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Y2 Muscskel (LCRS2) > Metabolic Bone Disease – Biochemistry > Flashcards

Metabolic Bone Disease – Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What is metabolic bone disease?

A

A group of disease that cause a change in bone density and bone strength by increasing bone resorption, decreasing bone formation or altering bone structure

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2
Q

What are the five main metabolic bone disorders?

A

Primary Hyperparathyroidism Osteomalacia/Rickets Osteporosis Renal Osteodystrophy Paget’s Disease

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3
Q

What are the main components of bone strength?

A

Mass Material Microarchitecture Macroarchitectue

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4
Q

When is peak bone mass reached?

A

Around 25 years

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5
Q

When does bone mass begin to decline?

A

Around 40 years NOTE: in women, the decline in bone mass accelerates after menopause

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6
Q

How are microfractures repaired?

A

Bone remodelling

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7
Q

Briefly describe the bone remodelling cycle.

A

A microcrack crosses the canaliculi and severs the osteocyte processes, inducing osteocyte apoptosis This signals to the surface lining cells, which release factors to recruit cells from the blood and marrow to the remodelling compartment Osteoclasts are generated locally and resorb the matrix and the mitrocrack Then osteoblasts deposit new lamellar bone Osteoblasts that become trapped in the matrix become osteocytes

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8
Q

What is the normal range for serum calcium concentration?

A

2.15-2.56 mmol/L

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9
Q

Describe the distribution of calcium in blood

A

46% plasma protein bound (albumin) 47% free calcium (ionized) 7% complexes (with phosphate or citrate)

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10
Q

What is the ‘corrected’ calcium level?

A
  • This compensates for changes in protein level (if proteins are high, it compensates down) Corrected calcium = [Ca2+] + 0.02(45-[albumin])
  • This is because with low albumin the total calcium drops without a drop in ionized calcium
  • Therefore the calcium need to correct (by administering calcium) using this formula
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11
Q

Describe the effect of metabolic alkalosis on calcium distribution.

A

It makes more calcium bind to plasma proteins thus reducing the free calcium levels NOTE: venous stasis may elevate free calcium

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12
Q

What are the two main targets of PTH?

A

Kidneys Bone

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13
Q

Describe the effects of PTH in: a. Bone b. Kidneys

A

a. Bone Acute release of available calcium (not stored in hydroxyapatite crystal form) More chronically, increased osteoclast activity b. Kidneys Increased calcium reabsorption Increased phosphate excretion Increased stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase (thus increasing calcitriol production) increased CaHPO4 resorption

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14
Q

Where does the PTH-mediated increase in calcium reabsorption take place in the nephron?

A

DISTAL convoluted tubule a little in the thick ascending limb

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15
Q

Where does the PTH-mediated increase in phosphate excretion take place in the nephron?

A

PROXIMAL convoluted tubule

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16
Q

How many amino acids make up PTH and which part of this is active?

A

84 Active: N1-34

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17
Q

What is PTH dependent on?

A

Magnesium

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18
Q

What is the half-life of PTH?

A

8 mins

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19
Q

What else can the PTH receptor be activated by other than PTH?

A

PTHrP (PTH related protein) This is produced by some tumours a system used during lactation

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20
Q

What does the parathyroid gland use to monitor serum calcium?

A

Calcium-sensing receptors

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21
Q

Describe the relationship between PTH level and calcium in vivo.

A

Steep inverse sigmoid function NOTE: there is a minimum level of PTH release (it can’t get below this even in the case of hypercalcaemia)

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22
Q

What are the causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid adenoma (80%) Parathyroid hyperplasia (20%) Parathyroid cancer Familial syndromes

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23
Q

What biochemical results are diagnostic of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Elevated total/ionised calcium With PTH levels frankly elevated or in the upper half of the normal range (negative feedback should drop PTH if there is hypercalcaemia)

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24
Q

What are the clinical features of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Thirst, polyuria, tiredness, fatigue, muscle weakness Stones, Bones, Abdominal Groans and Psychic Moans: Stones – renal colic, nephrocalcinosis Bones – osteitis fibrosa cystica Abdominal moans – dyspepsia, pancreatitis, constipation Psychic groans – depression, impaired concentration NOTE: patients may also suffer fractures secondary to the bone resorption IMPORTANT NOTE: hypercalcaemia also causes diuresis (polyuria and polydipsia)

25
Q

What is the main site of action of calcitriol and what effect does it have?

A

Small intestine – increases calcium and phosphate absorption increases active absorption of calcium and potassium in duodenum

26
Q

Describe the effects of calcitriol on bone and in the kidneys.

A

Facilitates PTH effect on the DCT in the kidneys (increased calcium reabsorption) Synergises with PTH in the bone to increase osteoclast activation/maturation

27
Q

Which receptors/proteins are involved in mediating the effects of calcitriol on the intestines?

A

TRPV6 Calbindin

28
Q

What parameter is used to determine whether a patient is vitamin D deficient?

A

Deficient < 20 ng/M (50 nmol/L) Normal > 30 ng/M (75 nmol/L)

29
Q

What is Rickets?

A

Inadequate vitamin D activity leads to defective mineralisation of the cartilaginous growth plate (before a low calcium)

30
Q

State some signs and symptoms of Rickets.

