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SYS-601 > Messer Practice Exam 1 > Flashcards

Messer Practice Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the process of gathering as much information as possible about a company from open sources such as social media, corporate websites, and business organizations?

A

Passive Footprinting

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2
Q

What active reconnaissance tests directly query systems to see if a backdoor has been installed?

A

Backdoor Testing

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3
Q

What process involves actively querying and receiving responses across a network?

A

OS fingerprinting

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4
Q

What type of penetration test provides detailed information about specific systems or applications?

A

Partially known environment

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5
Q

What protocols use TLS to provide secure communication?

A

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure)

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6
Q

What protocol is used to encrypt conversations over VoIP?

A

SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol)

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7
Q

What protocols aren’t encrypted?

A

Telnet
FTP
SMTP
IMAP

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8
Q

What secure protocol is used for Time Synchronization?

A

NTPsec (Secure Network Time Protocol)

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9
Q

What secure protocols are used for Email?

A

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) with PKI
POP3S (Secure Post Office Protocol) with SSL.
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) with SSL.
Browser-based email with SSL.

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10
Q

What does SNMPv2 stand for and do?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol version 2.

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11
Q

What two data sources help address file storage volatility?

A

Partition Data
Temporary File Systems

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12
Q

What would an all-in-one printer that can print, scan, and fax often be categorized as?

A

Multifunction Device

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13
Q

What is an IoT device?

A

Wearable technology and home automation devices.

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14
Q

What does RTOs stand for?

A

Real-time operating system.

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15
Q

What does SoC standfor?

A

System on a Chip.

Multiple components that run on a single chip are categorized as an SoC.

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16
Q

ISO 27701

A

extends 27001 and 27002 to include management of PII and data privacy.

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17
Q

ISO 31000

A

sets international standards for risk management

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18
Q

ISO 27002

A

focuses on information security controls

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19
Q

ISO 27001

A

The foundational standard for ISMS (Information Security Management Systems)

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20
Q

What is SOAR?

A

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response.

Designed to make security teams more effective by automating processes and integrating third-party security tools.

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21
Q

What is EAP-TTLS?

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol - Tunneled Transport Layer Security

Allows the use of multiple authentication protocols transported inside of a TLS tunnel.

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22
Q

What is PEAP?

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

Encapsulates EAP within a TLS tunnel, but doesn’t provide multiple authentication methods.

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23
Q

What is EAP-MSCHAPv2?

A

EAP - Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol v2

A common implementation of PEAP

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24
Q

What are two features commonly offered by a CASB?

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

-A list of applications in use
-Verification of encrypted data transfers

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25
Q

Example of Race Condition

A

A file system problem is usually fixed before a reboot, but a reboot is occuring before the fix can be applied. This has created a race condition that results in constant reboots

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26
Q

What does SED stand for?

A

Self Encrypting Drive

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27
Q

What does curl do?

A

The curl (Client URL) command will retrive a web page and display it as HTML (source-code) at the command line.

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28
Q

What is “scanless”?

A

It is a tool that allows you to perform a port scan via proxy.

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29
Q

What is “Nmap”?

A

A popular port scanning and reconnaissance utility.

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30
Q

What does “netstat” do?

A

It provides a list of network statistics, and the default view shows the traffic sessions b etween the local device and other devices on the network.

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31
Q

What does “dig” do?

A

Domain Information Groper

Queries DNS servers for the fully-qualified domain name and IP address information of other devices.

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32
Q

What does “netcat” do?

A

The netcat command is used for reading or writing data to the network. It doesn’t provide any statistical information about the network connection.

33
Q

What does a DNS Sinkhole do?

A

Used to redirect and identify devices that may attempt to commnuicate with an external command and control (C2) server. The DNS Sinkhole will resolve an internal IP address and can report on all devices that attempt to access the malicious domain.

34
Q

Which part of the PC startup process verifies the digital signature of the OS Kernel?

A

Trusted Boot

35
Q

What does “Measured Boot” do and when does it occur?

A

It occurs after Trusted Boot and verifies that nothing on the computer has been changed by malicious software or other processes.

36
Q

What does “Secure Boot” do and when does it occur?

A

It occurs Before Trusted Boot and checks the digital signature of the bootloader, not the OS Kernal!

37
Q

What is a “POST”?

A

Power-On Self-Test is a hardware check performed prior to booting an operating system.

