Metabolism Flashcards

0
Q

What is the daily energy expenditure for a 70kg male?

A

12000kJ

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1
Q

What does the daily energy expenditure consist of?

A

Three components
Basal metabolic rate- energy required to support basal metabolism to maintain life at physical digestive and emotional rest (= weight in kg x 24)
Voluntary physical exercise- energy required by the skeletal and cardiac muscle for voluntary physical exercise
Diet induced thermogenesis- energy required to process the food we eat (digest absorb distribute and store) (=10% of energy of ingested food)

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2
Q

What is the daily energy expenditure for a 58kg female?

A

9500kJ

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3
Q

What are the essential components of the diet?

A
Carbohydrate
Protein
Fat
Vitamins
Minerals
Water
Fibre
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4
Q

Why are carbohydrates essential?

A

Supply energy

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5
Q

Why are proteins essential?

A

Supply energy
Supply amino acids which can’t be made by the body
Maintain a nitrogen balance in the body- N loss = N intake

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6
Q

Why are fats essential?

A

Supply energy (2.2 x as much as carbohydrates and proteins)
Fat soluble vitamins- assist in their distribution (DAKE)
Supply essential fatty acids which can’t be made in the body (linolenic acid)

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7
Q

Why are vitamins essential?

A

Assist in metabolic functions of the body
Required for synthesis of fibres- vitamin C required for fibroblast function
Required in blood clotting cascade- vitamin k required to synthesise blood clotting factors
Vitamin D required for calcium serum concentration regulation

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8
Q

Why are minerals essential?

A

Na, K - muscle and nerve functions
Ca- co factor of body reactions
Mg, I, Cu- enzyme and gland functioning

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9
Q

Why is water essential?

A

Maintain hydration- (50-60% of body weight); loss of 2.5l/day

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10
Q

Why is fibre essential?

A

Maintain normal GI function (cellulose)

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11
Q

What are the clinical consequences of protein and energy deficiencies in humans?

A

Marasmus

Kwashiorkor

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12
Q

What is marasmus?

A
Protein and energy (carbs) deficiency, low fluids 
No oedema (due to low plasma protein and fluids)
Thin bony child

Usage of fat stores- ketone body synthesis to supply brain
Use of glycogen stores and then protein breakdown= Muscle wastage
Cardiovascular and brain muscle wastage in severe cases= death

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13
Q

What is kwashiorkors?

A

Protein deficiency, normal energy (carbs), normal fluids
Oedema (due to lower plasma protein than marasmus, and normal fluids)
Thin child with a pop belly

Hepatic dysfunction due to insufficient proteins to synthesise lipoproteins= fat accumulates in liver- fatty liver = HEPATOMEGALY!
Oedema formation due to low plasma protein concentration= low oncotic pressure in plasma= causes fluid shifts (ascites, ankle oedema)

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14
Q

How does reintroduction of food affect marasmus and kwashiorkors patients? Refeeding syndrome?

A

Marasmus- no serious effect but reintroduction of food needs to be slow
Kwashiorkors- unable to deal with protein rich foods in large amounts due to down regulation of certain enzymes involved in the metabolism and excretory process of proteins normally
Leads to build up of ammonia in blood as a by product of metabolism= toxicity (hyperammonaemia); therefore small amounts of protein at regular intervals are required

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15
Q

How do you calculate BMI?

A

Weight (kg) / (height)squared (m)

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16
Q

What are the value ranges for BMI?

A

35 severely obese

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17
Q

Define obesity

A

Condition in which excess body fat has accumulated as a result of energy intake exceeding energy expenditure, where BMI > 30, which may have an adverse effect on health, resulting in a reduced life expectancy or other comorbidities (heart disease- atherosclerosis, gall bladder disease, hypertension, type 2 diabetes)

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18
Q

What are the factors involved in the regulation of body weight?

A

Daily energy intake and daily energy expenditure

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19
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Control of internal body environment within set limits- dynamic equilibrium

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20
Q

What is the clinical relevance of failure of homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis underpins physiology and failure of homeostasis Results in DISEASE

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21
Q

Define cell metabolism

A

Set of processes which derive energy and raw materials from food stuff and uses them for support, repair, growth and activities of the tissues of the body to support life

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22
Q

Cells metabolise nutrients to provide…?

A

Energy for cell function and synthesis of cell components
Building block materials for cell components
Organic precursor molecules to allow interconversion of building block molecules
Biosynthetic reducing power used in synthesis of cell components

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23
Q

What are the origins of cell nutrients?

A

Diet
Storage in body
Synthesis in body

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24
Q

What are the fates of nutrients in the body?

A

Degraded to release energy in all tissue
Synthesis of cell components in all tissues except RBCs
Storage in liver muscle or adipose tissue

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25
Q

What is catabolism?

A
Break down of large molecules into smaller molecules
Exergonic
Oxidative
Produces intermediate cell metabolites
Stimulated by low energy signals
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26
Q

What is anabolism?

A
Synthesis of large molecules from smaller molecules
Endergonic
Reductive
Uses metabolites from catabolism
Stimulated by high energy signals
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27
Q

Why do cells need a s continuous supply of energy?

METBO

A
Mechanical (muscle contraction) 
Electrical (nerves)
Transport (active) 
Biosynthesis (e.g. Protein)
Osmosis (kidneys, large intestine etc) 

If insufficient energy intake- body uses stores

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28
Q

Describe ATP?

A

Synthesis of ATP is anabolic/ endergonic

Breakdown of ATP is catabolic/ exergonic (used by cells)
Terminal phosphate bond contains large amount of energy- which is released in hydrolysis

Adenine and three phosphates

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29
Q

How can ATP be stored in muscle?

A

Creatine + ATP = creatine phosphate + ADP

So ATP can be quickly regenerated when required

CREATINE KINASE

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30
Q

What is the clinical importance of creatinine (formed from creatine)?

A

Measured of muscle mass
Determinant for kidney function
Comparison for other nutrient measurements

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31
Q

What are the hydrogen carriers and their function?

A
NAD+ (niacin) 
FAD (flavin)
NADP (niacin) 
CARRIERS OF BIOSYNTHETIC REDUCING POWER
Change between oxidised and reduced form

Obtained from vitamin B ()

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32
Q

How do hydrogen carriers become reduced?

A

By the addition of 2 H

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33
Q

What happens to the total concentration of carriers at all times?

A

Remains constant

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34
Q

What is oxidation?

A

Loss of electrons and H+

Exergonic

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35
Q

What is reduction?

A

Gain of electrons and H+

Endergonic

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36
Q

What are some high energy signals?

A

ATP, NADPH, NADH, FADH2

activates anabolism

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37
Q

What are some low energy signals?

A

AMP, ADP, NADP, FAD, NAD+

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38
Q

What do carbohydrates consist of?

A

C H O
Polysaccharide chain made up of monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic bonds in condensation reactions
Contain aldehyde or ketone groups

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39
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

Monomer unit for carbohydrates
Asymmetric carbon atom (stereoisomers)
Natural form = d form (not l)
Usually 3-9 carbon atoms

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40
Q

What are disaccharides?

A

Two monosaccharides units joined by a glycosidic bond

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41
Q

What are some examples of disaccharides?

A

Lactose (galactose and glucose)
Sucrose (fructose and glucose)
Maltose (glucose and glucose)

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42
Q

What are oligosaccharides?

A

Carbohydrates with 3-12 monosaccharide units

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43
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A

Carbohydrates with 10-100 monosaccharide units

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44
Q

What are some examples of polysaccharides?

A

Glycogen-polymer of glucose, animals, alpha 1,4 and 1,6 bonds, highly branched
Starch-polymer of glucose, plants, mixture of amylose and amylopectin, alpha 1,4 and 1,6 bonds, less branched than glycogen, broken down to glucose and maltose by GI tract enzymes
Cellulose- structural polymer of glucose, plants, beta 1,4 bonds, no GI enzymes exist to digest these bonds, dietary fibre important for normal GI function

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45
Q

What enzymes in the body digest carbohydrates?

A
Salivary amylase (digest alpha 1,4)
Pancreatic amylase (digest alpha 1,4)
Maltase
Lactase
Sucrase
Isomaltase (digest alpha 1,6)
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46
Q

How are monosaccharides absorbed into the blood?

A

Actively transported into the intestinal epithelial cells

Facilitated diffusion out of epithelial cells into the blood (using GLUT1-5 transport proteins)

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47
Q

What are GLUT1-5?

A

Glucose transport proteins which alter their affinity for glucose according to the differences in requirements of tissues for glucose
E.g glut 4 sensitive to presence of insulin in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue (high insulin increases glucose uptake by these cells by increasing number of transport proteins in plasma membrane)

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48
Q

Why is the concentration of glucose in the blood normally held relatively constant?

A

Some tissues have an absolute requirement of glucose and the amount of glucose uptake by these tissues is dependent on the concentration in the blood

RBCs, kidney medulla, lens of eye, WBCs, peripheral nerves
Brain and CNS prefers glucose

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49
Q

What is the minimum amount of glucose required by a healthy adult on a normal diet

A

180g/day

40g/day by RBCs WBCs kidney medulla lens of eye
140g/day by CNS
Various amounts required by tissues for specialised functions (e.g. Synthesis of tags in adipose tissue requires glucose as it needs glycerol phosphate)

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50
Q

Outline how carbohydrates catabolised in the body

A

Glycolysis
Link reaction
Krebs cycle
Oxidative phosphorylation

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51
Q

Outline how proteins are metabolised in the body

A

Amino group is removed by deamination
Amino group goes to urea cycle or undergoes ammonia detoxification
Carbon skeleton-
– glucogenic: glycolysis (pyruvate) or Krebs cycle (oxaloacetate, fumerate or alpha ketoglutarate)
– ketogenic: ketone body synthesis (acetyl coA)

Amino group is transferred to a keto acid using amino transferase enzymes
Keto acid generated can be metabolised in the Krebs cycle (glucogenic and ketogenic as above)
aa1 + ka2 –> ka1 + aa2

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52
Q

What happens in the transamination of alanine (glutamate)?

A

Alanine + alpha ketoglutarate = pyruvate + glutamate

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53
Q

What enzyme is used in the transamination of alanine?

A

Alanine amino transferase

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54
Q

What happens in the transamination of aspartate (glutamate)?

A

Aspartate + alpha ketoglutarate = oxaloacetate + glutamate

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55
Q

What enzyme is used in the transamination of aspartate?

A

Aspartate amino transferase

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56
Q

What are the main (rate limiting step) enzymes involved in glycolysis?

A

Step 1 hexokinase and glucokinase (exclusively found in the liver)
Step 3 phosphofructokinase 1
Step 10 pyruvate kinase

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57
Q

What enzyme is involved in the link reaction?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

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58
Q

What is the main (rate limiting step) enzyme in the Krebs cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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59
Q

How is hexokinase, glucokinase activity regulated?

A

Glucose 6-phosphate product inhibition

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60
Q

How is phosphofructokinase-1 activity regulated in the muscle and liver?

A

Muscle :
By allosteric regulation
Simulated by AMP, ADP, citrate
Inhibited by ATP

Liver :
By hormonal regulation
Stimulated by high insulin: glucagon
Inhibited by low insulin: glucagon

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61
Q

How is pyruvate kinase activity regulated?

A

Dephosphorylation- covalent modification
Stimulated by high insulin: glucagon ratio
Inhibited by low insulin: glucagon ratio

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62
Q

Where in the cell and the body does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm of all body cells

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63
Q

What are the functions of glycolysis?

A

Oxidise glucose, produce 2 NADH
Synthesise 2 ATP (net)
Produces c6 and c3 intermediates (glycerol phosphate (for fatty acid synthesis) and 2-3BPG)

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64
Q

What are some features of glycolysis?

A
Exergonic, oxidative (catabolism) 
C6--> 2C3 no loss of C
Operates anaerobic ally
Cytoplasm of all cells
Irreversible
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65
Q

How does fructose join in on the glycolysis pathway?

A

Fructose –> Fructose-1-Phosphate –> Glyceraldehyde –> Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate –> GLYCOLYSIS

Fructose –> Fructose-1-Phosphate –> Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) –> Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate –> GLYCOLYSIS

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66
Q

What are the enzymes involved in fructose metabolism?

A
Fructose kinase (F to F-1-P) 
Aldolase (F-1-P to glyceraldehyde)
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67
Q

What happens in the deficiency of fructokinase?

A

Essential fructosuria

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68
Q

What happens in the deficiency of aldolase?

A

Fructose intolerance

Fructose-1-Phosphate accumulates in liver = liver damage

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72
Q

What are the enzymes involved in galactose metabolism?

A

Galactokinase (Gal to Gal-1-P)

Galactose-1-Phosphate uridyl transferase (Gal-1-P to G-1-P)

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73
Q

What happens in deficiency of galactokinase?

A

Build up of galactose
Increased conversion of galactose into galactitol using aldose reductase and NADPH
Depletes levels of NADPH (normally prevents formation of SS bonds) in lens
Formation of disulphide bonds between cysteine residues on proteins in lens= cataracts

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74
Q

What happens in deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase?

A

Build up of galactose
Increased conversion of galactose into galactitol using aldose reductase and NADPH
Depletes levels of NADPH (normally prevents formation of SS bonds) in lens
Formation of disulphide bonds between cysteine residues on proteins in lens= cataracts

Build up of galactose-1-phosphate
Damage to liver kidney and brain
Toxic to hepatocytes = liver damage
Bilirubin (which is produced from haem in breakdown of RBCs in the spleen) can’t be conjugated by liver and so is released in to the blood = jaundice

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75
Q

What happens if NAD+ is not regenerated from NADH produced during glycolysis?

A

Glycolysis would stop due to accumulation of NADH inhibiting some steps

(Normally NAD+ is regenerated in oxidative phosphorylation but in anaerobic conditions this cannot occur)

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76
Q

What happens in anaerobic conditions that stops the regeneration of NAD+?

A

Oxygen is the final acceptor in the electron transport chain
Lack of oxygen means electron transport chain will stop- oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur - as no free energy is being produced and so no pmf is produced
Therefore no NAD+ is being regenerated

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77
Q

How is NAD+ regenerated under anaerobic conditions or generally in RBCs and keratinocytes?

A

Glycolysis (anaerobic) +

Pyruvate–> lactate (using lactate dehydrogenase) = reduction reaction

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78
Q

What is important about RBCs and keratinocytes which means that they are constantly undergoing anaerobic catabolism?

A

They lack mitochondria which are the site of aerobic catabolism

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79
Q

When is lactate produced?

A

By RBCs all the time and by skeletal muscle under anaerobic conditions

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80
Q

What is the fate of lactate?

A

Released in the blood
Normally metabolised by LIVER and HEART via LDH back to pyruvate (since liver and heart are generally well supplied with oxygen and so can quickly perform the reaction when anaerobic conditions cease)

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81
Q

What is hyperlactaemia?

