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Welder Inspector - Level 1 > METL-301-Metallurgy and Material Specification > Flashcards

METL-301-Metallurgy and Material Specification Flashcards

1
Q

KC - In ferrous metals, ____________ is the main “ingredient” of the metal or alloy.

A

Iron

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2
Q

KC - Common examples of non-ferrous metals are:

A

copper and nickel.

Correctly checked
aluminum and titanium.

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3
Q

KC - Alloys

A
  • 306L Stainless Steel
  • 6061 Aluminum
    -Brass
  • Bronze
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4
Q

KC - Non-Alloys

A
  • Copper
  • Pure Aluminum
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5
Q

KC - Ferrous

A
  • Stainless Steel
  • High Carbon Steel
  • Cast Iron
  • Medium Carbon Steel
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6
Q

KC - Non-Ferrous

A
  • Copper
  • Titanium
  • Zinc
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7
Q

KC - The toughness of steels decreases as the temperature:

A

decreases.

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8
Q

KC - When using MPI, DC magnetization makes it possible to detect surface defects and linear near-surface defects

A

True

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9
Q

KC - The compressive strength of a material is its ability to resist crushing.

A

True

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10
Q
  1. A flux used in the blast furnace to reduce iron ore to produce iron is known as: (Multiple choice)

A) Coke.

B) Limestone.

C) Cementite.

D) Admixture.

A

A) Coke

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11
Q
  1. Stress is the force applied to a material divided by the material’s cross-sectional area. (True/False)
A

True

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12
Q
  1. Elongation is the measure of ductility related to the measurement of tensile strength. (True/False)
A

False

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13
Q
  1. The ability of a metal to withstand sudden loads is called: (Multiple choice)

A) Compressive strength.

B) Impact strength.

C) Fatigue Strength.

D) Ductility.

A

B) Impact strength.

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14
Q
  1. Tensile strength is: (Multiple choice)

A) The maximum stress that a material can withstand before it breaks.

B) The minimum stress that a material can withstand before it breaks.

C) The maximum stress that a material can withstand before it deforms to plastic.

D) The UTS minus the yield point.

A

A) The maximum stress that a material can withstand before it breaks.

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15
Q
  1. Yield strength is: (Multiple choice)

A) plastically entering into the UTS.

B) the elastic stage before UTS.

C) when a material begins to deform from elastic to plastic.

D) when a material begins to deform elastically.

A

C) when a material begins to deform from elastic to plastic.

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16
Q
  1. The ability of a material to deform or stretch without fracture is known as: (Multiple choice)

A) Ductility.

B) Yield strength.

C) Malleability.

D) Elasticity.

A

A) Ductility.

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17
Q
  1. What type of stress is applied to the object in the illustration? (Multiple choice)

(hook holding weight with 1000N underneath)

A) The object is under torsional load.

B) The object is under tension.

C) The object is under compression.

D) The object is under shear load.

A

A) The object is under torsional load.

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18
Q
  1. Steels have higher compressive strength than rubber. (True/False)
A

False

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19
Q
  1. In most brittle materials such as cast iron, the compressive strength is several times greater than the tensile strength. (True/False)
A

True

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20
Q
  1. The Charpy V-notch (CVN) test is commonly used to measure the ___________________ of welded specimens. (Multiple choice)

A) impact strength and toughness.

B) fatigue strength and ductility

C) tensile strength and ultimate tensile strength (UTS).

D) elasticity and yield strength.

A

A) impact strength and toughness.

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21
Q
  1. The definition of elasticity is: (Multiple choice)

A) The ability of a metal to resist a load that tends to pull it apart.

B) The ability of a material to return to its original shape and dimension after it has been stretched.

C) The point where a material extends plastically without much change in stress.

D) A material’s ability to resist crushing.

A

B) The ability of a material to return to its original shape and dimension after it has been stretched.

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22
Q
  1. Hot-shortness is: (Multiple choice)

A) Volume change created by transformation.

B) Cracking susceptibility caused by high sulphur content.

C) The uncontrolled transformation of pearlite to austenite.

D) Cracking susceptibility caused by excessive hardness.

A

B) Cracking susceptibility caused by high sulphur content.

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23
Q
  1. What is the result of hot-shortness in a metal? (Multiple choice)

A) Loss of impact strength.

B) Increased toughness.

C) Loss of ductility.

D) Increased malleability.

A

A) Loss of impact strength.

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24
Q
  1. Hot-rolling is carried out in what region? (Multiple choice)

A) The austenite region.

B) The pearlite region

C) The cementite region.

D) The ferrite region.

A

A) The austenite region

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25
Q
  1. What is the difference between annealing and normalizing? (Multiple choice)

A) Normalizing is a treatment that is performed to increase the strength and toughness of a steel. Annealing is a treatment for increasing toughness only.

B) Normalizing is a treatment that involves heating a steel to below 910 °C and air cooling. Annealing does not involve actual transformation but uses slow cooling.

C) Normalizing is a treatment that involves heating into the fully austenitic region followed by air cooling. Annealing is a treatment which involves heating into the fully austenitic region followed by furnace cooling.