38
Q

Preventative Control

A

Physically limits access to a device or area.

39
Q

Managerial Control

A

Sets a policy that is designed to control how people act

40
Q

Compensating Control

A

It doesn’t prevent an attack, but it does restore from an attack using other means.

Ex: An UPS does not stop a power outage, but it does provide alternative power if an outage occurs.

41
Q

Primary difference of Asymmetric Encryption

A

Assymmetric encryption uses different keys for encryption and decryption.

42
Q

What functionality does Blockchain provide?

A

The ledge functionality of a blockchain can be used to track or verify components, digital media, votes, and other physical or digital objects.

43
Q

Which is lost first, memory or temporary files?

A

Memory, it is temporary.

44
Q

A Linux administrator is downloading an updated version of her Linux distribution. The download site shows a link to the ISO and a SHA256 hash value. Which of these would describe the use of this hash value?

A

Verifies that the file was not corrupted during the file transfer because it matches what is on the website.

45
Q

What does “NGFW” stand for?

A

Next-Generation Firewall

46
Q

What is the BEST way to confirm the secure baseline of a deployed application instance?

A

Perform an integrity measurement. This is DESIGNED to check for the secure baseline of firewall settings, patch, levels, OS versions, and any other security components.

47
Q

Benefits of Kerberos

A

-Uses a ticket-based system to provide SSO (Single Sign-On)
-You ONLY NEED TO AUTHENTICATE ONCE with Kerberos to gain access to multiple resources.

48
Q

What is “TACACS+”?

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System

It is an authentication method.

Does not provide any single sign-on functionality.

49
Q

What is “LDAPS”?

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure

It is a standard for access a network directory. This can provide an authentication method

Does not provide any single sign-on functionality.

50
Q

What is “802.1X”?

A

A standard for PNAC (Port-based Network Access Control)

Does not provide any single sign-on functionality.

51
Q

Full-Tunnel VPN vs Split-Tunnel VPN

A

Full-Tunnel VPN: All traffic goes through the tunnel.

Split-Tunnel VPN: Only sends a portion of the traffic through the encrypted tunnel. It would allow work-related traffic to securely traverse the VPN, and all other traffic would use the non-VPN option.

52
Q

What cryptographic method is used to add trust to a digital certificate?

A

A digital signature

53
Q

What does X.509 do?

A

The X.509 standard defines the structure of a certificate. It makes it easy for everyone to view the contents of a certificate, but it doesn’t provide any additional trust.

54
Q

What does “RAID” stand for?

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks

55
Q

What does “SIEM” stand for?

A

Security Information and Event Manager.

56
Q

What is S/MIME? and whats gucci about it?

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

Provides a way to integrate public key encryption and digital signatures into most modern email clients. This would encrypt all email information from client to client, retgardless of the communications used between email servers.

57
Q

What is Secure IMAP? & what does it do?

A

Secure Internet Message Access Protocol

Encrypts communication downloaded from an email server, but DOES NOT provide security for outgoing email messages.

58
Q

What secure protocol would you use to:

accept customer purchases from your primary website?

A

HTTPS

59
Q

What secure protocol would you use to:

synchronize the time across all of your devices?

A

NTPSec

60
Q

What secure protocol would you use to:

Access our switch using a CLI terminal Screen?

A

SSH

61
Q

What secure protocol would you use to:

Talk with customers on scheduled conference calls?

A

SRTP

62
Q

What secure protocol would you use to:

Gather metrics from routers at remote sites?

A

SNMPv3

63
Q

TCP vs UDP

A

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol):
-Connection based and more reliable, but slow.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol):
-Connectionless and less reliable, but fast.

64
Q

FTP

A

File Transport Protocol

20, 21

65
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell

22

66
Q

Telnet

A

23

67
Q

SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

25

68
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name System

53

69
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

67, 68

70
Q

TFTP

A

Trivial File Transport Protocol

69

71
Q

HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

80

72
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure

443

73
Q

SSL VPN

A

Secure Socket Layer Virtual Private Network

443

74
Q

POP3

A

Post Office Protocol v3

110

75
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol

123

76
Q

IMAP4

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4

143

77
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

161

78
Q

IPsec

A

Internet Protocol Secure

500

79
Q

RDP

A

Remote Desktop Protocol

3389

SYS-601 (5 decks)

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