A

Plasma conc 2-5 mM
Below renal threshold
No change in blood pH (buffering capacity)

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82
Q

What is lactic acidosis?

A

Above 5mM
Above renal threshold- lactosuria
Blood pH lowered (lactate itself does not cause the lowering of pH- the fact that H+ ions, which are released in ATP hydrolysis, are not being reincorporated back into ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation means that H+ concentration increases)
Cramps, pains

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83
Q

What is the normal lactate production rate?

A

40-50g/day

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84
Q

In strenuous exercise what is the lactate production rate?

A

30g/5 min

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85
Q

How is lactate utilised?

A

Normally metabolised by LIVER and HEART via LDH back to pyruvate (since liver and heart are generally well supplied with oxygen and so can quickly perform the reaction when anaerobic conditions cease)
Heart–> CO2
Liver –> glucose (gluconeogenesis)
—— impaired in liver disease, thiamine vitamin B1 deficiency, alcohol consumption (NAD+ –> NADH), enzyme deficiencies

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86
Q

What is lactose intolerance?

A

Low activity of lactase
Lactose can’t be broken down in the gut so remains and lowers wp in the large intestine so increased water loss = diarrhoea and dehydration
Bacteria colonise indigested lactose and ferment it to produce organic acids that irritate the GI= stomach cramps

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87
Q

What is the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

2 stage (multistep) pathway, break from glycolysis!
- oxidative decarboxylation of G-6-P by G-6-P dehydrogenase
G-6-P + NADP+ –> C5 sugar + CO2 + NADPH
-rearrangement back to glycolytic intermediates
3C5 sugars ~~~~> 2-fructose-6-phosphate + 1-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

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88
Q

What are some features of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

No ATP production
Loss of CO2 therefore irreversible
Controlled by NADP+/NADPH ratio at G-6-P dehydrogenase

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89
Q

What enzyme is involved PPP?

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase

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90
Q

What is the purpose of PPP?

A

Produces NADPH in cytoplasm- Biosynthetic reducing power (for fatty acid synthesis so high activity in liver and apipose) and maintain free S-H on cysteine residues in certain proteins/ prevent oxidation to S-S (disulphide bond)
Produces C5 sugars for nucleotides needed for nucleic acid synthesis (so high activity in dividing tissues e.g. Bone marrow)

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91
Q

What tissues have high activity of ppp?

A

Liver and adipose tissue- fatty acid synthesis
Dividing tissues (bone marrow)- c5 nucleotides
RBC and lens of eyes- need NADPH to prevent formation of S-S bonds

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92
Q

What two things does the ppp produce?

A
NADPH
C5 sugars (ribose)
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93
Q

What are the symptoms of a deficiency in galactokinase?

A

Cataracts

Galactosuria

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94
Q

What are symptoms of a deficiency in galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase?

A

Cataracts
Galactosuria
Liver damage
Jaundice

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95
Q

How does galactose join in on the glycolytic pathway?

A

Galactose –> Galactose-1-Phosphate –> Glucose-1-Phosphate –> Glucose-6-Phosphate –> GLYCOLYSIS

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96
Q

What happens in a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction?

A

Reduction in NADPH causes:
Reduction in fatty acid synthesis
Less maintenance of SH residues in lens of eyes= formation of disulphide bonds= CATARACTS in lens of eye
Less maintenance of SH residues in RBCs= formation of disulphide binds between haemoglobin molecules= Heinz bodies= increased breakdown of RBCs by spleen= ANAEMIA = increased amount of bilirubin in liver= liver can’t conjugate all the bilirubin= some released back into blood= JAUNDICE
Oxidised form of glutathione (with disulphide bonds) stabilised= so reduced glutathione is not available to detoxify/ reduce hydrogen peroxide and other ROS’s = oxidative stress

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97
Q

What is the side effect of using anti malarials on glutathione?

A

Anti malarials have the side effect of oxidising glutathione (disulphide bridges formed)
Reduced Glutathione (and NADPH) both prevent the formation of disulphide bonds between haemoglobin molecules
So when an anti malarial oxidises glutathione, it is no longer able to present formation of disulphide bonds- which consequently form
= Heinz bodies

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98
Q

What is the refeeding syndrome?

A

Occurs in anorexic patients, cancer patients, post surgery, alcoholics
Unclear cause- occurs from reintroduction of calories to malnourished
Metabolic disturbance due to shift away from predominantly fat metabolism
Need to closely monitor electrolytes and treat disturbances carefully
Risks include confusion, coma, convulsions and death

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99
Q

Where does the link reaction Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

In the mitochondrial matrix

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100
Q

What enzyme is used to convert pyruvate into acetyl coA?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

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101
Q

What is pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

5 enzyme complex- different enzymes require different cofactors (FAD, thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid= all provided by vitamin B)
Pyruvate –> acetyl coA

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102
Q

How is pyruvate converted to acetyl coA?

A

Pyruvate + NAD+ + coA –> acetyl coA + NADH + CO2
Irreversible!
Using PDH

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103
Q

What is important about the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA?

A

IRREVERIBLE AS CO2 IS LOST = key regulatory step

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104
Q

How is PDH regulated?

A

Stimulated by coA, NAD+, ADP, (pyruvate and insulin)

Inhibited by acetyl coA, NADH, ATP

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105
Q

What vitamin deficiency affects the actin of PDH and why?

A

Vitamin B1 (thiamine) - provides the cofactors (FAD, thiamine pyrophosphate and lipoid acid) needed by the different enzymes in the PDH enzyme complex

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106
Q

What does a deficiency in PDH result in?

A

Lactic acidosis as lactate dehydrogenase pathway is stimulated

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107
Q

What are some key features of the Krebs cycle?

A

Mitochondrial
Single pathway- central pathway in catabolism of sugars, fatty acids, ketone bodies amino acids and alcohol
Acetyl converted to 2CO2
Oxidative/exergonic/ requires NAD+ and FAD
Produces lots of NADH FADH2 - used to drive ATP synthesis in ox phos
Some energy produced as ATP/GTP
Produces precursors for biosynthesis (amino acids, haem, glucose and fatty acids)
Occurs twice for every molecule of glucose entering glycolysis
Only functions in presence of oxygen

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108
Q

What key enzyme is involved in Krebs cycle

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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109
Q

How is isocitrate dehydrogenase regulated?

A

Regulated by energy availability
ATP/ADP ratio and NADH/ NAD+ ratio
Stimulated by ADP (low energy signals)
Inhibited by NADH (high energy signals)

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110
Q

What two things does stage 4 of catabolism consist of?

A

Electron transport- electrons in NADH and FAD2H transferred through a series if carrier molecules to oxygen; releases energy in steps

ATP synthesis by Oxidative phosphorylation- free energy released used to drive ATP synthesis

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111
Q

Where does stage 4 of catabolism occur?

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

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112
Q

What is the process of stage 4 of catabolism? C p e f I p a o

A

NADH and FAD2H carriers transfer their electrons to carrier molecules in the mitochondrial membrane, which transfer electrons to molecular oxygen and are organised into a series of 4 highly specialised protein complexes spanning the entire mitochondrial membrane
3 complexes (I, III AND IV) act as proton translocation complexes
Free energy from electron transport is used to move protons from the inside to the outside of the inner mitochondrial membrane via the proton translocation complexes
The mitochondrial membrane itself is impermeable to protons and as electron transport continues, concentration of protons outside the inner mitochondrial membrane increased
Proton translocation complexes transform chemical bond energy of electrons into an electrochemical gradient of protons across the membrane = proton motive force
ATP synthesis requires 31kJ/mol energy from pmf to drive the reaction
Protons renter the mitochondrial matrix bis ATP synthase complex (V) driving the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi
Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain

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113
Q

How many proton translocating complexes do NADH and FAD2H use?

A

NADH uses 3 whereas FAD2H uses 2

Because electrons in NADH have more energy than in FAD2H

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114
Q

What is the relation between proton motive force and ATP synthesis?

A

The greater the pmf the more ATP synthesis

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115
Q

How much ATP is produced per mole of NADH?

A

2.5 ATP/ mole of NADH

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116
Q

How much ATP is produced per mole of FAD2H?

A

1.5 ATP / mole FAD2H

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117
Q

How is oxidative phosphorylation regulated?

A

Mitochondrial concentration of ATP

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118
Q

What describes the relationship between electron transport and ATP synthesis?

A

Tightly Coupled

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119
Q

When ATP concentration in mitochondria is high, what happens to ox phos?

A

When ATP: ADP ratio is high = no substrate for ATP synthase = inward flow of protons stops = increase in conc of protons in inner mitochondrial space= prevents further pumping of protons= stops electron transport

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120
Q

Name three uncouplers

A

Dinitrophenol
Dinitrocresol
Fatty acids

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121
Q

How do uncouplers affect ox phos?

A

Uncouplers work by uncoupling electron transport and ATP synthesis
Uncouplers penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane
Uncouplers increase permeability of inner mitochondria membrane for protons
Protons reenter the mitochondrial matrix
ATP synthase not activated so no ATP synthesis
Pmf is dissipated as heat
Electron transport and thus NADH/FAD2H oxidation continues
Free energy is released as heat
Respiration continues to bring more NADH and FAD2H to mitochondria and uses up fuel molecules (fatty acids, glucose etc)
More and more heat production

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122
Q

What inhibits ox phos and how does this happen?

A
Cyanide and carbon monoxide
Binds to IV (ptc)
Stops electron transport
Blocks NADH and FAD2H oxidation
No free energy is produced
No pmf
No ATP synthesis 
Cell death
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123
Q

What are ox phos diseases?

A

Genetic defects in proteins encoded by mtDNA (some subunits of the PTCs and ATP synthase) which cause a decrease in electron transport and ATP synthesis

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124
Q

Which is more common to occur transamination or deamination?

A

Transamination

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125
Q

What hormone stimulates the production of aminotransferases in the liver?

A

Cortisol

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126
Q

Which keto acid is mostly used in transamination?

A

Alpha keto glutarate- always produces glutamate when an amino group is added

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127
Q

What amino acid is produced when alpha keto glutarate undergoes transamination?

A

Glutamate

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128
Q

What amino acid is produced when glutamate undergoes transamination?

A

Aspartate

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129
Q

Why is aspartate a useful product in the catabolism of proteins?

A

Important intermediate in the synthesis of urea

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130
Q

What enzymes are involved in deamination and where are they found?

A

L and D amino acid oxidases in the liver (D has a higher activity)

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131
Q

Describe the two step process of deamination of glutamine

A

Glutamine is converted into glutamate and ammonia by glutaminase
Glutamine –> glutamate + NH3 (glutaminase)

Produced glutamate is then converted to alpha ketoglutarate and an ammonium ion by glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutamate + NAD + H2O –> alpha ketoglutarate + NADH + H+ + NH4+ (glutamate dehydrogenase)

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132
Q

Why do the Krebs and urea cycle lack defects?

A

There are no known defects in Krebs and ureas cycle that allow life to be sustained as a lack in any enzyme would result in DEATH

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133
Q

What is phenylketonuria?

A

Phenylalanine–> tyrosine (phenylalanine hydroxylase)
Inherited recessive condition = Defective enzyme: phenylalanine hydroxylase
Phenylalanine accumulates in tissues and is metabolised by their pathways
Phenylketones (phenylpyruvate) are produced in an alternative pathway:
Phenylalanine–> phenylketones

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134
Q

What are some symptoms of phenylketonuria?

A

Hypopigmentation
If not picked up- it can cause mental retardation as phenylalanine inhibits brain development
Lack of tyrosine (usually involved in synthesis of neurotransmitters, hormones, noradrenaline, adrenaline) leads to decrease in neurotransmitters
Phenyl pyruvate prevents pyruvate uptake into mitochondria- brain energy metabolism

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135
Q

What is the reaction in which phenylalanine is converted into phenyl pyruvate?

A

Transamination reaction

Phenylalanine + alpha ketoglutarate –> phenyl pyruvate + alpha glutamic acid

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136
Q

What are the clinical consequences of PKU and why should it be detected as early as possible?

A

Phenylalanine is a large neutral amino acid (LNAA) and so competes with other LNAA’s for transport across the brain blood barrier via LNAAT (transporter)
If excess phenylalanine is present (in the case of PKU) this saturates the LNAAT thereby decreasing the levels of other LNAA’s (essential for neurotransmitters and protein synthesis) entering the brain
As a result phenylalanine builds up hindering the development of the brain and causing MENTAL RETARDATION

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137
Q

What is the test for PKU?

A

Heel prick test at birth

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138
Q

What enzyme is deficient in PKU?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

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139
Q

What is homocystinuria?

A

Homocysteine–> cystathione –> cysteine (cystathione beta synthase) (vitamin B6 and folate)
Inherited recessive condition = Defective enzyme: cystathione beta synthase
Homocysteine accumulates in tissues and is metabolised by other pathways
Methionine is produced in an alternative pathway:
Homocysteine –> methionine (vitamin B12)

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140
Q

What enzyme is defective in homocystinuria?

A

Cystathione beta synthase

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141
Q

What are some symptoms of homocystinuria?

A

Affects muscles, CNS and CVS

Fibrillin 1 protein is affected- unstretchy skin

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142
Q

In homocystinuria what amino acid is found in high concentrations in the urine?

A

Homocystine (oxidised form of homocysteine)

Methionine is not found in the urine because kidneys have a higher renal threshold for methionine than for homocystine and so methionine is reabsorbed into the blood whereas homocystine is not)

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143
Q

What is required for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine?

A

Vitamin b12

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144
Q

How can PKU be treated ?

A

Avoiding phenylalanine in diet

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145
Q

Why do the signs and symptoms of homcytsinutia initially resemble Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Homocysteine affects fibrillin1 production much like in Marfan’s
Results in tall stature, less stretchy skin due to this effect on connective tissue

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146
Q

How do you treat homocystinuria?

A

Supplement vitamin b6 and folate (increase activity of CBS)
Low methionine diet
Supplements of cysteine
Medication to reduce levels of homocysteine

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147
Q

What is Marfan’s?

A

Disease in which there is lack of expression of fibrillin 1 protein- affects connective tissues

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148
Q

What is the test for Marfan’s?

A

Arms length versus height

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149
Q

Why is homocystine (the oxidised form of homocysteine) found in the urine instead of methionine?

A

Renal threshold for methionine is much higher than it is for homocystine - so methionine is reabsorbed into the blood whereas homocystine remains in urine

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150
Q

What type of inheritance pattern do homocystinuria and phenylketonuria show?

A

Recessive

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151
Q

Why is homocystinuria associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Homocysteine is a sulphur containing compound which increases its potential for oxidative stress
This results in increased atheroma formation in coronary arteries a a younger age
High risk of artery rupture due to defective fibrillin 1 formation (elastin) so high pressure in arteries OR oxidative stress (high sulphur content)

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152
Q

What is non shivering thermogenesis and where is it found?