D) Normalizing is a treatment that is performed to increase the hardness and toughness of a steel. Annealing is a treatment for increasing toughness only.

A

B) Normalizing is a treatment that involves heating a steel to below 910 °C and air cooling. Annealing does not involve actual transformation but uses slow cooling.

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26
Q
  1. Metal atoms get their properties from their structure and orientation. (True/False)
A

True

27
Q
  1. Select the non-ferrous metal from the following: (Multiple choice)
    Question 18 options:

A) Wrought iron.

B) Copper.

C) Carbon steel.

D) Stainless steel.

A

B) Copper.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following materials is a ferrous alloy? (Multiple choice)

A) Aluminum.

B) Nickel.

C) Chromium.

D) Stainless steel.

A

D) Stainless steel.

29
Q
  1. The surface of cold-rolled steel has a: (Multiple choice)

A) dull, white appearance.

B) rough and dull grey appearance.

C) black mill scale finish.

D) metallic shine.

A

D) metallic shine.

30
Q
  1. What is the lightest commercial metal with a density of 1800 kg/m³ (0.065 lb/in³)? (Multiple choice)

A) Copper

B) Aluminum

C) Vanadium

D) Magnesium

A

B) Aluminum

31
Q
  1. When a pressure vessel is made from formed plates, they are usually arranged: (Multiple choice)

A) with the rolling direction around the circumference.

B) with the rolling direction in a pattern alternating between around the circumference and along the length of the pipe.

C) with the rolling direction along the length of the pipe.

D) randomly.

A

C) with the rolling direction along the length of the pipe.

32
Q
  1. In order to obtain specific steel properties, special processes can be used such as vacuum degassing. What does vacuum degassing do? (Multiple choice)

A) It increases the gas content (hydrogen and oxygen).

B) It reduces the gas content (hydrogen and oxygen).

C) It removes the surface area of the melt by suction.

D) It uses suction to stir the melt.

A

B) It reduces the gas content (hydrogen and oxygen).

33
Q
  1. A capped steel is similar to: (Multiple choice)

A) Stainless steel.

B) Rimmed steel.

C) Semi-killed steel

D) Killed steel.

A

B) Rimmed steel.

34
Q
  1. Groove welds can experience problems due to segregation in rimmed steel. (True/False)
A

True

35
Q
  1. Alloy steels and steels with greater than 0.3% carbon are fully killed. (True/False)
A

True

36
Q
  1. Molten steel can be either cast in individual ingots or continuous casting. (True/False)
A

False

37
Q
  1. When working with stainless steels, what does the term pickling refer to? (Multiple choice)
    Question 28 options:

A) A chemical treatment to remove surface iron contamination only.

B) A chemical treatment to remove the mill scale prior to welding

C) A chemical treatment to corrode the surface in a controlled fashion.

D) A chemical treatment to corrode the surface in an uncontrolled fashion.

A

C) A chemical treatment to corrode the surface in a controlled fashion.

38
Q
  1. What series of stainless steel is commonly used in washing machines, cutlery, the automotive industry, and the food and beverage industry? (Multiple choice)
    Question 29 options:

A) 200 series.

B) 300 series.

C) 400 series.

D) 316 series.

A

A) 200 series.

39
Q
  1. Why is it important to have procedures in place for the storage and handling of stainless steels? (Multiple choice)
    Question 30 options:

A) Stainless steels are affected by contamination and procedures should be in place to ensure the corrosion resistance is maintained.

B) Stainless steels are not affected by contamination, therefore procedures are not needed to ensure the corrosion resistance is maintained.

C) Stainless steels need procedures in place to ensure the surface appearance is maintained.

D) Stainless steels are affected by contamination, however specific procedures are not required.

A

A) Stainless steels are affected by contamination and procedures should be in place to ensure the corrosion resistance is maintained.

40
Q
  1. The passive oxide layer in stainless steels provides a surface layer inert to corrosive attack. This is possibly due to: (Multiple choice)
    Question 31 options:

A) the chromium content.

B) the addition of sulphuric acids.

C) the percentage of nickel.

D) manganese alloys.

A

A) the chromium content

41
Q
  1. How many types of steel are covered by CSA G40.21? (Multiple choice)
    Question 32 options:

A) 5

B) 6

C) 7

D) 8

A

B) 6

42
Q
  1. P groupings in ASME Section IX are used to group steels for procedure qualification testing. (True/False)
A

True

43
Q
  1. The ASTM designation system for metals consists of a letter. What does A represent? (Multiple choice)
    Question 34 options:

A) Ferrous materials.

B) Non-ferrous materials.

C) Aluminum.

D) Atomic grade materials.

A

A) Ferrous materials.

44
Q
  1. What designates that AISI 4340 refers to nickel-chromium-molybdenum steel? (Multiple choice)
    Question 35 options:

A) The first digit

B) The first two digits

C) The first three digits

D) The last digit

A

B) The first two digits

45
Q
  1. Why can the properties of steel be changed through heat treatment? (Multiple choice)
    Question 36 options:

A) Because the steel expands as it heats up.

