q

What is the immediate action procedure for a main gun misfire?

A
  1. Check bolt position indicator to confirm misfire.
  2. If first round was misfire, ensure manual safety is set to FIRE (in-line).
  3. Wait 5 seconds after misfire; then press MISFIRE RESET button.
  4. Set 200/100/SS switch to SS.
  5. Grasp and hold palm switch, lift trigger guard, and squeeze trigger Bolt indicator should cycle from
    MISFIRE to SEAR.
  6. Grasp and hold palm switch, lift trigger guard, and squeeze trigger Gun should fire. If gun fires, continue mission.
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21
Q

What is the immediate action procedure for a runaway turret?

A
  1. Set TURRET PWR CB to OFF. If turret does not stop, go to Paragraph 2-48 Step 2.
  2. To engage manual mode, release palm switch.
  3. Notify driver to set vehicle MASTER SWITCH to off.
  4. Set TURRET DRIVE LOCK lever to LOCKED.
  5. Notify organizational maintenance.
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22
Q

What range is the M240 Coax boresighted at?

A

1000m

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23
Q

What range is the main gun boresighted in wide field of view?

A

800m

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24
Q

What range is the M240 coax zeroed at?

A

800m

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25
Q

How far and in what direction do you rotate the boresight scope during collimation?

A

180 deg in a clockwise direction.

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26
Q

What are the three different types of scans?

A

Rapid, Slow, Detailed

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27
Q

What are the five different target location methods?

A

Clock, Sector, Traverse, Reference Point, and Grid.

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28
Q

What are the three types of target classification?

A

Most Dangerous, Dangerous, and Least Dangerous.

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29
Q

What are the three elements of a crew acquisition report?

A

Alert, Description, and Location

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30
Q

What are three of the five target signatures for infantry?

A

Fighting Holes, Broken Vegetation, Footprints, Signs of new or old fires, Noise, and Trash.

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31
Q

What are the five different target location methods?

A

Clock, Sector, Traverse, Reference Point, and Grid.

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32
Q

Name the below pictured armored vehicle.

A

BMP-2

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33
Q

Name the below pictured armored vehicle.

A

T-62

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34
Q

Name the below pictured armored vehicle.

A

BRDM-2

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35
Q

Name the below pictured armored vehicle.

A

BTR-80

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36
Q

What are the six elements of a fire command?

A

Alert, Weapon/ammunition, Direction, Description, Range, and Execution.

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37
Q

What are the required elements of a fire command?

A

Description and Execution

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38
Q

What are the five proper responses terms?

A

Identified, Cannot identify, On the way, Friendly, and No solution.

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39
Q

What are the four proper execution terms?

A

Fire, Fire and adjust, At my command, and From my position.

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40
Q

List three of the five Observation of Fires Terms.

A

Target, Lost, Over, Short, and Doubtful.

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41
Q

What does BOT and TOT stand for?

A

Burst on Target & Tracer on Target

42
Q

What are the two types of Methods of Engagement?

A

Precision and Battlesight

43
Q

What is the battlesight range for AP?

A

0 to 600 meters and from 825 to 1600m

44
Q

What is the battlesight range for HEI-T?

A

0 – 950 meters

45
Q

Name two of the five special uses the Main Gun can be utilized for?

A

Reconnaissance by Fire, Designating Targets, Firing Through Concealment, Incendiary Fire, Air Defense Measures

46
Q

Select from the following list which ones are authorized lubricants for M240?

A

CLP, GMD, GAA, LSA, LSA-T, LAW

47
Q

How far should the recoil mechanism indicator protrude from the recoil mechanism?

A

.5 to 1.1 inches

48
Q

What does it mean if a vehicle is flying a red and green flag on a range?