A

Example of uncoupling process
BAT in babies and mice
In response to cold noradrenaline activates lipase to release fatty acids from TAGs
Fatty acids activate UCP1 and themselves undergo oxidation to produce NADH and FAD2H for electron transport
UCP1 transports H+ back into mitochondria
So electron transport and ATP synthesis are uncoupled and pmf is captured as extra heat

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153
Q

Outline the metabolism of lipids

A

Broken down into fatty acid and glycerol (breakdown and recombination occurs a lot throughout)

Fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation- combined with coA using fatty acyl coA synthase to make fatty acyl coA; taken into mitochondria using the carnitine shuttle; beta oxidation then occurs- 2 C lost in every cycle, using FAD/NAD+ and H2O
Acetyl coA is formed as a result–> Krebs cycle or ketone body synthesis

Glycerol–> glycerol phosphate (glycerol kinase)

  • -> Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
  • -> 2-Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
  • -> GLYCOLYSIS
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154
Q

Outline the synthesis of fatty acids

A
A Acetyl coA molecule is converted into Malonyl coA: 
Acetyl coA(2) + CO2 + ATP ---> Malonyl coA(3) + ADP + Pi (acetyl coA carboxylase)
Malonyl coA(3) is combined with another acetyl coA(2) using NADPH in repeat cycles- in each cycle a CO2(1) is lost - so at the end if each cycle a molecule is produced with 2 more carbons than the original eventually producing fatty acyl coA (~C16) (fatty acid synthase)
Fatty acyl coA is elongated and desaturated in the ER and combined with glycerol 3 phosphate to produce a TAG
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155
Q

What are tags?

A

Triacylglycerols- three fatty acids and one glycerol

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156
Q

How are TAGs formed?

A

Esterification of glycerol and 3 fatty acids

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157
Q

How are TAGs broken down?

A

Lipolysis of TAG with 3 water molecules

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158
Q

What are the three classes of lipids?

A
  • Fatty acid derivatives- TAGs (storage and insulation), phospholipids (cell membrane and plasma lipoproteins), eicosanoids (local mediators)
  • Hydroxy-methyl-glutaric acid derivatives- ketone bodies (water soluble fuel molecules- can cross blood brain barrier; substitute for glucose can be made from fatty acids), cholesterol (membranes and steroid hormone synthesis), cholesterol esters (storage of cholesterol), bile acid and salts (lipid digestion)
  • Vitamins- DAKE
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159
Q

Can fatty acid metabolism occur anaerobically?

A

NO as it requires NAD+ and FAD which need to be regenerated in the aerobic stage 4 of metabolism- so without oxygen fatty acid metabolism CANNOT OCCUR

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160
Q

What are the three main ketone bodies?

A

Acetoacetate
Acetone
Beta hydroxy butyrate

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161
Q

How are ketone bodies synthesised?

A

In the liver under conditions of starvation or type 1 diabetes
TAGs (storage)–> Fatty acids –> Acetyl coA–(HMGcoA synthase)–> HMG coA –(HMG coA lyase)–> acetoacetate –> acetone (spontaneous decarboxylation of acetoacetate) OR beta hydroxy butyrate

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162
Q

How is cholesterol produced?

A

TAGs (storage)–> Fatty acids –> Acetyl coA–(HMGcoA synthase)–> HMG coA –(HMG coA reductase)–> mevalonate –> cholesterol

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163
Q

What drug inhibits cholesterol synthesis and how does it work?

A

Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG coA reductase

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164
Q

How is ketone body synthesis regulated?

A
Ketone bodies are produced in conditions of starvation or in type 1 diabetes when an alternative source of fuel is required for organs like the brain! 
Lyase enzyme
Hormone regulation
Stimulated by glucagon 
Inhibited by insulin 

Regulated by the availability of carbohydrates for the body cells - so when no carbohydrates are available in starvation and type 1 diabetes- ketogenesis occurs

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165
Q

What enzymes are key in the production of ketone bodies?

A

HMG coA synthase and lyase

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166
Q

What enzymes are key in the production of cholesterol?

A

HMG coA synthase and reductase

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167
Q

How is alcohol metabolised?

A

Alcohol–(alcohols dehydrogenase and CYP2E1)–> acetaldehyde –(aldehyde dehydrogenase)–> acetic acid/ acetate

Alcohol –> acetaldehyde step requires NAD+ so can only occur in aerobic conditions (since NAD+ has to be regenerated in stage 4 of metabolism which can only occur in the presence of oxygen)

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168
Q

What enzymes are involved in the metabolism of alcohol?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase
CYP2E1 (form of cyp450)
Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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169
Q

Explain the effects of excessive alcohol consumption on the liver?

A

The intermediate metabolite of alcohol metabolism, acetaldehyde, is toxic to liver cells. The increased availability of acetyl-CoA affects liver metabolism. The conversion of alcohol to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase also produces NADH. The decreased NAD+/NADH ratio favours the formation of triacylglycerols which accumulate in the liver cells, leading to ‘fatty liver’.

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170
Q

What drug can be used to stop alcoholism?

A

Desulfiram - inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde which gives symptoms of a long lasting headache
PUTS YOU OFF ALCOHOL FOR GOOD!
Danger is it could cause liver damage

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171
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

What the drug does to the body - the effect of the drug on the body

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172
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

What the body does to the drug- how the body metabolises the drug

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173
Q

What is pharmacokinetics the study of? Adme

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination of a drug

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174
Q

What is the two phase process of drug metabolism?

A

Phase 1 - hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction; make drug more reactive before it enters phase 2; CYP450; sometimes NADPH
Phase 2 - glucuronidation, glutathione conjugation, sulphate conjugation; attaches a water soluble group to the drug so that the whole drug molecule is made water soluble, so that it can be excreted in the urine; cytosolic enzymes in liver

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175
Q

What three reactions are common to phase 1 of drug metabolism?

A

Hydrolysis reduction and oxidation

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176
Q

What three reactions a common to phase2 of drug metabolism?

A

Glucuronidation
Glutathione conjugation
Sulphate conjugation

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177
Q

How is paracetamol at normal doses metabolised in the body?

A

Paracetamol is a reactive enough drug so it normally directly enters phase 2 of metabolism
Undergoes glucuronidation or sulphation

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178
Q

How is an overdose of paracetamol metabolised in the body?

A

Phase 2 of metabolism (glucuronidation and sulphation) tries to happen but it becomes a saturated situation whereby glucuronic acid and sulphate run out, SO:
Toxic paracetamol overdose enters phase 1
Paracetamol –> N-acetyl-p-benzo-quinine-imine (NAPQI)
NAPQI then enters phase 2 with GLUTATHIONE (as opposed to sulphate or glucuronic acid as normal)
NAPQI–> conjugated with glutathione

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179
Q

Outline the four stages of glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle

A

Glucose + ATP –(glucokinase/hexokinase)–> glucose-6-phosphate + ADP
Glucose-6-phosphate –(phosphogluco mutase)–> glucose-1-phosphate
Glucose-1-phosphate +UTP + H2O –> UDP-glucose + 2Pi
UDP-glucose + glycogen (n) –(glycogen synthase/branching enzyme)–> glycogen (n+1) + UDP

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180
Q

What are the 4 key enzymes in glycogenesis and which is the rate limiting enzyme?

A

Hexokinase/ glucokinase
Phosphogluco mutase
Glycogen synthase (rate limiting)
Branching enzyme

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181
Q

Outline the two stages of glycogenolysis in the muscle

A

Glycogen(n) + Pi –(glycogen phosphorylase/debranching enzyme)–> glycogen(n-1) + glucose-1-phosphate
Glucose-1-phosphate –(phosphogluco mutase)–> glucose-6- phosphate (GLYCOLYSIS IN Muscle)

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182
Q

Outline the three stages of glycogenolysis in the liver

A

Glycogen(n) + Pi –(glycogen phosphorylase/debranching enzyme)–> glycogen(n-1) + glucose-1-phosphate
Glucose-1-phosphate –(phosphogluco mutase)–> glucose-6- phosphate
Glucose-6-phosphate –(glucose-6-phosphatase)–> glucose + Pi

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183
Q

What are the 4 key enzymes in glycogenolysis and which is the rate limiting enzyme?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase (rate limiting)
Debranching enzyme
Phosphogluco mutase
(Glucose-6-phosphatase)

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184
Q

How is glycogenolysis regulated?

A

Glycogen phosphorylase (stimulated in low glucose conditions)
Hormones
Stimulated by Glucagon/ adrenaline
Inhibited by insulin

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185
Q

How is glycogenesis regulated?

A

Glycogen synthase (stimulated in high glucose conditions)
Hormones
Stimulated by insulin
Inhibited by glucagon/adrenaline

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186
Q

Outline gluconeogenesis

A

(Lactate) Pyruvate –(pyruvate carboxylase)–> Oxaloacetate –(phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase PEPCK)–> PHOSPHOENOLPYRUVATE –> 2-PHOSPHOGLYCERATE –> 3-PHOSPHOGLYCERATE –> 1,3-BISPHOSPHOGLYCERATE –> (Glycerol, DHAP/ Fructose) GLYCERALDEHYDE-3-PHOSPHATE –> FRUCTOSE-1,6-BISPHOSPHATE –(fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase)–> FRUCTOSE-6-PHOSPHATE –> (galactose) GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE –(glucose-6-phosphatase)–> GLUCOSE

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187
Q

What are the 4 main enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase
Phosphenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphotase
Glucose-6-phosphatase

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188
Q

Which two enzymes in gluconeogenesis are important in the regulation of gluconeogenesis?

A

Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

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189
Q

How is gluconeogenesis regulated?

A
Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK)
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
Hormone
Stimulated by glucagon/ cortisol
Inhibited by insulin
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190
Q

In what conditions are ketone bodies produced and why?

A
Ketone bodies are produced in conditions of starvation and in type 1 diabetes
In starvation (no glucose) and in type 1 diabetes (no insulin is being produced so body thinks there is no glucose) and so lipolysis and fatty acid oxidation occur (to provide acetyl coA by an alternative route) and ketone bodies (water soluble) are produced as an alternative fuel for the brain cells as ketone bodies can cross the blood brain barrier
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191
Q

How are lipids transported around the body?

A

2% with albumin (FFA or NEFA)

98% lipoprotein

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192
Q

What is the structure of TAGs?

A

3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol

Non polar

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193
Q

What is the structure of cholesterol?

A

Carbon chain and a tetracyclic structure (can be cleaved and be made into STEROID HORMONES and BILE SALTS)
Polar
Can be esterified at a hydroxy group with a fatty acid and made into cholesterol ester (completely non polar)

194
Q

What is the structure of phospholipids?

A

2 fatty acids 1 glycerol 1 phosphate group

Polar due to phosphate

195
Q

Why do lipids require protein carriers in the blood?

A

Lipids are not soluble in water and so cannot travel freely in the blood
Lipids however can pass through cell membranes without assistance

196
Q

What are the 4 classes of lipoproteins?

A

Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL

197
Q

What are chylomicrons? What do they transport? Where are they formed?

A

Chylomicrons transport dietary TAGs from intestines to adipose tissue for storage
Produced in epithelial cells in small intestine
Present in blood 4-6 hours after meal and are released into the kid via the LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

198
Q

What are VLDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?

A

VLDLs transport TAGs made in the liver to adipose tissue for storage
Produced in the liver

199
Q

What are LDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?

A

LDLs transport cholesterol made in the liver to tissues
Made in liver
Specific apolipoprotein APB100 - very important (signaller for cholesterol to be endocytosed)

200
Q

What are HDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?

A

HDLs transport excess tissue cholesterol to the liver where it can be disposed of as bile salts or used to produce steroid hormones

201
Q

What is hyperlipoproteinaemia? What are the different types? (Basic outline)

A

Raised plasma concentrations of one or more lipoprotein classes due to overproduction or under removal due to defective enzymes, receptors and apolipoprotein

Type 1- chylomicrons- defective lipoprotein lipase
Type 2-LDL- CAD- defective LDL receptor
Type 2b- LDL and VLDL- CAD- unknown defect
Type 3- IDL and chylomicrons- CAD- defective apolipoprotein E
Type 4-VLDL- CAD- unknown defect
Type 5- chylomicrons and VLDL-CAD- unknown defect

202
Q

What is familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

Absence (homozygous) or deficiency (heterozygous) of functional LDL receptors Type 2a of hyperlipoproteinaemia
Raised LDLs
CAD- develops earlier in homozygous and later in heterozygous
Due to defective LDL receptor

203
Q

How is the chylomicron and vLDL lipid content transferred into cells?

A

Lipoprotein lipase on endothelial cells of capillaries, binds chylomicrons and VLDLs
Lipoprotein lipase cleaves TAGs into glycerol and fatty acids which enter the adipose tissue and are reassembled for storage
Remnants of chylomicrons and VLDLs are removed by liver/ converted to other lipoproteins

204
Q

How is the HDL and LDL lipid content transferred into cells?

A

HDL and LDL receptors present on cells; endocytosis

205
Q

What are some clinical signs of hypercholesterolaemia?

A

Xanthelasma - lipid deposit on eyelids
Tendon xanthoma - lipid deposits on tendon
Corneal arcus - lipid deposits on iris of eye
Atheroma- oxidised LDL - macrophage - foam cell - accumulate in intima of blood vessel artery walls - fatty streak - atheroma
CAD

206
Q

How do you diagnose hypercholesterolaemia?

A

Fasting plasma concentration of glucose
Total cholesterol and TAG concentration
Examination of results of plasma lipoprotein separation by electrophoresis

207
Q

How can hypercholesterolaemia be treated?

A

Diet lifestyle drugs

208
Q

What does the enzyme lecithin: cholesterol acyl transferase do?

A

Restores stability of lipoproteins by conversion of surface lipid into core lipid
Converts cholesterol into cholesterol ester using the fatty acid derivative from lecithin (phosphatidylcholine)

209
Q

Explain why individuals with a defect in the enzyme LCAT produce unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure . What are the consequences of an LCAT deficiency

A

Restores stability of lipoproteins by conversion of surface lipid into core lipid
Converts cholesterol into cholesterol ester using the fatty acid derivative from lecithin (phosphatidylcholine)
Deficiency of LCAT results in unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure and therefore general failure of lipid transport (can occur in protein deficiency- kwashiorkors)
Lipid deposits occur in many tissues and atherosclerosis is a serious potential problem

210
Q

What is a ROS?

A

Reactive oxygen species
Highly reactive
Powerful oxidising agents

211
Q

What are some examples of ROS?

A
Superoxide radical (*O2-)
Hydroxyl radical (*OH)
Nitric oxide (NO*)
Peroxynitrate (ONOO-)
Drugs- anti malarials 
Toxins- Paraguay
212
Q

How are superoxide radicals produced?