A

Symptoms:  Lack of play  Bone pain and tenderness (axial)  Muscle weakness (proximal) Sign:  Age dependent deformity  Myopathy  Hypotonia  Short stature  Tenderness on percussion

31
Q

State some Vitamin D related causes of Rickets/Osteomalacia.

A

Dietary deficiency Malabsorptoin Pancreatic or liver insufficiency Drugs – e.g. enzyme inducers such as phenytoin Chronic renal failure Rare hereditary Vit D dependent rickets - type1 and type 2

32
Q

For each of the following state whether it would be high, low or normal in the serum of a Rickets patient: a. Calcium b. Phosphate c. Alkaline Phosphatase d. 25-OH cholecalciferol e. PTH f. URINE phosphate

A

a. Calcium Normal or Low b. Phosphate Normal or Low c. Alkaline Phosphatase High d.25-OH cholecalciferol Low e. PTH High f. URINE phosphate High

33
Q

Other than PTH, what else can cause increased phosphate excretion?

34
Q

What effect does this factor have that is unlike PTH?

A

It inhibits 1 alpha-hydroxylase, thus inhibiting calcitriol production

35
Q

Which cells produce this factor?

A

Osteoblast lineage cells

36
Q

Other than Vitamin D deficiency, what else can cause Rickets/Osteomalacia?

A

Phosphate deficiency

37
Q

State some phosphate-related conditions that cause Rickets/Osteomalacia.

A
  • X-linked Hypophosphataemic Rickets (mutation in Phex (this cleaves FGF23) so high FGF-23
  • Autosomal Dominant Hypophosphataemia Rickets - cleavage site for FGF-23 mutated, so high FGF-23
  • Oncogenic Osteomalacia (mesenchymal tumours can produce FGF23)
38
Q

What can cause osteoporosis due to increased bone resorption and decreased bone formation?

A

Glucocorticoids

39
Q

How does oestrogen deficiency lead to a decrease in bone mineral density?

A

It increases the number of bone remodelling units It causes an imbalance in bone remodelling with increased bone resorption compared to bone formation

40
Q

Describe the biochemistry of someone with osteoporosis.

A

Everything should be normal if the cause is primary

41
Q

What is the single best predictor of fracture risk?

42
Q

What is used to measure BMD?

A

DEXA scans

43
Q

Which bones are used when measuring BMD and why?

A

Vertebral bodies  Commonest fracture  Good measure of cancellous bone  It is a highly metabolically active bone so it is quick to respond to treatment Hip – second commonest fracture, most imporatant in terms of mortality and costs NOTE: fracture risk assessment tool (FRAX) uses hip BMD

44
Q

Which chains make up type 1 collagen?

A

2 x alpha 1 1 x alpha 2

45
Q

What can be used as a marker of bone formation that is linked to collagen production?

A

Procollagen type 1 N-terminal propeptide (P1NP)

46
Q

What can be used as a measure of bone resorption that is linked to collagen production?

A
  • C-terminal telopeptide (CTX) – serum
  • N-terminal telopeptide (NTX) – urine
  • 3 hydroxylysine molecules on adjacent tropocollagen fibrils condense to form a pyridinium ring linkage
    • These can be measured
47
Q

After how long do bone resorption markers fall?

48
Q

What are the problems with cross-linking collagen, with regards to measurement of bone markers?

A

Reproducibility Positive association with age Need to correct for creatinine Diurnal variation in urine markers

49
Q

What bone formation marker is commonly in use?

A

Alkaline Phosphatase

50
Q

What is ALP used in the diagnosis and monitoring of?

A
  • Osteomalacia
  • Paget’s
  • Bone Metastases
51
Q

What is P1NP being used for now?

A

Used as a predictor of response to anabolic treatments

52
Q

What are the two forms of alkaline phosphatase?

A

Liver Bone

53
Q

Which bone diseases will cause a rise in ALP?

A

Osteomalacia Bone metastases Also hyperparathyroidism and hyperthyroidism

54
Q

How does alkaline phosphatase change with age?

A

Increases markedly during puberty reaching its highest levels Remains relatively constant following puberty (potential small rise after the age of 50)

55
Q

What biochemical changes occur in renal osteodystrophy?

A

Increased serum phosphate Reduction in calcitriol

56
Q

Describe the sequelae of renal osteodystrophy.

A
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • This is unsuccessful and hypocalcaemia develops
  • This leads to excessive stimulation of the parathyroid glands, leading to parathyroid hyperplasia
  • The parathyroid cells begin to reduce expression of calcium-sensing receptors (CSR) and Vitamin D receptors (VDR) and become autonomous (tertiary)
  • This causes hypercalcaemia
57
Q

Why do you have high urine calcium in hyerparathyroidism?

A

You have high urine calcium as the very elevated levels of serum calcium overcome the increased resoprion in the kidney

58
Q

Why does high calcium cause diuresis?

A

Hyper calcemic = switches off potassium recycling in thick ascending limb, shuts off triple transporter - same as taking loop diretic

59
Q

where does 1 hydroxylation of cholecalciferol occur?

A

proximal tubule of kidney

Y2 Muscskel (LCRS2) (11 decks)

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