A

The LAV-25 is preparing to fire or the crew is conducting a non-firing exercise. The 25mm gun feeder may be loaded but the bolt is in the SEAR position, the weapon arm switch is on SAFE, and the manual safety is on. The M240 coax machine gun may be loaded, bolt to the rear, and manual safety on. Ammunition is either stowed onboard or loaded in the ready boxes. The ammunition box is attached to the M240B swing mount. The weapon is clear, the bolt is forward, and the safety is on FIRE.

49
Q

What does it mean if a vehicle is flying a yellow and green flag on a range?

A

The LAV-25 has a malfunction and all weapons are clear. The weapon arm switch is on SAFE and manual safety is on. There is no ammunition onboard.

50
Q

What are the two techniques for direct fire adjustment?

A

Burst on Target and Tracer on Target

51
Q

Define Tracer on Target?

A

When firing the Machine Gun, the vehicle commander or gunner adjusts the strike of the rounds, based on tracers, onto the target area.

52
Q

What are the three section fire distribution patterns?

A

Frontal Fire, Cross Fire, and Depth Fire

53
Q

What are three of the four measures that can be used to effectively distribute and control fires?

A

Sectors of Fire, TRPS, Phase lines and Engagement Priorities

54
Q

What are the two ways for controlling section fires?

A

Simultaneous and Alternating Fire

55
Q

What is the only required element of a section fire command?

A

Execution

56
Q

What is the recommended overall standard for the LGST?

A

To achieve a GO on any station, a GO must be achieved for all subtasks (performance measures) within that station; if the task is not completed, performed incorrectly, or the time standards are not met, a NO GO will be given.

57
Q

How many rounds are required to conduct test station 2?

A

210-25mm dummy rounds.

58
Q

How many rounds are required to conduct test station 3?

A

400-7.62 mm dummy rounds

59
Q

How many grenades are required to conduct test station 8?

A

8 L8A1/A3 dummy grenades

60
Q

How many Images are presented on test station 9 Identify Combat Vehicles?

A

25 day images and 25 thermal images

61
Q

When evaluating intermediate gunnery, what is the criteria for T?

A

GO on all task standards, Go on all critical sub-task standards and leader sub-task standards, and no more than one NO GO on a non-critical sub-task standard.

62
Q

When evaluating intermediate gunnery, what is the criteria for P?

A

GO on all task standards, Go on all critical sub-task standards. With a NO GO on one or more leader sub-task standards, or a NO GO on two or more non-critical sub-task standard.

63
Q

When evaluating intermediate gunnery, what is the criteria for U?

A

NO GO on one or more task standard or a NO GO on one or more critical sub-task standard.

64
Q

How many rounds are required to conduct test station 5?

A

200-7.62mm dummy rounds

65
Q

Name three of the five critical sub-task standards.

A

Auxiallary Sight, CBRN Environment, Manual Control, Commander’s Engagement, & Friendly Targets.

66
Q

Name three of the five leader’s sub-task standards.

A

Fire Commands, Most Dangerous/Least Dangerous, Weapon/Ammo, Vehicle Movement, control of gunner’s execution.

67
Q

Name two of the four Non-Critical Sub-task Standards.

A

Response Terms, Engagement Techniques, Driving Techniques, Defensive Techniques

68
Q

When does time start during Offensive/Retrograde engagements?

A

Starts when the target, or multiple targets are fully exposed, or when the first round is fired (whichever occurs first).

69
Q

When does time stop during Offensive/Retrograde engagements?

A

Stops when target is killed or that target’s exposure time has expired.

70
Q

When does time start during Defensive engagements?

A

When crew fires the first round or when all targets are fully exposed and the firing vehicle is stopped in the hull defilade position.

71
Q

When does time stop during Defensive engagements?

A

If target is killed, firing vehicle begins to move back into turret defilade position and target exposure time has expired.

72
Q

When does time reset during Defensive engagements?

A

Before the firing vehicle returns to the hull defilade position.

73
Q

What must a crew perform to rate a rating of Distinguished?