A

In the electron transport chain not all electrons reach the oxygen molecule (final electron acceptor) at complex IV (incomplete reduction of oxygen to water)
These electron drop out of the etc and react with split molecular oxygen to form the free radical *O2- (superoxide)

213
Q

How are hydroxyl radicals produced?

A

Produced in all cells from superoxide radicals or hydrogen peroxide
Can be produced using ionising radiation- (X and gamma rays- high energy penetration of skin and UV light- skin surface penetration)
Very damaging to cell membrane
Cannot be rid of by enzymes

214
Q

How are nitric oxide radicals produced?

A

Free radicals and gas
Arginine –(inducible nitric oxide synthase)–> NO*
NO* can be produced in large amounts by the body= inflammation

215
Q

How are proxynitrate molecules produced?

A

NO* + O2 –> ONOO-
Very oxidising
Damage to cells

216
Q

What are the main cellular defences to ROS and how do they work?

A

*Superoxide dismutase (SOD) - converts superoxide radicals into hydrogen peroxide (less oxidising than SOR)
*Catalase - converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
*Glutathione - 3 amino acids (glutamate, cysteine (SH), glycine)
SH of cysteine can donate its hydrogen- so glutathione is a good reducing agent/ antioxidant; becomes oxidised when it reduces a ROS and so disulphide bond forms between 2 glutathione molecules (GSSG)
*Antioxidant vitamins A, C, E
*Antioxidant flavonoids polyphenols and Beta carotene
*Antioxidant minerals selenium and zinc
*N acetyl cysteine- very good reducing agent (used to replace glutathione in metabolism of overdose of paracetamol)

217
Q

What are some consequences of ROS in cells?

A

Damage to DNA and proteins
Lipid peroxidation
Oxidative stress

218
Q

What is oxidative stress?

A

When antioxidant levels are too low to deal with ROS levels
When production of ROS is high and antioxidant levels are low= oxidative burst
Rapid release of SOR and HP from cells (leukocytes- neutrophils and monocytes)
NADPH oxidase (membrane bound enzyme in the cell membrane and membrane of phagosomes) transfers electrons across membrane to couple these to molecular oxygen to generate SOR; enzyme important in development of atherosclerosis; rapid production of ROS kills pathogens in the locality
There are man conditions associated with oxidative stress

Often linked to SOD, catalase, G-6-PD deficiencies

219
Q

What are some conditions associated with oxidative stress?

A
Cancer
Emphysema
Pancreatitis
Cardiovascular disease
Crowns disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Alzheimer's disease 
Ischaemia/ reperfusion injury (cells adjust to low oxygen blood flow, so when O2 is reperfusion its causes lots of oxidative stress - reperfusion injury)
220
Q

What are some characteristics of drugs?

A

Foreign to body, potentially toxic

Lipid soluble

221
Q

What is lipid peroxidation?

A

Reaction of unsaturated lipids with ROS to form lipid peroxides

Unsaturated lipid + *OH –>(loss of H2O) lipid radical + O2 –> lipid peroxyl radical –> lipid peroxide –> lipid radical (continues in cycle)
Causes damage to cell membranes
Involved in early stages of cardiovascular disease

222
Q

How is fatty acid synthesis regulated?

A

Acetyl coA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase
Allosteric regulation
Stimulated by citrate
Inhibited by AMP

Covalent modification
Stimulated by insulin (dephosphorylation)
Inhibited by glucagon/ adrenaline

223
Q

What is the purpose of fatty acid synthesis?

A

How glucose can be converted into acetyl coA and then fatty acids and then stored as TAGs in adipose tissue
Hence it occurs in high energy/ glucose conditions as a storage mechanism

224
Q

What enzymes are involved in fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl coA carboxylase

Fatty acid synthase

225
Q

Why is cholesterol produced in the liver?

A

It can be used to make the digestive acid bile

226
Q

What regulates the production of cholesterol by the liver?

A

The levels of bile

227
Q

Where does alcohol metabolism occur?

A

Liver

228
Q

Phase 1 of drug metabolism uses what complex enzyme system?

A

Cytochrome P450 CYP450

229
Q

Compare fatty acid oxidation and fatty acid synthesis

A
Fatty acid oxidation
Cycle of reactions that remove C2
C2 atoms removed as acetyl coA
Occurs in mitochondria
Enzymes separate in mitochondrial matrix
Oxidative (produces NADH and FAD2H)
Requires small amounts of ATP to activate the fatty acid 
Intermediates are linked to coA
Regulated indirectly by availability of fatty acids in mitochondria
Glucagon and adrenaline stimulates
Insulin inhibits
Only in aerobic conditions 

Fatty acid synthesis
Cycle of reactions that add C2
C2 atoms added as Malonyl coA
Consumes acetyl coA
Occurs in cytoplasm
Reductive- requires NADPH
Requires large amount of ATP to drive process
Intermediates are linked to fatty acid synthase by carrier protein
Regulated directly by activity of acetyl coA carboxylase
Glucagon and adrenaline inhibit
Insulin stimulates

230
Q

Compare substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation

A

Substrate level phosphorylation
Requires soluble enzymes (cytoplasmic and mitochondrial matrix)
Energy coupling occurs directly through the formation of a high energy of hydrolysis bond (in phosphorylation group transfer)
Can occur to a limited extent in absence of oxygen
Minor processes for ATP synthesis in cells require large amounts of energy

Oxidative phosphorylation
Requires membrane associated complexes (inner mitochondrial membrane)
Energy coupling occurs indirectly through the generation and subsequent utilisation of a protein gradient pmf
Cannot occur in the absence of oxygen
Major processes for ATP synthesis in cells that require large amounts of energy

231
Q

In phase 1 of drug metabolism what cofactor (hydrogen carrier) is used?

A

NADPH

232
Q

Which isoform of CYP450 accounts for 55% of drug metabolism?

A

CYP3A4

233
Q

What isoform of CYP450 is used in alcohol metabolism?

A

CYP2E1

234
Q

Which is more common? That drugs are metabolised into the active form in the body or that drugs are deactivated by the body?

A

Drugs are more often deactivated by the body in the two have process

235
Q

What is an example of a drug that is metabolised into the active form in the body?

A

Codeine —-> morphine

Where the enzyme that converts codeine to morphine is deficient codeine does not work for the patient

236
Q

Name the three types of enzymes important to drug metabolism?

A

Acetylation enzymes in liver (phase 1)
Plasma cholinesterase enzymes
Alkylation enzymes in liver (phase 2)

237
Q

Describe the 2 causes of variation in drug metabolism in a population?

A

Genetic factors- polymorphism (individual variation in the expression of metabolic enzymes; normal distribution curve; some individuals may lack the allele that codes for a specific enzyme)
Environmental factors-(if two drugs are given simultaneously, then the metabolism of one drug may affect the metabolism of the other by activating or inhibiting enzymes in the cyp450 system)- enzyme induction and inhibition

238
Q

What is drug enzyme induction and what are some examples?

A

When one drug increases the metabolism of another drug
Alcohol
Nicotine
Barbiturate — increase number of enzymes in liver

239
Q

What is drug enzyme inhibition and what are some examples?

A

When one drug decreases the metabolism of another drug
Cimetidine used to reduce stomach acid
Grapefruit and cranberry juice

240
Q

How do cholinesterase enzymes work in drug metabolism?

A

Found in blood plasma
Affect drugs containing ester bonds (e.g. Suxamethonium)
Act by hydrolysis in phase 1 of metabolism

241
Q

What is the effect of a lack of an enzyme involved in drug metabolism?

A

The effect of the drug on the body lasts much longer than expected

242
Q

What is the effect of a paracetamol overdose on the body?

A

Produces NAPQI which is a toxic metabolite to the liver
Glutathione is used in conjugation instead of glucuronic acid and sulphate (which will have been used up)
Use of glutathione means that glutathione is no longer available to protect against ROS- so exposure to oxidative stress
Liver failure (oxidative stress and NAPQI)
Liver transplant required in severe cases

Nausea, sweating, liver damage, kidney failure, pain in right upper quadrant due to hepatic necrosis
Toxic dose is 10g or 200mg per Kg.

243
Q

What is a potential treatment for paracetamol overdose?

A

Can be treated with N-acetyl cysteine (SH) (NAC) which donates Hydrogen and acts as an antioxidant / very good reducing agent
Prevents liver from oxidation and replaces the function of glutathione
Treatment: stomach pumping, replenish glutathione by giving Nacetylcysteine, liver transplant.

244
Q

How are is cholesterol synthesis regulated?

A

Reductase enzyme
Hormone regulation
Stimulated by insulin
Inhibited by glucagon

245
Q

What is the structure of a lipoprotein?

A

Hydrophilic molecules on outside: apolipoproteins, phospholipids, cholesterol
Hydrophobic molecules on inside: triacylglycrides, cholesterol ester

246
Q

What 4 components make up a control system?

A

Communication
Control centre
Receptor
Effector

247
Q

What 4 methods of communication in the body are there?

A

Nervous- action potential
Endocrine- hormones
Paracrine- local hormones
Autocrine- hormones which affect the cells that release them

248
Q

What does the control centre do?

A

CNS
Determines set point
Analyses input
Determines an appropriate response

249
Q

What do receptors do?

A

Detect stimuli and transfer the stimuli to control centre via the signal AFFERENT pathway

250
Q

What do effectors do?

A

Generate an effect and receive stimuli from the control centre via the signal EFFERENT pathway

251
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

Where the effector produces an effect which opposes the stimulus
Occurs in most homeostasis control systems

252
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

Where the effector produces a response which increases its effect
System ales out of control
Rare

253
Q

What does the term biological rhythms suggest?

A

Set point is not fixed- set point can vary

254
Q

What is a circadian/ diurnal rhythm?

A

24hour change in set point

255
Q

What are some examples of biological rhythms within the body?

A

Temperature
Cortisol levels - highest in morning (hence time at which bloods were taken should ALWAYS be recorded)
Menstrual cycle - woman’s core body temp varies in cycle- sudden increase in temp is a marker for ovulation
Time- biological clock in hypothalamus of brain (superchiasmatic nucleus)
Body water homeostasis- osmoreceptors in hypothalamus, ADH

256
Q

Describe time as a biological rhythm

A

Biological clock = superchiasmatic nucleus in hypothalamus
When we travel across time zones, out biological clock will tell us one time and zeitgeibers (clues around us) will tell us a different time = JET LAG
Melatonin produced from the pineal gland is involved in setting the biological clock- released at night- light/dark cycle

257
Q

Describe body water homeostasis as a biological rhythm

A

70kg male
42L water
28l IC 9.4l EC and 4.6lblood plasma
Osmolality and sodium concentration monitored by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
Increase in osmolality (high conc of solvent in solute) in the blood plasma -> release of ADH from posterior pituitary gland (urine is made more concentrated) -> increased reabsorption of H2O from urine into the blood in collecting ducts in the kidney -> decrease in osmolality of blood plasma

258
Q

Define a hormone

A

Chemical signals produced in endocrine glands or tissues that travel in the blood stream to cause an effect on other tissues

259
Q

What are some key features of hormones?

A

Released from endocrine glands
Travel in blood stream
Only affect certain cells
Only interact where there are receptors
Specific hormones have specific receptors
Can have an effect in small amounts
Its secretion is usually controlled by a negative feedback system
Long-lasting effects
Circulate in very low concentrations
Take about 30 seconds to reach all parts of the body

260
Q

What are the 4 classes of hormones?

A

Polypeptide
Glycoproteins
Amino acid derivatives
Steroids

261
Q

What are polypeptide hormones?

A

Largest group
Single chain peptides
Some organised in closely related families

GH (191aa)
Insulin (51aa in 2 chains)
Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (3aa)
Gut hormones

262
Q

What are glycoproteins hormones?

A

All have 2 polypeptide chains with carbohydrate side chains (alpha and beta)
Related families

Thyroid stimulating hormone
follicle stimulating hormones
Luteinising hormones
Human chorionic gonadotrophin

263
Q

What are steroid hormones?

A
All derived from cholesterol 
C27 calciferols (vitamin D)
C21 corticosteroids (gluco/mineralo corticoids and C19 androgens and C18 oestrogens)
264
Q

What are amino acid derivative hormones?

A
Some form tyrosine
Thyroid hormone (T4 and T3)
Adrenaline
Histamine from histidine
5 hydroxytryptamine from tryptophan
265
Q

Which hormones are generally water soluble? What is the effect of this?

A

Polypeptide glycoprotein hormones and adrenaline (amino acid derivatives)
Water soluble => travel freely in blood plasma
Hormones cannot cross cell membranes on their own
Hormones bind to receptors on cell membrane surface which activates a second messenger pathway- second internal messenger exerts metabolic effects often modifying the action of enzymes

Faster

266
Q

Which hormones are generally not water soluble? What is the effect of this?

A

Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones (amino acid derivative)
Not water soluble => travel in blood plasma bound to binding proteins
Dynamic equilibrium exists between bound and free forms of hormones in blood plasma
Only the free form is biologically active
Carrier proteins increase the solubility of hormone in plasma, increase the half life of hormone and act as a readily accessible reserve
Hormones can cross cell membrane as they are lipid soluble
Hormones bind to receptors on the inner membrane, in the cytoplasm or on the nucleus forming a dimer
Binds to hormone response element of DNA
Switches transcription on or off
Particular protein production is switched on or off

Alters gene expression- slower and longer lasting

267
Q

What class of hormone is insulin?

A

Polypeptide

268
Q

What class of hormone is thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Glycoprotein

269
Q

What class of hormone are T3 and T4?

A

Amino acid derivative

270
Q

What class of hormone is FSH?

A

Glycoprotein

271
Q

What class of hormone is histamine?

A

Amino acid derivative

272
Q

What class of hormones are the corticosteroids, androgens, oestrogens?

A

Steroids

273
Q

What is the general control pathway for hormones?

A

Hypothalamus –(releasing factors)–> anterior pituitary gland –(tropic hormones)–> endocrine glands –> produce a hormone –> transported in blood (freely or bound to binding protein) –> target cells (receptors and response)–> eventual inactivation of chemical by liver kidney or target tissues

274
Q

Describe in outline the control of appetite

A

Appetite (satiety) centre- arcuate the nucleus in hypothalamus (primary and secondary neurones)

Different hormones stimulate or inhibit a primary neurone

PRIMARY NEURONES (sense metabolite levels and respond to hormones)
Excitatory neurones- release Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti related peptide (AgRP) which stimulate secondary neurone- stimulate appetite 
Inhibitory neurones- release proopiomelanocortin (POMC) which is enzymatically cleaved to produce alpha melanocytes stimulating hormone (alpha MSH) which bind to MC4 receptors on secondary neurone and inhibit the secondary neurone -suppressing appetite and beta endorphins which gives a feeling of euphoria/tiredness

SECONDARY NEURONES (synthesise input from primary neurones and coordinate a response via the vagus nerve)

275
Q

What hormones act on the primary neurones in the arcuate nucleus?

