Metabolic Bone Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • Disorder of bone quantity not quality
  • Deterioration of microarchitecture, compromised bone strength and increased risk of fractures.
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2
Q

What is paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Abnormal localised bone remodelling (quality) - a chronic disorder that causes bones to grow larger and become weaker than normal. The disease usually affects just one or a few bones. The bones most commonly affected by Paget’s disease include: Pelvis. Skull.

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3
Q

What causes paget’s disease of the bone and what are its clinical features?

A
  • caused primarily by increased osteoclast resorption, and increased but disorganised bone formation.
  • Clinical features include: enlarged skull, bowing of long bones, large joint OA, fracture, nerve compression and possible Deafness
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4
Q

What is paget’s sarcoma?

A

malignant change to paget’s, most commonly osteosarcoma.

Osteoblastic differentiation and malignant osteoid production, malignancy from mesenchymal cells.

Poor prognosis.

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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Paget’s and what 3 phases can it occur in? `

A

Abnormal osteoclasts/precursors which are greater in number, unusually large and sensitive to simulation.

Lytic = intense osteoclast resorption

Mixed = resorption and compensatory formation

Scleotic = predominant osteoblstic formation.

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6
Q

What investigation and treatment is required for paget’s disease of the bone?

A

Investigations: radiographs and bone scan; from lab results elevated ALP

Management: OC inhibition e.g. bisphosphonates and arthroplasty when needed.

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7
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Defective osteoclastic resorption.

Cannot acidify howship’s lacunae, hence bone formed but not remodelled.

leads to dense bone with obliterated medullary canal.

Gives predisposition to low energy transverse fractures, and increases risk of non-union.

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8
Q

What is the prognosis of osteopetrosis?

A

Prognosis:

The severe infantile forms of osteopetrosis are associated with diminished life expectancy, with most untreated children dying in the first decade as a consequence of bone marrow suppression.

Life expectancy in the adult-onset forms is normal.

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9
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

Increased circulating levels of PTH as a result of excess production by one or more parathyroid glands.

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10
Q

What is primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism:
Intrinsic abnormality of parathyroid glands leads to pathological increase in PTH production, likely due to parathyroid adenoma.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism:
Increased PTH secretion from hypertrophic parathyroid glands, secondary to chronic hypercalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, vitamin D deficiency or chronic renal disease.

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11
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperparathyroidism? (10)

A

“Bones, stones, groans and psychic moans”

  • Arthritis
  • Osteoporosis
  • kidney stones
  • Constipation
  • GI ulcers
  • Acute pancreatitis
  • Polyuria
  • Forgetfulness
  • Depression
  • Confusion
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12
Q

What is the treatment for primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Primary = parathyroidectomy
  • Secondary = treat underlying cause, vit d. deficiency most common, renal disease.
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13
Q

What are the main effects of PTH?

A
  • increases bone resorption: OBs release RANK-L and decrease OPG production, allowing OCs to differentiate and activate
  • Increase renal hydroxylation of vitamin D: increased production of calcitriol results in increased RANK-L release and increased intestinal and renal uptake of Calcium.
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14
Q

What are the two hydroxylations of Vitamin D and what are the intermediate products?

A

Liver:
Vit D -> 25 hydroxy vit. D

Kidney:
25 hydroxy vit. D -> 1,25 dihydroxy vit. D = calcitriol

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15
Q

What are the function of calcitriol?

A
  • Increases availability of calcium through increasing GI and renal uptake
  • Maintains serum phosphate levels by decreasing PTH synthesis and increasing FGF23 (negative feedback loop)
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16
Q

What is rickets?

A

Defect in mineralisation caused by inadequate calcium and phosphate prior to physeal closed resulting in reduced mineralization in the zone of provisional calcification.

17
Q

What are the 2 possible causes of rickets?

A
  • Can be congenital with familial hypophosphatemia (inability of the kidneys to absorb phosphate)
  • Can be acquired through vitamin D deficiency, low vitamin D levels lead to decreased calcium absorption and low Ca levels increases PTH release hence increasing bone resorption.
18
Q

What are the manifestations of rickets? (8)

A
  • Brittle bones with physeal capping/widening
  • Bowing of long bones
  • Muscle hypotonia and weakness
  • Flattening of the skull
  • enlargement of costal cartilage
  • Kyphosis
  • Dental abnormalities
  • Irritability and lisfulness
19
Q

How do you treat rickets?

FACT Check !!!

A
  • If caused by vitamin D deficiency give vitamin D and calcium supplements
  • If caused by hypophosphatemia give calcitriol and phosphate
  • Surgery to correct deformities.
20
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Defect in mineralisation caused by inadequate calcium and phosphate after physeal closure, qualitative defect not quantitative.

21
Q

What are the causes of osteomalacia? (8)

A

Causes:
Diet, malabsorption (Coeliac disease), renal osteodystrophy, alcoholism, tumour, drugs that cause vit D. deficiency, phosphate homeostasis disruption and altered bone mineralisation.

22
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomalacia? how is it treated?

A
  • Bone and muscle pain
  • atypical fractures
  • femur and femoral neck fractures
  • proximal muscle weakness
  • fatigue
  • hip arthritis with protrusio

Treated with large doses of vitamin D.

23
Q

What is the epidemiology of osteoporotic fracutures?

A

low energy trauma in females >55 years and males >70 years with lower bone density due to post menopause, age related for secondary to other causes ike disease, smoking, drugs and alcohol.

24
Q

Define insufficiency fractures:

A

Type of stress fracture which is a cumulative result of repeated normal loading of abnormal bone

25
Q

Define fatigue fracutres:

A

Repeated abnormal stress on normal bone

26
Q

Define fragility fractures:

A

Fractures as a result of force that would not fracture normal bone.

27
Q

what are vertebral wedge compression fractures? What symptoms do they lead to?

A

Common fractures due to sufficiency or low energy trauma, often affecting multiple levels of the spine.

Leads to progressive deformity including: height loss, reduced pulmonary volume, protruding abdomen, distention, constipation and early satiety.

28
Q

What is the difference between volar and dorsal extra-articular wrist fractures?

A

Colles’ fracture = dorsal angulation and dorsal displacement leading to the dinner fork deformity, resulting from fall onto outward hand.

Smith’s fracture = volar angulation with or without volar displacement, resulting from fall onto an inward hand. less common

29
Q

What are some characteristics of a pubic rami fracture? (3)

A
  • resulting from falling backwards from standing landing on your butt.
  • usually both sup. and inferior pubic rami broken - polo effect
  • In osteoporosis one more often broken because of altered bone.
30
Q

What are some disadvantages of bed rest for elderly fracture patients?

A
  • muscle wasting
  • Loss of mobility
  • Bed sores
  • pneumonia
  • Pulmonary emboli
  • Death
31
Q

What about the anatomy of the femoral head is important to consider when dealing with hip fractures?

A

blood supply to femoral head via medial circumflex femoral a. which has branches around neck that may be torn during fracture leading to osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

32
Q

What is the treatment for intracapsular hip fractures?

A
  • Hemiarthroplasty if low demand, dementia
  • Total hip arthroplasty if active, cognitively intact with high functional demands.
33
Q

What is the treatment for extracapsular hip fractures?

A
  • If intertrochanteric then sliding hip screw
  • if subtrochanteric then intramedullary nail
34
Q
A