B) Because when the steel is held at elevated temperatures, grains shrink in size.

C) Because of the phase change from ferrite to cementite.

D) Because of the phase changes from BCC to FCC to BCC.

A

D) Because of the phase changes from BCC to FCC to BCC.

46
Q
  1. At temperatures above 910 °C (1670 °F), iron exists in which crystalline structure? (Multiple choice)
    Question 37 options:

A) FCC

B) BCC

C) HCP

D) PCC

A

B) BCC

47
Q
  1. Which of the following atomic structures is the most closely packed (most dense)? (Multiple choice)
    Question 38 options:

A) Face-centred cubic structure (FCC)

B) Body-centred cubic structure (BCC)

C) Corner-centred cubic structure (CCC)

D) Plain-centred cubic structure (PCC)

A

A) Face-centred cubic structure (FCC)

48
Q
  1. Ferrite is the phase that at room temperature contains almost: (Multiple choice)
    Question 39 options:

A) no carbon.

B) all the austenite in a steel.

C) all the carbon in a steel.

D) all the graphite in a steel.

A

B) all the austenite in a steel.

49
Q
  1. If more than 0.8% carbon is added to iron, the resulting material: (Multiple choice)
    Question 40 options:

A) can no longer be forged.

B) is called cast iron.

C) will contain cementite and pearlite.

D) will contain martensite and pearlite.

A

C) will contain cementite and pearlite.

50
Q
  1. The melting point of tungsten is: (Multiple choice)
    Question 41 options:

A) 1535 °C (2800 °F)

B) 3700 °C (6700 °F)

C) 2415 °C (4379 °F)

D) 3410 °C (6170 °F)

A

D) 3410 °C (6170 °F)

51
Q
  1. From the materials listed below, choose the metal with the highest thermal conductivity. (Multiple choice)
    Question 42 options:

A) Silver.

B) Gold.

C) Aluminum.

D) Copper.

A

A) Silver.

52
Q
  1. The ratio of the mass of a metal to its volume is known as: (Multiple choice)
    Question 43 options:

A) Ductility.

B) Yield strength.

C) Specific gravity.

D) Density.

A

D) Density.

53
Q
  1. The melting and freezing points of a pure metal are the same. (True/False)
A

true

54
Q
  1. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a standard is known as: (Multiple choice)
    Question 45 options:

A) Yield strength.

B) Ductility.

C) Specific gravity.

D) Thermal conductivity.

A

C) Specific gravity.

55
Q
  1. During welding, metals having high coefficients of thermal expansion are at higher risk of: (Multiple choice)
    Question 46 options:

A) Distortion.

B) Brittle fracture.

C) Corrosion.

D) Electrical resistivity.

A

C) Corrosion.

56
Q
  1. A heat number is an identification number stamped on a material plate after it is removed from the ladle and rolled at a steel mill: (True/False)
A

True

57
Q
  1. What are the three main components when charging a blast furnace? (Multiple choice)
    Question 48 options:

A) Iron ore, nickel pellets, and limestone.

B) Iron ore, manganese, and coke

C) Iron ore, limestone, and coke.

D) Iron ore, nickel pellets, and coke.

A

C) Iron ore, limestone, and coke.

58
Q
  1. When making steel, the first process is to convert iron ore into pig iron. Which furnace is used for this process? (Multiple choice)
    Question 49 options:

A) An open hearth furnace.

B) A basic oxygen furnace

C) An electric furnace

D) A blast furnace.

A

D) A blast furnace

59
Q
  1. The grouping of steels referred to as high strength low alloy steels (HLSA) typically exhibit the following attributes: (Multiple choice)
    Question 50 options:

A) A high carbon content, high strength, and a large grain size.

B) A high carbon content, high strength, and a fine grain size.

C) A low carbon content, high strength, and a fine grain size.

D) A low carbon content, poor toughness, and a large grain size.

A

B) A high carbon content, high strength, and a fine grain size.

60
Q
  1. Carbon steels can have a wide range of properties by varying the carbon content. Steel with a carbon content of 0.80 to 1.0% is typically used for: (Multiple choice)
    Question 51 options:

A) Steel plates, forgings, and screws.

B) Rails, drop forgings, and chisels.

C) Files, razors, and ball races.

D) Coil springs, punches, and dies.

A

D) Coil springs, punches, and dies.

61
Q
  1. High carbon steels typically provide: (Multiple choice)
    Question 52 options:

A) High toughness.

B) High strength.

C) Good welding properties.

D) Good corrosion protection.

A

B) High strength.

62
Q
  1. Which element below will provide the maximum benefit for impact and abrasion applications? (Multiple choice)
    Question 53 options:

A) Lead.

B) Oxygen

C) Aluminum.

D) Manganese.

A

B) Oxygen

63
Q
  1. A benefit of many HSLA steels is improved atmospheric corrosion resistance. This may be _________ times more resistant than a carbon steel. (Multiple choice)
    Question 54 options:

A) 1 to 3

B) 3 to 5

C) 4 to 6

D) 5 to 8

A

C) 4 to 6

Welder Inspector - Level 1 (5 decks)

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