A
Ghrelin
PYY
Leptin
Insulin
Amylin
276
Q

What is ghrelin and how does it act on the primary neurone?

A

Peptide hormone
Released from wall of the stomach when it’s empty
Stimulates the excitatory primary neurone
STIMULATION OF APPETITE

277
Q

What is pyy and how does it act on the primary neurone?

A

Peptide hormone
Released from wall of small intestine
Inhibits the excitatory primary neurone
SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE

278
Q

What is leptin and how does it act on the primary neurone?

A
Peptide hormone
Released from adipocytes
Inhibits excitatory primary neurone
Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone 
SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE
Effect from secondary neurone- induced the expression of uncoupling proteins in the mitochondria, dissipating pmf energy as heat
279
Q

What is insulin and how does it act on the primary neurone?

A
Peptide hormone
Released from beta cells of pancreas 
Inhibits excitatory primary neurone
Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone 
SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE
280
Q

What is amylin and how does it act on the primary neurone?

A
Peptide hormone 
Released by beta cells of pancreas 
Inhibits excitatory primary neurone
Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone 
SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE 

Effect from secondary neurone- decreases glucagon secretion and slows gastric emptying

281
Q

What is the metabolic syndrome?

A

Co occurrence in the same individual of a number of cardiovascular risk factors such as dyslipidaemia, hypertension, insulin resistance and glucose intolerance, usually in association with overweight or obesity and a sedentary lifestyle

282
Q

What is the WHO criteria for metabolic syndrome?

A
Waist: hip ratio >0.9(men) ; >0.8(women)
BMI > 30 kg/m(squared)
BP > 140/90 mmHg
Triacylglycrides >1.7 mM
HDL < 0.9mM(men) ;  0.8mM(women) 
Glucose uptake in lowest quartile
283
Q

What is the overall opinion of the metabolic syndrome by the medical profession at the moment?

A

Not yet universally accepted by medical profession

284
Q

Brief outline of the developmental origins of health and disease (DOHad) theory

A

Barker hypothesis- Several health surveys of large cohorts of adult males; Statistical analysis showed the strongest association between incidence of adult disease (CHD, hypertension, T2 diabetes) and low birth and placenta weight

Fetal programming- biochemical adaptation took place in the foetus according to the supply of nutrients via the placenta ; these adaptations were programmed in for adult life and predisposed the individual to developing chronic diseases throughout life; adaptations which appeared to be heritable- passed through the mother

285
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

A stably inherited phenotype resulting from changes in a chromosome without alterations in the DNA sequences; mechanism appears to involve methylation of DNA and changes to histone structure which causes suppression of gene transcription

286
Q

What is fetal programming?

A

Biochemical adaptations which are programmed in for the predisposing individuals to chronic conditions

287
Q

What is hypoglycaemia?

A

Blood glucose level < 3.0 mM
Rapidly can be fatal- glucose is essential for CNS function (without it CNS will starve and die)
Often mistaken for drunkenness- slurred speech, reduced coordination, dizziness, headache, coma and then death

288
Q

What is hyperglycaemia?

A
Random blood glucose level > 11.1mM
Fasting blood glucose level > 7mM
Glucose in urine- above renal threshold
Polyuria and polydipsia due to osmosis
Non enzymatic glycosylation of proteins- haemoglobin - HbA1c
289
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

Chronic condition/ State of hyperglycaemia due to insulin deficiency and or resistance, leading to small and large vessel damage in which there is premature death (of vessels) from cardiovascular disease

290
Q

Main differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes

A

Type 1- insulin deficiency (loss of all or most of B cells); develops in young; can be rapidly fatal; must be treated with insulin; ketone bodies are produced
Type 2- insulin resistance (body not able to use insulin that is produced) and insulin deficiency (develops with slow progressive loss of B cells); develops in older individuals; may be present for a long time before diagnosis; may not initially need treatment with insulin- but eventually will; ketone bodies are not produced

291
Q

What is the believed cause of type 1 diabetes?

A

It’s likely that a genetic predisposition to the disease interacts with an environmental trigger to produce immune activation. This leads to the production of killer lymphocytes and macrophages and antibodies that attack and progressively destroy b-cells (an auto-immune process). The genetic predisposition is associated with the genetic markers HLA DR3 and HLA DR4.

292
Q

What is the typical pattern of presentation of Type 1 diabetes?

A

Typically for type 1 - a lean young person with a recent history of viral infection who present a triad of symptoms:

  • Polyuria – excess urine production. Large quantities of glucose in the blood are filtered by the kidney, so not all of it is reabsorbed. The extra glucose in the nephron places an extra osmotic load on it, meaning that less water is reabsorbed to maintain osmotic pressure.
  • Polydipsia – thirst and drinking a lot, due to polyuria.
  • Weight loss - as fat and protein are metabolised because insulin is absent

Ketoacidosis may also be apparent- nausea, vomit, coma, death
(Due to increased amount of fatty acid in liver)
Dehydration, tiredness, weakness, lethargy, blurring of vision

293
Q

What is the typical progress of type 1 diabetes?

A

People can be found with the relevant HLA markers and auto-antibodies but without glucose or insulin abnormalities. They may then develop impaired glucose tolerance, then diabetes (sometimes initially diet controlled) before becoming totally insulin dependant.

294
Q

How is type 1 diabetes diagnosed?

A

Type 1 can be diagnosed by measurement of plasma glucose levels. Blood glucose is elevated because of the lack of insulin.
Diabetes is diagnosed in the presence of symptoms i.e. polyuria, polydipsia and unexplained weight loss plus:
- A random venous plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l or
- A fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.0 mmol/l (whole blood > 6.1 mmol/l) or
- Plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after 75g anhydrous glucose in a oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
- smell of acetone on breath

295
Q

Why does a type 1 diabetic display hyperglyceamia and hence glycosuria?

A

The lack of insulin causes:
- decrease in the uptake of glucose into adipose tissue and skeletal muscle
- decrease in the storage of glucose as glycogen in muscle and liver
- Gluconeogenesis in liver
The high blood glucose will lead to the appearance of glucose in the urine (glycosuria) as glucose exceeds the renal threshold of the kidney, and if not dealt with rapidly the individual will progress to a life-threatening crisis (diabetic ketoacidosis)

296
Q

Why does a type 1 diabetic display ketoacidosis in severe cases?

A

High rates of b-oxidation of fats in the liver coupled to the low insulin/anti-insulin ratio leads to the production of huge amounts of ketone bodies (such as acetoacetone, acetone and b-hydroxybutyrate).
Acetone, which is volatile may be breathed out, and smelt on the patient’s breath.
The H+ associated with ketones produce a metabolic acidosis – ketoacidosis.
The features of ketoacidosis are: prostration, hyperventilation, nausea, vomiting, dehydration and abdominal pain. Ketoacidosis is a very dangerous condition.
It is most important to test for ketones in the urine when assessing diabetes control.

297
Q

How can ketoacidosis in a type 1 diabetic patient be recognised?

A

Acetone, which is volatile may be breathed out, and smelt on the patient’s breath
Test for ketones in the urine
Ketone plasma conc (normally 10mM

298
Q

What three metabolic processes does diabetes primarily affect?

A

Lipolysis
Glycogenesis
Gluconeogenesis

299
Q

What is the believed cause of type 2 diabetes?

A

Genetic predisposition- only manifested with the influence of the environment- OBESITY
Impaired glucose intolerance for example with pregnancy (ie, body cannot produce extra insulin to deal with demands of pregnancy)

300
Q

What is the typical presentation of someone with type 2 diabetes?

A

Elderly individual with weight related problems (obesity)
Slower onset of symptoms (triad of polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss)
Tiredness, thrush, blurring of vision etc.
Can be asymptomatic depending on progress stage
Ketoacidosis is never apparent in type 2 (as some insulin is present and so lipolysis not activated and hence fewer fas available to make ketone bodies)

301
Q

What is the typical progress of type 2 diabetes?

A

People can be found with insulin resistance then as insulin production fails they develop impaired glucose tolerance. Finally they will develop diabetes that can initially be controlled by diet, then tablets, then insulin. If the process continues long enough they may lose all insulin production.

302
Q

How can type 2 diabetes be diagnosed?

A

Type 1 can be diagnosed by measurement of plasma glucose levels. Blood glucose is elevated because of the lack of insulin.
Diabetes is diagnosed in the presence of symptoms i.e. polyuria, polydipsia and unexplained weight loss plus:
- A random venous plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l or
- A fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.0 mmol/l (whole blood > 6.1 mmol/l) or
- Plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after 75g anhydrous glucose in a oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

303
Q

In an asymptotic diabetes patient, how is diabetes diagnosed?

A

With no symptoms diagnosis should not be based on a single glucose determination but requires confirmatory venous plasma glucose determination. At least one additional glucose test result on another day with a value in the diabetic range is essential, either fasting, from a random sample or from the two hour post glucose load.

304
Q

In a diabetic patient, what are the causes and consequences of hypoglycaemia?

A

A diabetic can become hypoglycaemic with an excess of insulin, coupled with less than usual glucose in diet and/or excess exercise compared to usual (plasma glucose <3mmol/l)
This can become fatal as the CNS and other glucose dependant tissues require a constant supply of glucose. The patient may experience sweating, anxiety, hunger, tremor, palpitations, confusion, drowsiness, seizures, coma. The severe consequences of hypoglycaemia are a reason why a diabetic is more likely to maintain a higher blood glucose level.

305
Q

In a diabetic patient, what are the causes and consequences of hyperglycaemia?

A

High intake of glucose, and wrong (too low) dosage of insulin
Blood glucose >11 mmol/l. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, fatigue, blurred vision, dry or itchy skin, poor wound healing. Plasma proteins may become glycosylated, affecting their functions

306
Q

What is the typical treatment of type 1 diabetes?

A

Exogenous insulin by subcutaneous injections (directly below epidermis and dermis) several times a day
Patients must be educated to treat themselves at appropriate times with appropriate doses so as to mimic as closely as possible the behaviour of pancreatic islets in controlling blood glucose. On occasion, if the patient has an infection or suffered a trauma, insulin dosage needs to be increased or there is a risk of ketoacidosis. The social and psychological implications are huge, and the degree of control achieved by patients can be very variable. Dietary management and regular exercise are vital components of the treatment regime.
The management of blood glucose requires frequent blood glucose measurement. A small amount of blood from a finger prick is sufficient to measure blood glucose using the BM stick and reader. There is always a risk that blood glucose will fall too low – hypoglycaemia – so both patients and their associates need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia, which can occasionally be fatal unless treated with glucose either my mouth or by infusion.

307
Q

Why must insulin be injected subcutaneously?

A

It is a peptide hormone that can be digested in the stomach

308
Q

What is the typical treatment of type 2 diabetes?

A

Education
Lifestyle: diet and exercise
Non insulin therapies: “oral hypoglycaemic” drugs such as sulphonylureas that increase insulin release from the remaining b-cells, and reduce insulin resistance and particularly metformin that reduces gluconeogenesis
Insulin can be given when all B cells have become damaged and no more insulin is produced

309
Q

How is uptake of glucose into the eye, kidney and peripheral nerves controlled?

A

Not by insulin

By the extracellular glucose concentration

310
Q

What happens to the eyes, peripheral nerves and kidney in a state of hyperglycaemia?

A

During hyperglycaemia the intracellular concentration of glucose in these tissues increases and glucose is metabolised via the enzyme aldose reductase which catalyses the reaction:
​Glucose + NADPH + H+ –> Sorbitol + NADP
This reaction depletes NADPH and leads to increased disulphide bond formation in cellular proteins altering their structure and function. The accumulation of sorbitol causes osmotic damage to cells.

311
Q

In a state of hyperglycaemia what happens to haemoglobin?

A

Glucose in the blood will react with the terminal valine of the haemoglobin molecule to produce glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c).

312
Q

What is the effect of hyperglycaemia on plasma proteins?

A

Hyperglycaemia is also associated with increased non-enzymatic glycosylation of plasma proteins (e.g. lipoproteins) that leads to disturbances in their function. Glucose reacts with free amino groups in proteins to form stable covalent linkages. The extent of glycosylation depends on the glucose concentration and the half-life of the protein. Glycosylation changes the net charge on the protein and the 3D structure of the protein, therefore affects the function of the protein.

313
Q

What is the relevance of glycosylated haemoglobin?

A

The percentage of HBA1c is a good indicator of how effective blood glucose control has been. As RBCs normally spend ~3 months in the circulation the %HbA1c is related to the average blood glucose concentration over the preceding 2-3 months

Glucose reacts non-enzymatically with the terminal valine of haemoglobin to form glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c). Extent of glycosylation depends on blood glucose concentration and half-life of haemoglobin (~60days). Poor glycaemic control = high blood glucose = high HbA1c. Good glycaemic control = normal blood glucose = normal HbA1c (~5%).

314
Q

What test can be done to check the long term management of diabetes?

A

HbA1c

315
Q

What are some of the macrovascular complications of diabetes?

A

risk of stroke
risk of myocardial infarction
Poor circulation to the periphery – particularly the feet

316
Q

What are some of the micro vascular complications of diabetes?

A

Diabetic eye disease: Changes in the lens due to osmotic effects of glucose (glaucoma) and possibly cataracts. More important problem is diabetic retinopathy – damage to blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to blindness. Damages blood vessels may leak and form protein exudates on the retina or they can rupture and cause bleeding in the eye. New vessels may form (proliferative retinopathy) - these are weak and can easily bleed.
Diabetic kidney disease (nephropathy): This is due to damage to the glomeruli, poor blood supply because of change in kidney blood vessels, or damage from infections of the urinary tract (more common in diabetics – excess glucose for bacteria to thrive). An early sign of nephropathy is a ­protein in the urine (microalbuminuria).
Diabetic neuropathy: Damage to the peripheral nerves which directly absorb glucose causing changes of or loss of sensation, and changes due to alteration in the function of the autonomic nervous system.
Diabetic feet: Poor blood supply, damage to nerves and increase risk of infection all sum up to make the feet of a diabetic vulnerable. In the past, loss of feet through gangrene was not uncommon. Care is needed to keep feet in good condition.

317
Q

Describe the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas

A

Large mixed exocrine/endocrine gland
Adjacent to duodenum

Exocrine: acinar (99%); produces digestive enzymes; secreted directly into the duodenum; alkaline secretions through pancreatic duct into the duodenum
Endocrine: islet cells (1%) near to capillaries for direct secretion; hormone production

318
Q

What do the various cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete?

A

B cells - insulin (regulation of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats)
A cells - glucagon (regulation of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats)
D cells - somatostatin (inhibits release of hormones from islet cells)
F cells - pancreatic polypeptide (GI function)
5th cell - ghrelin (appetitie- also secreted by wall of stomach)

319
Q

What is the role of insulin?