A

Trained (T) on at least 9 of 10 total engagements with no Untrained (U) scores.

74
Q

What must a crew perform to rate a rating of Superior?

A

Trained (T) on at least 8 of 10 total engagements with 1 of the 8 being a CBRN and 2 of the 8 being night engagements.

75
Q

What must a crew perform to rate a rating of Qualified?

A

Trained (T) or needs practice (P) on at least 7 of 10 total engagements with 1 of the 7 being a CBRN and 2 of the 7 being night engagements.

76
Q

What must a crew perform to rate a rating of Unqualified?

A

Untrained (U) on four or more engagements or “U” on both CBRN engagements, and “T” or “P” on only one night engagement.

77
Q

What are the three Alibi criteria for qualifying on table VI?

A

Range equipment failures, Vehicle equipment failures that are not the result of crew error, Conditions not related to the firing vehicle or crew.

78
Q

Who is the authority for alibis?

A

Company Commander and Company Master Gunner.

79
Q

To determine the allowable exposure time to a given target, what 3 things must a LCE know?

A

Target Category, Number of Target Conditions and Target Range.

80
Q

What is the kill standard for a 25mm target?

A

Hit with minimum of three rounds.

81
Q

What is the kill standard for coax point target?

A

Hit with a minimum of 5 rounds

82
Q

What is the kill standard for coax point target?

A

Suppress with a Z pattern, achieving 75% hits of the target array

83
Q

When determining the allowable exposure time, what are the three target conditions?

A

CBRN Environment, Moving LAV-25, and Moving Enemy Target

84
Q

List the two Task Standards

A

Hit a given target with appropriate number of rounds and kill target within maximum allowable exposure time

85
Q

When determining allowable exposure time, what are the three target categories?

A

Light Armor, Unarmored, and Dismounted Troops

86
Q

If a crew fails to receive a qualified rating on table VI, what engagements will they remediate?

A

They will remediate only engagements in which they have received a U rating

87
Q

If a crew fires an engagement and gets two no-gos on a leader’s subtask standard, and 2 no-gos on non critical standard, and gets goes on everything else. What is the crews rating?

A

Needs Practice (P)

88
Q

A crew fires an engagement and gets one no go on a task standard and two no gos on a leader’s subtask standard. What is the crew’s rating?

A

Untrained (U)

89
Q

A crew fires an engagement and gets gos on everything except for one no go on a non-critical subtask standard. What is the crew’s rating?

A

Trained (T)

90
Q

While shooting Table VI, a crew achieves a P rating on four engagements and a T on two engagements, with one being a CBRN engagement and three being Night engagements. What is the crew’s Qualification rating?

A

Unqualified

91
Q

While shooting Table VI, a crew achieves a P rating on one engagement and a T on eight engagements, with one being a CBRN engagement and four being night engagements. What is the crew’s Qualification rating?

A

Superior.

92
Q

What is sustainment table X-1 fired on?

A

Scaled Range

93
Q

What is the Task for Table X-1?

A

Employ direct fire adjustment techniques against stationary and moving targets.

94
Q

At what range do you zero the M240 coax when using it as a sub-caliber device on a ½ scale range?

A

400 meters

95
Q

What scale of targets are authorized for use with M240 coax?

A

1/10, 1/5, ½ and full scale

96
Q

What scale must be utilized when doing precision gunnery training utilizing M240 coax as a training device?

A

½ scale

97
Q

What type of gunnery are you training when using any scale other than half- scale?

A

Battlesight Gunnery

98
Q

What are the three types of scaled ranges?

A

Small scale stationary, small scale moving, and half-scale

99
Q

What are the four proficiency levels provided in the AGTS crew training program?

A

Special Purpose Skills, Prelive and Gate to Live Fire, Advance Gunnery Skills, Sustainment

100
Q

When building targets what two references are used to ensure proper dimensions?

A

TC 25-8 or MCWP 13-4.1

MG (1 decks)

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