A

Anabolic- glucose storage
Released by B cells of pancreas when blood glucose levels are high
Targets liver, adipose tissue and skeletal muscle
Causes glycogenesis, lipogenesis, (protein synthesis)

320
Q

What is the structure of insulin?

A

2 unbranched peptide chains which a connected by 2 disulphide bridges- ensures stability
51 amino acids (A= 21, B=30)

321
Q

What is the role of glucagon?

A

Catabolic- glucose release
Released by A cells of pancreas when blood glucose is low
Targets liver and adipose mainly
Causes glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, ketone body synthesis

322
Q

What is the structure of glucagon?

A

29 amino acids in 1 polypeptide chain

No disulphide bridges = flexible

323
Q

What is the synthesis of glucagon compared to insulin?

A

Simpler synthesis than insulin
Synthesised in RER
Transported to Golgi
Packaged into granules
Margination- movement of storage vesicles to cell surface
Exocytosis- fusion of vesicle membrane with plasma membrane with release of vesicle contents

324
Q

How is insulin synthesised?

A

Pre- pro insulin produced on RER ribosomes and enters the RER
Cleavage of pre signal = pro insulin
Pro insulin folds to ensure correct alignment of cysteine residues so that correct disulphide bonds form
Pro insulin is transported from the ER, through the golgi and packaged into vesicles
Proteolysis in the storage vesicles by endopeptidases results in the excision of the C peptide in the middle of the chain
Results in two single chains held together by two disulphide bonds
(Storage vesicles contain equimolar amounts of mature insulin, 4 basic amino acids and C peptide)
These are all secreted together in exocytosis from the cell

325
Q

What is the clinical relevance of C peptide?

A

Measurement of plasma C peptide levels in patients receiving insulin can be used to monitor any endogenous insulin secretion

326
Q

What is margination?

A

Movement of storage vesicles towards the cell membrane

327
Q

How is insulin secreted from B cells?

A

An increase in glucose in the ECF is a stimulus for insulin release
Glucose enters B cells by facilitated diffusion through Glut2, resulting in an increase in ICF concentration of glucose in B cells
This causes an increase in glycolysis which leads to an increase in ATP
High ATP causes an inactivation of ATP sensitive potassium ion channel (so no more potassium can enter the cell) which causes a depolarisation of the membrane
As a result the voltage gated calcium channels open, and there is an influx of calcium into the cell
Increase in ICF calcium triggers the exocytosis of insulin containing secretory granules

328
Q

How is insulin stored in the B cells?

A

Insulin is stored in the B cell storage granules as a crystalline zinc- insulin complex

329
Q

How does insulin travel in the blood?

A

Freely- it is a water soluble polypeptide hormone so does not require a binding protein

330
Q

How does insulin activate a target cell receptor?

A

Insulin receptor is a dimer (2 subunits each made up of 1B chain (which spans the membrane) and protruding 1A chain- 1A and 1B are connected via a single disulphide bond)
When insulin detected A chains move together and fold around the insulin
B chains then move together making the B chains an active tyrosine kinase
This initiates a phosphorylation cascade - which results in an increase in Glut4 expression (increase in uptake of glucose into cells)
So cell takes up more glucose

331
Q

How does glucagon activate a target cell receptor?

A

It takes up its active conformation on binding to its receptor on the surface of target cells.

Binds to a specific glucagon receptor in the cell membrane, a type of receptor termed a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR). Binding to the receptor activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase, which increases cyclic AMP (cAMP) intracellularly
High levels of cAMP activate protein kinase A (PKA), which phosphorylates and :. activates important enzymes within the target cell.

332
Q

List the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary and their functions

A

ACTH- acts on adrenal gland to release cortisol (initiates bodies response to stress) (corticotrophs)
GH- acts on liver to release IGF1 (growth, muscle strength metabolism, bone density) (somatotrophs)
TSH- acts on thyroid to release T3 and T4 (metabolism) (thyrotrophs)
Prolactin-acts on mammary glands to release milk (initiates and maintains lactation) (lactotrophs)
FSH/LH- acts on ovaries or testes (FSH- sperm production (m) and release of follicle from ovaries and oestrogen stimulation (f) / LH- testosterone secretion (m) and oestrogen and progesterone release (ovulation) (f)) (gonadotrophs)

333
Q

List the hormones produced by the posterior pituitary

A

Oxytocin
ADH osmolality and Na+ concentration of blood plasma is constantly monitored by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus- monitor release of ADH- which has effect on the kidney of causing an increase in permeability of the collecting ducts to water thus n reseeding the reabsorption of water from urine into the blood

334
Q

List the hormones produced by the adrenal gland and their functions

A

Mineralocorticoids- aldosterone- regulates body Na+ and K+ levels
Glucocorticoids- cortisol- regulate carbohydrate metabolism
Androgens- sex hormones- dehydroepiandrosterone
Adrenaline- epinephrine

335
Q

What are the two layers of the adrenal gland called?

A

Cortex and medulla

336
Q

What are the three layers of the adrenal cortex called and what does each layer produce?

A

Zona glomerulosa- mineralocorticoids
Zona fasisculata- glucocorticoids
Zona reticularis- glucocorticoids and androgens

337
Q

How is adrenaline synthesised in the adrenal medulla?

A

The catecholamines are synthesised in a series of enzyme-catalysed steps.
The catecholamines are stored in the medullary cells in vesicles.

Tyrosine –> Dopa –> Dopamine –> Noradrenaline –>(methylation)–> Adrenaline

338
Q

Describe the actions of adrenaline

A

Adrenaline is released as part of the fright, flight or fight response in man and it is secreted in response to stress situations. It has effects on:

  • Cardiovascular System (­Cardiac Output, ­ Blood supply to muscle)
  • Central Nervous System (­Mental alertness)
  • Carbohydrate Metabolism (­Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle)
  • Lipid Metabolism (­Lipolysis in adipose tissue)
339
Q

What are the clinical consequences of over secretion of adrenaline?

A
Overproduction by the adrenal medulla, usually due to a tumour (Phaemochromocytoma), may be associated with:
o Hypertension
o Palpitations
o Sweating
o Anxiety​
o Pallor
o Glucose intolerance
340
Q

Describe the general structure of steroid hormones

A

Produced from cholesterol via progesterone ina series of enzyme catalysed reactions
All steroid hormones are hydrophobic and must be transported in the blood bound to proteins (90% with transcortin/ or with corticosteroid binding globulin)
Steroid hormones differ from each other in number of C atoms, essence of functional groups and distribution of C=C bonds
Cortisol is part of C21 steroid family

341
Q

Explain how steroid hormones affect their target tissues

A

Corticosteroids are hydrophobic and so can cross the cell membrane of target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors
The hormone/receptor complex then enters the nucleus to interact with specific regions of DNA
This interaction changes the rate of transcription of specific genes and may take some time

Affects gene expression

342
Q

Explain how cortisol secretion is controlled

A

Physical (temperature/pain), chemical (hypoglycaemia) and emotional stressors stimulate release of CRH
CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) released from hypothalamus and travels via hypophyseal portal vessels to anterior pituitary
CRH stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the corticotrophins of the anterior pituitary
ACTH stimulates adrenal gland to secrete cortisol
Negative feedback - cortisol on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland

343
Q

How can ACTH lead to increased pigmentation in certain areas of the body?

A

Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is a biosynthetic precursor molecule which is cleaved to produce ACTH and alpha MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone) (and other molecules- like endorphins in control of appetite)
Alpha MSH is contained within the ACTH sequence in POMC giving ACTH some MSH like activity when present in excess
Therefore increased ACTH => increased alpha MSH => increased production of melanin from melanocytes => pigmentation

344
Q

Describe the action of ACTH on adrenal gland ( peptide hormone action)

A

ACTH is a hydrophilic peptide hormone and so interacts with high affinity MC2 receptors on the cell membrane of cells in the zona fasisculata and reticularis in cortex
Binding of ACTH to mc2 receptors stimulates cAMP inside the cell to act as a secondary messenger
This causes the activation of cholesterol esterase and conversion of cholesterol esters into free cholesterol and stimulates other steps in the synthesis of cortisol from cholesterol
=release of cortisol

345
Q

Describe the main actions of cortisol (steroid hormone action)

A

Cortisol is a hydrophobic steroid hormone and so is transported in the blood bound to plasma proteins (transcortin/ corticosteroid binding globulin)
Cortisol can cross cell membranes of target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors
The hormone receptor complex then enters the nucleus and interacts with specific regions of DNA
This interaction changes the rate of transcription of that specific gene/portion of DNA and may take some time to occur

Cortisol- stress response => affects metabolism
- decrease in aa uptake and protein synthesis, increase in proteolysis
- increase in hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
- increase in lipolysis in adipose tissue (to really high levels of cortisol can lead to an increase in lipogenesis in adipose tissue)
-decrease in peripheral uptake of glucose (anti insulin hormones increase)
OVERALL EFFECT increase in blood glucose, aa and fatty acids

346
Q

Describe the pituitary glands

A

Located in base of brain
Suspended from hypothalamus by a stalk
Blood supply via hypophyseal portal vessels as well as arterial supply from superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries
Anterior pituitary derived from up growth of primitive pharynx
Posterior pituitary derived from down growth of neural tissue from hypothalamus

347
Q

Describe the adrenal glands

A

Endocrine glands which cap the upper lobes of the kidney and lie against the diaphragm
Contain the outer cortex (mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens) and inner medulla (adrenaline)

348
Q

What are the 5 main disorders of the pituitary gland?

A
Prolactinoma
Gonadotrophinoma
GH adenoma
ACTH adenoma
TSHoma
349
Q

What are the 5 main causes of prolactinoma?

A
Pregnancy
Physiological
Pharmalogical
Pituitary
Poly cystic ovaries
350
Q

What drug is used to control prolactinomas?

A

Dopamine agonist (capergoline/ quinagolide)

351
Q

What symptoms can a gonadotrophinoma female patient present with?

A
Hair growth
Acne
Menstrual problems
Virilisation
Increased muscle bulk
Deepening of voice

More obvious in females than males

352
Q

What symptoms can a gonadotrophinoma male patient present with?

A

Growth and development of male genital tract, height, body shape and hair
Lower voice pitch

353
Q

How can a GH adenoma affect a patient?

A
Acromegaly =
Growth of hands and feet
Coarse features
Sweating 
Headaches 
Hypertension
Diabetes 
Gigantism
354
Q

What is another name for a pituitary ACTH adenoma?

A

Cushings disease

355
Q

What are some key symptoms of ACTH adenoma?

A
Rounded/ plethoric face
Central obesity with striae
Easy bruising
Proximal myopathy 
Hypertension
Diabetes
356
Q

How can a pituitary adenoma affect vision?

A

Compression of structures by adenoma -optic chiasm (upwards) and cavernous sinus (laterally) can cause visual defects

357
Q

If the anterior pituitary fails what is the effect in the hormones it secretes?

A

GH LH FSH TSH ACTH all decrease

Prolactin increases

358
Q

How do you test for a adrenocortical diseases?

A
  1. basal test when suspecting adrenocortical disease- stable hormone levels at any time of the day ; 24hr urinary excretion
  2. dynamic test in differential diagnosis of adrenocortical disease- (e.g dexamethasone suppression tests and ACTH stimulation test)
359
Q

How can a pituitary adenoma be treated?

A

Control or removal of tumour- surgery (transphenoidal or transcranial) / radiotherapy (external beam gamma knife) / medical therapy
Reduction of excess hormone secretion
Replacement of hormone deficiencies

360
Q

What are the advantages of radiotherapy for pituitary adenomas?

A

Prevention of tumour growth

Protection of vision

361
Q

What are the disadvantages of radiotherapy for pituitary adenoma?

A

Damage to normal pituitary gland

Increased risk of stroke

362
Q

What are the three main disorders of the adrenal glands?

A

Hyperactivity
Hypoactivity
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

363
Q

What is hyperactivity of the adrenal gland also called?

A

Cushing’s syndrome- excess secretion of cortisol

364
Q

What are the 4 main causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s disease)
Adrenal adenoma
Ectopic secretion of ACTH (cancer)
Use of exogenous steroids

365
Q

What are the general signs and symptoms of a cushingoid individual?

A

Moon face and fat deposition on face, neck, abdomen
Apple on a stick body shape (central obesity with wasted skinny arms and legs)
Purple striae on lower abdomen
Easy bruising
High blood pressure
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Back pain and collapse of ribs- osteoporosis

366
Q

What are the metabolic effects of Cushing’s syndrome (adrenal hyperactivity)?

A

Increase in cortisol
Increase in hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis- hyperglycaemia
Increase in proteolysis- muscle wastage and purple striae (protein structures affected)
Increase in lipogenesis in adipose tissue (at v high cortisol levels)- fat *******
Disturbances in calcium metabolism and loss of bone matrix protein - back pain and osteoporosis
Cortisol binds to mineralocorticoid receptors- increased retention of sodium and water in kidney and increased wasting of potassium- hypertension

367
Q

What can a cushingoid individual be confused with?

A

Consumer of excess alcohol = pseudo Cushing’s

368
Q

What tests should be done on a suspected cushingoid individual?

A

MRI - size and site of adenoma/ carcinoma - adrenal or pituitary?
Plasma concentrations of ACTH and cortisol
24hour urinary cortisol excretion
Dexamethasone suppression test

369
Q

What dynamic test is used to test for an excess in cortisol secretion/ Cushing syndrome?

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

370
Q

How does the dexamethasone suppression test work?

A

Normally DMS increases the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH and ACTH secretion and hence a decrease in cortisol secretion = Normal pituitary and adrenal function cortisol secretion is suppressed

In a patient with a pituitary ACTH tumour (Cushing’s disease) DMS at low doses will increase the negative feedback effect a little bit which decreases CRH secretion but ACTH secretion will still be high and so will cortisol. At high doses CRH secretion will decrease, and so will ACTH secretion as suppression will occur since diseased pituitary still has some sensitivity to the effect of the dexamethasone and thus cortisol secretion will also decrease = suggests Cushing’s disease

In a patient with an Ectopic secretion of ACTH, DMS will increase the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH secretion but ACTH secretion will still be high and thus so will cortisol secretion = suggests Ectopic secretion of ACTH

In a patient with an adrenal tumour, DMS will increase the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH and ACTH secretion but cortisol secretion will still be high = suggests problem with adrenal gland

371
Q

How can one determine the cause of Cushing syndrome?

A

Dexamethasone test - low and high doses

372
Q

What is hypoactivity of the adrenal gland also called?

A

Addison’s disease - deficient secretion of cortisol

373
Q

What are the 2 main causes of Addison’s disease?

A

Diseases of adrenal cortex (autoimmune destruction) -reduces glucocorticoids, androgens and mineralocorticoids
Disorders in pituitary or hypothalamus that lead to decreased secretion of ACTH or CRH which only affects glucocorticoids

374
Q

What are the general signs and symptoms of an addisonian individual?

A
Tiredness
Extreme muscular weakness
Weight loss and anorexia
Occasional dizziness
Dehydration
Hypotension 
Increased pigmentation
375
Q

What are the metabolic effects of Addison’s?

A

Decrease in cortisol
Decrease in gluconeogenesis- hypoglycaemia
Decrease in glycogenolysis- hypoglycaemia
Decrease in proteolysis- weight loss
Decrease in lipogenesis- maybe some lipolysis (at low cortisol levels) - weight loss
Less binding of cortisol to mineralocorticoid receptors- so decreased retention of Na and water in kidney and so hypotension
Increase in levels of alpha MSH (due to less negative feedback) and so hyperpigmentation
Reduced appetite - weight loss

376
Q

How does Addison’s with an adrenal cause affect the production of steroids?

A

Glucocorticoids- decreased production- less gluconeogenesis, less preoteolysis, less lipogenesis =dizziness and tiredness (hypoglycaemic on fasting)
Mineralocorticoids- under secretion of aldosterone, Na+ not reabsorbed in kidney so increased water loss (increased retention of K+) = dehydration and low blood pressure (hypotension)
Androgens= less facial and body hair

377
Q

How does Cushing’s syndrome with an adrenal cause affect the production of steroids?

A
Glucocorticoids= increase in cortisol, increase in gluconeogenesis, proteolysis and lipogenesis (= fat, muscle wastage, energy burst) 
Mineralocorticoids= increased reabsorption of Na+ in kidneys and hence increased retention of water (loss of K+) ( hyper tension) 
Androgens= over secretion means increased growth a development of male genital tract and male and female secondary characteristics (hair, deeper voice, body shape)
378
Q

Is there pigmentation in both Cushing’s and Addison’s? Why?

A

Yes as pigmentation is related to an increase in ACTH production (as alpha MSH is contained within ACTH from POMC)
Cushing’s- increased ACTH due to pituitary tumour or ectopic secretion (won’t get pigmentation with adrenal tumour causing Cushing’s)
Addison’s- decreased secretion of cortisol means there is less negative feedback on ACTH, so increase in ACTH production

379
Q

What can cause an addisonian crisis?

A

In trauma or sever infection- effects of addisonian crisis can be exacerbated

380
Q

What does an addisonian crisis consist of?

A
Nausea
Vomiting
Extreme dehydration
Hypotension
Confusion
Fever
Coma
CLINICAL EMERGENCY
381
Q

How is a patient in addisonian crisis treated?

A

Must be treated with IV cortisol and fluid replacement (dextrose in normal saline) to avoid death

382
Q

What tests should be done on a suspected addisonian sufferer?

A

Plasma concentrations of ACTH and cortisol
24hour urinary cortisol excretion
Synacthen stimulation test
Insulin tolerance test- normal ppl would secrete cortisol due to the stress response of starvation/fasting which would stimulate gluconeogenesis but this doesn’t happen in hypoadrenalism.

384
Q

What dynamic test is used to test for a deficiency in cortisol/ Addison’s?

A

Synacthen stimulation test (synthetic analogue of ACTH)

Insulin tolerance test (not on individuals with ischaemic heart disease or epilepsy)

385
Q

How does the synacthen stimulation test work?

A

Synacthen is an analogue of ACTH

Normally synacthen (intramuscularly) would cause there to be an increase in cortisol secretion by > 200nmol/l = excludes Addison’s and secondary cause of hypoadrenalism

In an Addison’s patient- administration of synacthen has no effect on cortisol levels which still remain low = hypoactivity of adrenal gland (primary)

386
Q

What is the general rule of dynamic tests?

A

Where there is a suspected hormone deficiency in production by a gland => stimulation test should be carried out
Where there is a suspected hormone excess in production by a gland => suppression test should be carried out

399
Q

How can Adrenocortical disorders be treated?

A

Transphenoidal surgery
Pituitary irradication
Medical treatment
Bilateral adrenalectomy

400
Q

What syndrome can arise post adrenalectomy?

A
Nelsons syndrome
Lack of negative feedback
Uncontrolled pituitary growth
Very high secretion of ACTH
Pigmentation 
Difficult to treat
401
Q

What two drugs can be used to treat Addison’s?

A

Hydrocortisone (increases cortisol)
Fludrocortisone (increased mineralocorticoids)
REPLACEMENT

402
Q

Explain how cortisol can have weak androgen and mineralocorticoid effects

A

The steroid receptors form part of a family of nuclear DNA-binding proteins (steroids pass through the cell membrane acting in the cell) that include the thyroid and vitamin D receptors. They all have three main regions:
- A hydrophobic hormone-binding region
- A DNA-binding region rich in cysteine and basic amino acids
- A variable region
There is sequence homology in the hormone-binding region of the receptors. The percentage homology of the hormone-binding region of the glucocorticoid receptor with receptors is:
- Mineralocorticoid is ~64%
​​- Androgen is ~62%
- Oestrogen is ~31%
​​​- Thyroid is ~24%
Therefore, cortisol will bind to the mineralocorticoid and androgen receptors with low affinity.
This binding may become significant when high levels of the hormone are present.

The actions of cortisol on target tissues are mediated by binding to receptors in the cytoplasm/nucleus. All steroid hormone receptors have similar basic structure with hormone and DNA binding domains. The hormone binding domains of the mineralocorticoid and androgen receptors have over 60% sequence homology with the hormone-binding domain of the glucocorticoid receptor. Thus, cortisol can bind to these receptors to a limited extent causing their partial activation

404
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located?

A

In the neck in front of the lower larynx and upper trachea

405
Q

What are the two major cell types of the thyroid gland and their structure/ location?

A

Two major cells types are found in the gland:

  • Follicular cells - arranged in units called follicles separated by connective tissue. The follicles are spherical and are lined with epithelial columnar/ cuboidal (follicular) cells surrounding a central space (lumen) containing protein - colloid.
  • Parafollicular (C-cells) - found in the connective tissue.
406
Q

What is the colloid?

A

Lumen in thyroid gland which is lined by follicular cells

Where t3 and t4 are stored

407
Q

What is produced by the follicular cells?

A

Thyroxine (T4)

Triiodothyronine (T3)

408
Q

What are the basic structures of T3 and T4?

A

Amino acid derivative hormones
Derived from tyrosine (aa found on thyroglobulin)
Attached to iodine (3 or 4)
Fat soluble/ hydrophobic/ bind to proteins to be transported in blood/ can cross cell membranes and bind to cytoplasmic/ nuclear receptors

409
Q

What is produced by the parafollicular cells?

A

Calcitonin- believed to be involved in lowering plasma calcium levels in calcium metabolism

410
Q

How are T3 and T4 hormones produced? ATE OIFC

A

Active transport of iodide into epithelial cells using ATP
Thyroglobulin synthesis (tyrosine rich) in epithelial cells
Exocytosis of thyroglobulin into colloid (in prep for storage of hormones)
Oxidation of iodine to produce iodinating species
Iodination of side chains of tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
Formation of DIT and MIT
Coupling of DIT and DIT= T4 and coupling of DIT and MIT = T3

411
Q

What is the structure of the thyroid gland?

A

Butterfly shape with two lateral lobes joined by a central isthmus
15-20g weight (largest endocrine gland in the body)
Highly vascularised with 3 supplying arteries and 3 draining veins (superior, middle and inferior)
Two nerves lie close to the gland - recurrent laryngeal, external branch of superior laryngeal

412
Q

How are T3 and T4 stored in the thyroid gland?

A

Stored extracellularly in the colloid as part of the thyroglobulin
Storage amounts T3= 0.4 micro moles ; T4= 6 micro moles
Can last for several months with normal amounts of secretion

413
Q

How are T3 and T4 secreted from the thyroid gland?

A

Thyroglobulin is taken into the epithelia (follicular cells) from the colloid by endocytosis
Proteolytic cleavage then occurs releasing T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin which diffuse from epithelial cells into circulation

414
Q

How are T3 and T4 transported in the blood?

A

Hydrophobic/ not water soluble
Bound to thyronine binding globulin (TBG)
Bound to albumin or pro albumin
1% free in plasma = biologically active

415
Q

Which of T4 and T3 is most commonly found bound to TBG and why?

A

T4 has a greater affinity for TBG than T3 and so is more commonly found bound to TBG

416
Q

Which of T3 or T4 has a greater affinity for TBG?

A

T4

417
Q

Which of T3 and T4 has a shorter half life?

A

T3 (2days) because it has a lesser affinity for TBG and so is found free more greatly
T4 (8 days)

418
Q

Do cytoplasmic (nuclear or mitochondrial) receptors have a higher affinity for T3 or T4?

A

T3

419
Q

Which of T3 and T4 do cytoplasmic (nuclear/mitochondrial) receptors have a higher affinity for?

A

T3

420
Q

How does oestrogen affect the binding of T3/4 to TBG?

A

In pregnancy an increase in oestrogen causes an increase in TBG- meaning that there is less free T3/4 in the blood = less negative feedback on hypothalamus and pituitary gland = more TRH and TSH and hence there is an increase in secretion of T3/4 and thus more active free T3 and T4 circulating in the blood

421
Q

Does a hormone bound to a protein in the blood have a negative feedback?

A

No only free hormones in the blood can have a negative feedback!

422
Q

Describe the action of T3 and T4 on target cells

A

T3 & T4 act within the target cell, interacting with high-affinity (10x greater affinity for T3) receptors located in the nucleus and possibly mitochondria.

  • Binding of T3 to the hormone-binding domain (is thought to) produce a conformational change in the receptor that unmasks the DNA-binding domain.
  • Interaction of the hormone-receptor complex with DNA increases the rate of transcription of specific genes that are then translated into proteins.
  • The ­increase in rate of protein synthesis stimulates oxidative energy metabolism in the target cells to provide the extra energy required for protein synthesis.
  • Also, protein synthesis produces more specific functional proteins, therefore increases cell activity and demand for energy.
423
Q

Describe the metabolic effects of thyroid hormones on the body

A

T3 and T4 increase the metabolic rate of many tissues:
- Increased Glucose uptake and metabolism
- Stimulate mobilization and oxidation of fatty acids
- Stimulate protein metabolism
Since the metabolic effects of T3 and T4 are mainly catabolic, this leads to:
- Increased BMR- increase in number and size of mitochondria, increase in oxygen consumption and heat production (UCPs), increase in nutrient utilisation
- Stimulate most metabolic pathways- Catabolic>Anabolic (lipolysis, glycolysis, glycogenolysis, proteolysis)
- promote normal growth and development of tissues- increase in synthesis of specific proteins
- Increase responsiveness of tissues to SNS (adrenaline) and various metabolic and reproductive hormones

424
Q

Describe the effects of thyroid hormones on growth and development?

A

T3 and T4 are important for normal growth/development
- T3 and T4 directly affect bone mineralisation and increase the synthesis of heart muscle protein.
- The CNS is sensitive to T3/T4, especially during development as they’re required for the development of cellular processes of nerve cells, hyperplasia of cortical neurons and myelination of nerve fibres.
In the absence of thyroid hormone from birth-puberty the child remains mentally & physically retarded (cretinism). If the deficiency isn’t corrected within a few weeks of birth there’s irreversible damage. All newborns have their thyroid function assessed soon after birth. In adults lack of thyroid hormones is characterised by poor concentration and memory, lack of initiative.
- T3 and T4 are also indirectly related to interactions with hormones and neurotransmitters. T3/T4 stimulate hormone and neurotransmitter receptor synthesis in tissues (i.e. heart muscle, GI) that can increase responsiveness of these tissues to regulatory factors.
- In heart muscle – tachycardia. In the GI tract – increased motility.
- T3 and T4 have a permissive role in the actions of hormones such as FSH and LH.
- Ovulation fails to occur in the absence of thyroid hormones.

425
Q

What is the relevance of converting T4 to T3 and how is this achieved?

A

T4 can be converted to T3 by the removal of the 5’-iodide. This helps to regulate the amount the amount of active (free) hormone in cells, as T3 is 10x more active than T4.
Removal of the 3’-iodide produces the inactive reverse T3 (rT3)

426
Q

How is thyroid hormone secretion controlled?

A

Hypothalamus –(Thyrotrophin releasing hormone, TRH- tripeptide released from cells in dermomedial nucleus of hypothalamus)–> anterior pituitary gland–(thyroid stimulating hormone-released by thyrotrophs)–> follicular cells of thyroid gland –> T3 and T4

427
Q

What is TSH?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone!
Glycoprotein consisting of 2 non covalently linked subunits (alpha and beta)
Released in low amplitude pulses following an a diurnal rhythm: high at night, low in morning

428
Q

What are the actions of TSH on the thyroid?

A

TSH interacts with receptors on the surface of the follicle cells and stimulates all aspects of the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4
Also TSH has trophic effects on the gland that result in increased vascularity, increase in size and number of follicle cells –> enlarged thyroid gland (GOITRE) with an over and under active thyroid

429
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect the nervous system?

A

Development (birth –> puberty) and functioning (adults)
Increased myelination of nerve fibres and neurone development
Increased speed of reflexes
Increased mental activity (alertness, emotional tone, memory)

Development of cellular processes of nerve cells
Hyperplasia of cortical neurons
Myelination of nerve fibres

430
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect the cardiovascular system?

A

Increases responsiveness of heart to SNS and catecholamines

Increases synthesis in heart muscle protein

431
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect skin and subcutaneous tissue?

A

Increases turnover of proteins and glycoprotein (mucopolysaccharides)

432
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

Over activity of the thyroid gland leading to over secretion of thyroid hormones

433
Q

What are some symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A

HUGE EYES
Heat intolerance, Increased oxygen consumption, Increased BMR
Weight loss
Physical and mental hyperactivity
Tachycardia
Intestinal hyper mobility
Skeletal and cardiac myopathy= tiredness, weakness, breathlessness
Osteoporosis- increased turnover of bone and preferential resorption

Common signs and symptoms:
• Weight loss
• Heat intolerance, sweating, warm vasodilated hands.
• Irritability, emotional lability
• Tachycardia (noticeable heart beat) often irregular.
• Fatigue and weakness
• Increased bowel movements - increased appetite
• Menstrual dysfunction
• Hyper-reflexive
• Possible tremor of outstretched hands

434
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease

Others include: thyroid adenoma, pituitary or hypothalamus cause, drugs

435
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

Affects ~1% of population- mostly women
Autoimmune disease in which antibodies are produced to stimulate TSH receptors on follicle cells, resulting in increased production and release of T3/4

436
Q

What happens to TSH and T3/4 levels in hyperthyroidism?

A
TSH Low (due to negative feedback from high T3/4)
T3/4 High
437
Q

How can hyper and hypothyroidism be diagnosed?

A

TSH and T4 levels in blood
Technetium scan- diagnostic scanning using technetium 99m and a gamma camera; picks up radioactivity produced by iodine producing thyroids
Normal= some iodine lights up
Diseased= dark

438
Q

How can hyperthyroidism be treated?

A

Using an anti thyroid drug- carbimazole
Surgical removal of thyroid and then treat for hypothyroidism
Radioactive iodine- following surgery that didn’t remove the entire gland- destroys the remaining diseased portion of the thyroid gland

439
Q

How does carbimazole work?

A

Inhibits the enzyme thyroid peroxidase and so prevents coupling and iodination of tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
Inhibits incorporation of iodine into thyroglobulin

440
Q

What is the risk of treatment of hyperthyroidism by surgical re movement of thyroid glands?

A

Risk of causing consequential hypothyroidism

441
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

Underactivity of thyroid gland leading to under secretion of thyroid hormones

442
Q

What are some symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A
Cold intolerance and reduced BMR 
Weight gain
Tiredness and lethargy
Bradycardia
Neuromuscular system- weakness, muscle cramps and cerebella ataxia (clumsiness of movement)
Skin dry and flaky
Alopecia (hair loss) 
Voice is deep and husky

If it occurs in embryo/ new born = cretinism (failure in CNS development, protruding tongue and delayed sex development)

Weight gain due to reduced BMR.
• Cold intolerance due to reduced BMR.
• Lethargy/tiredness due to reduced uptake of nutrients by muscle.
• Bradycardia – slow heart rate due to reduced responsiveness to catecholamines and reduced heart muscle protein synthesis.
• Dry skin and hair loss due to reduced synthesis of proteins.
• Slow reflexes and clumsiness due to reduced sensitivity to catecholamines.
• Constipation due to reduced responsiveness of GI tract
• Hoarse voice.

443
Q

What is the the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimotos

Others include a pituitary or hypothalamus cause, or iodine deficiency

444
Q

What is hashimotos disease?

A

Affects 1% of population- mostly women
Autoimmune disease that results in either the destruction of thyroid follicles or the production of an antibody that blocks the TSH receptor on follicle cells preventing them from responding to TSH

445
Q

What happens to T3/4 levels and TSH levels in hypothyroidism?

A
T3/4 LOW
TSH HIGH (due to less negative feedback from low T3/4)
446
Q

How can hypothyroidism be treated?

A

Oral T4/ thyroxine
Dose adjusted according to patients signs, symptoms and TSH levels
Increased latke of iodine if cause is iodine deficiency

447
Q

How does oral T4 work?

A

Can be converted to more active T3

Replaces the T3/4 lost and reinstates negative feedback on TSH

448
Q

What is the risk of using oral T4 in hypothyroidism?

A

Risk of it causing hyperthyroidism

449
Q

Why is a goitre formed in hyperthyroidism?

A

Don’t need to know but just know that they are formed

450
Q

Why is a goitre formed in hypothyroidism?

A

In hypothyroidism there is low T3/4 and hence less negative feedback on TSH- therefore TSH levels increase which causes there to be an increase in trophic effects on follicular cells - increase in size and number of follicular cells = GOITRE

451
Q

What is a goitre?

A

Swelling of the thyroid gland
Lump on throat of varying sizes
Caused by hypo/hyper thyroidism

452
Q

Why does the body need to maintain serum calcium levels within set limits?

A

Calcium plays a critical role in many cellular processes:
- Hormone secretion
- In/activation of enzymes
- Muscle contraction
- Exocytosis
-Nerve conduction
Therefore, the body very carefully regulates the plasma concentration of free ionised calcium ([Ca2+]), the physiologically active form of the metal, and maintains free plasma [Ca2+] within a narrow range (1.0 to 1.3mM, or 4.0 to 5.2mg/dl).
Other things: can calcify the osteoid of bone- more rigid structure (main storage of calcium in body)

453
Q

What concentration of free ionised Ca2+ should be maintained in the blood?

A

1.0 to 1.3mM, or 4.0 to 5.2mg/dl

454
Q

What hormones are involved in the control of calcium serum levels?

A

Parathyroid hormone
Vitamin D (calcitriol)
Calcitonin

455
Q

What is the parathyroid hormone?

A

Produced in the parathyroid gland in the chief cells
Regulated by negative feedback
Raises Ca2+ concentration of blood- short term regulation
Straight chain polypeptide hormone (water soluble)
Pre hormone = 115 aa and hormone = 84 aa
Half life = 4 mins

456
Q

How is PTH synthesis and release regulated in high [Ca2+]?

A

High [Ca2+] = increase in binding of Ca2+ to G receptors on surface of chief cells = * stimulates Phospholipase C = inhibits adenylate cyclase = decrease in cAMP = decrease in release of PTH
* = down regulation of gene transcription = accelerated cleavage and degradation of PTH in chief cells (already released PTH cleaved in liver) = decrease in synthesis of PTH

457
Q

How is PTH synthesis and release regulated in low [Ca2+]?

A

Low [Ca2+] = decrease in binding of Ca2+ to G receptors on surface of chief cells = * inhibits Phospholipase C = stimulates adenylate cyclase = increase in cAMP = increase in release of PTH

  • = up regulation of gene transcription = less cleavage and degradation of PTH in chief cells = increase in synthesis of PTH
  • prolonged survival of mRNA
458
Q

What is calcitriol?

A

Activated vitamin D, 1,25dihydroxyvitaminD
Vitamin D- 25 hydroxyvitamin D -1,25dihydroxyvitaminD (calcitriol)
Raises [Ca2+] of serum- long term regulation
Vitamin D is made in skin when exposed to UVB in sun
Vitamin D is sourced in cheese, butter, margarine, fortified milk, fish, fortified cereals
Steroid hormone (not water soluble)
Vitamin D has a very short half life whereas the half life of calciferol (2weeks) and calcitriol (few hours) is much higher

459
Q

How is calcitriol synthesised?

A

Pro vitamin D used UVB to be converted into pre vitamin D, which is cleaved to form vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) and D2 (ergocalciferol)
These undergo a hydroxylation in the liver = 25 hydroxyvitamin D (calciferol)
This undergoes a further hydroxylation In the kidney = 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)
Calcitriol raises serum [Ca2+]

460
Q

How do PTH and Calcitriol affect bone?

A

Vitamin D / PTH stimulate osteoblast cells on bony surface to secrete cytokines which stimulate the differentiation of osteoblasts and stem cells into osteoclasts which results in stimulated activity of osteoclasts and consequential decrease in activity of osteoblasts (also inhibited by PTH)
Bony surface is then exposed to osteoclast action
Resorption of mineralised bone
Release of phosphate and calcium into ECF

INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+ and Pi

461
Q

How do PTH and calcitriol affect the kidney?

A

Vitamin D/ PTH affect the tubular cells in the kidney:

  • increases the reabsorption of Ca2+ in the dct, thus reducing excretion of Ca2+
  • increase P filtration in kidney- Pi removed from circulation bu inhibition of kidney reabsorption

This has the effect of preventing kidney stone for action as their wise calcium and phosphate stones (hydroxyapatite crystals) would form causing blockages

INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+
DECREASE IN serum conc of Pi

462
Q

How do PTH and calcitriol affect the gut?

A

Vitamin D –(1st hydroxylation in LIVER)–> calciferol –(2!pnd hydroxylation in KIDNEY- requires PTH)–> calcitriol
Calcitriol increase the uptake of Ca2+ from the gut (active uptake and extrusion, transcellular transport, endocytosis and exocytosis using CaBP complex)
Increased serum calcium concentrations means that there can be increased calcification of osteoid (organic matrix) in bone

INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+

463
Q

What are some symptoms of hypercalcaemia?

A
Kidney stones and damage
Constipation
Dehydration
Tiredness and depression 
Moans(depression), groans(abdominal pain), stones (kidney)
464
Q

What is hypercalcaemia?

A

Raised serum concentration of Ca2+

465
Q

What are some symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A

Hyper excitability of neuromuscular junction (low Ca2+ in ECF slightly depolarises cells such that they have a reduced firing threshold)
Paraesthesia (pins and needles)
Tetanic contraction of muscles
Convulsions and if respiratory muscles are involved = DEATH

466
Q

What is hypocalcaemia?

A

Low serum concentration of Ca2+

467
Q

What is the usual cause of hypercalcaemia?

A

Excess PTH due to hyperparathyroidism
Parathyroid hormone related peptide from Cancers
Excess calcitriol

468
Q

How can hypercalcaemia be treated?

A

Replace fluid as less calcium and water is reabsorbed in the kidneys
Remove tumour from parathyroid gland

469
Q

What is the usual cause of hypocalcaemia?

A

Hypoparathyroidism (very rare)
PTH deficiency- uncommon, normal serum Ca2+ conc can’t be maintained, can be caused by removal of pt, symptoms w/i 48 hrs
Removal of parathyroid gland
Vitamin D and calcium deficiency

470
Q

How can hypoparathyroidism be treated?

A

Supplements of vitamin D and or calcium

Normally fixes itself

471
Q

If your diet is deficient in calcium how is serum concentration maintained?

A

At the expense of bone

472
Q

What is the only way of increasing the whole body concentration of calcium?

A

Increase dietary intake of calcium

473
Q

What is rickets?

A

Failure to mineralise long bones as a result of a vitamin d deficiency
Symptoms include- bowed legs, big lumpy joints, curved bone, bony necklace, slow closing soft spot on baby head

474
Q

What is the believed effect of calcitonin?

A

Lower Ca2+ levels in animals
In humans it lacks pathology associated with either hyper/hypo secretion; removal or destruction of thyroid- lack of calcitonin has no effect on homeostasis
May be important in pregnancy, may serve to preserve the fetal skeleton

475
Q

Where is parathyroid hormone produced?

A

Chief cells of parathyroid gland

476
Q

Where is calcitonin produced?

A

Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland

477
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

During pregnancy the rate of insulin secretion and synthesis normally increases
When the pancreas fails to respond to the demands if pregnancy less insulin than is required is released
Loss of metabolic control and rise in blood glucose, leads to diabetes
Normally reverses after birth of child
Increase chance of future diabetes

478
Q

What can be caused as a result of a deficiency in ADH?

A

Diabetes insipidus

479
Q

What happens to cholesterol in tissues?

A

It’s used for synthesis of the cell membrane

It’s used for steroidogenesis- adrenal cortex

480
Q

What happens to cholesterol in the liver?

A

Converted to bile salts

481
Q

What is hyperammonaemia?

A

Increase in the concentration of ammonia in the blood
Due to high protein diet, urea cycle defect, amino acid metabolism defect, refeeding syndrome with kwashiorkors
Toxic to CNS - tremors slurred speech, coma and death
Increased pH of blood - basic ammonia
Reaction with alpha ketoglutarate removes TCA substrate and so leads to reduction or energy supply

482
Q

Why do ketone bodies and lactate cause acidosis?

A

Both contain acidic groups

483
Q

Why are tags a better source of energy than glycogen?

A

Hydrophobic - so not associated with lots of water

More reduced than glycogen so yield more energy when oxidised

484
Q

How do UCPs increase heat?

A

Increase permeability of mitochondrial membrane for protons
Reduces pmf so that energy is dissipated as heat rather than being used in ATP synthesis
Expressed as bat and involved in thermogenesis

485
Q

What is hyperlipoproteinaemia?

A

Any condition in which, after a 12 hour fast, the plasma cholesterol and/or plasma triglyceride is raised.

486
Q

How are LDLs taken up by tissues?

A

Tissues obtain the cholesterol they need from LDLs by the process of receptor-medicated endocytosis. LDL particles are taken up by the cell and the cholesterol released inside the cell.
All cells (except erythrocytes) are able to synthesise cholesterol from acetyl~CoA and could satisfy their requirements by biosynthesis. In practice, all cells appear to prefer the uptake of pre-formed cholesterol circulating in plasma lipoproteins.
o Cells requiring cholesterol synthesise LDL receptors that are exposed on the cell surface.
o These receptors recognise and bind to specific apoproteins (Apo B100) on the surface of the LDL.
o The LDL receptor with its bound LDL is then endocytosed by the cell and subjected to lysosomal digestion.
o Cholesterol esters are converted to free cholesterol that is released within the cell.
o The cholesterol can be stored (as cholesterol esters) or used by the cell
o This also inhibits the synthesis of cholesterol by the cell and reduces the synthesis and exposure of LDL receptors. This prevents the cell from accumulating too much cholesterol.

487
Q

How can hyperlipoproteinaemia be treated?

A

Diet and lifestyle modifications (e.g. increase in exercise) are considered first to treat hyperlipoproteinaemia. Aiming to reduce/eliminate cholesterol from the diet and reduce the intake of triacylglycerols (especially those with saturated fatty acids). In some patients this will have little effect.
Drug therapy – statins (e.g. simvastin) are a group of drugs that may lower plasma cholesterol by reducing the synthesis of cholesterol in tissues.
The liver can dispose of cholesterol by converting it into bile salts and secreting a small amount directly in the bile. The bile salt sequestrants (e.g. cholestyramine) lower plasma cholesterol by increasing its disposal from the body. They act by binding to bile salts in the GI tract preventing them from being reabsorbed into the hepatic-portal circulation and promoting their loss in the faeces.

488
Q

What happens in feeding?

A

Increase in insulin (affects glucose, fas, aas)
Increase in:
Glycolysis and oxidation by skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
Glycogenesis
Protein synthesis
Lipogenesis

489
Q

What happens in fasting?

A
Increase in glucagon (affects glucose and fas- not aas)
Increase in:
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis 
Lipolysis
490
Q

What happens in starvation?

A
Even more glucagon than in fasting 
Increase in:
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Protein breakdown
491
Q

In BAT how is heat produced?

A

Cold weather
Release of norepinephrine
Increase in lipolysis
Fatty acids activate the uncoupling protein thermogenin in mitochondrial membrane
Increase in permeability of inner mitochondria membrane for protons
Protons reenter the mitochondrial matrix
ATP synthase not activated so no ATP synthesis
Pmf is dissipated as heat
Electron transport and thus NADH/FAD2H oxidation continues
Free energy is released as heat
Respiration continues to bring more NADH and FAD2H to mitochondria and uses up fuel molecules (fatty acids, glucose etc)
More and more heat production

492
Q

What happens in leptin deficiency/ resistance?

A

Severe obesity can result due to loss of control of the balance between energy intake and energy expenditure

493
Q

How is insulin secretion controlled?

A

Stimulated by: fatty acids, glucose, amino acids in high conc; gut hormones in readiness for absorption of raw materials
Inhibited by: The catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline inhibit insulin secretion. This enables the catecholamines released during stress to raise the blood glucose concentration and for the concentration to be maintained while the stress is dealt with. If insulin secretion was not inhibited the increase in blood glucose caused by the catecholamines would stimulate insulin secretion and the blood glucose concentration would fall prematurely.