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Pre-Reg (Trainee) Pharmacy > MEP > Flashcards

MEP Flashcards

1
Q

How long should a CD requisition form be kept for?

A

2 years

From last date of entry

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2
Q

How long should a CD register be kept for?

A

2 years

From last date of entry

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3
Q

How long should private prescriptions be kept for?

A

2 years

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4
Q

How long should drug recall alerts be kept for?

A

5 years

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5
Q

How long should responsible pharmacist records be kept for?

A

5 years

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6
Q

How long should veterinary prescriptions be kept for?

A

5 years

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7
Q

How long should a CD register with destructions be kept for?

A

7 years

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8
Q

How long should patient medical records be kept for?

A

10 years

After patient death

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9
Q

How long should dispensing error records be kept for?

A

10 years

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10
Q

How long should dispensing error records leading to disability/ death be kept for?

A

20 years

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11
Q

How many total dispensings will be there be for a “Repeat x2” script?

A

3 total

Original + 2 repeats

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12
Q

What should be known about supervised consumption of methadone?

A

It is not a legal requirement, even if stated

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13
Q

What must a representative have, if collecting methadone on behalf of a user?

A

A letter from the methadone user

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14
Q

What should be known about naloxone in emergency situations?

A

Can be given without a prescription

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15
Q

What should be considered for forged prescriptions?

A

Professional judgement

Send to police or NHS counter fraud services

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16
Q

What should be known for faxed prescriptions?

A

Not legitimate - dispense at own discretion

Schedule 2/3 should NEVER be supplied

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17
Q

If prescribing on NHS forms, what should be considered for dental prescriptions?

A

Only prescribe from Dental Prescriber’s Formulary

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18
Q

(1) What must the Responsible Pharmacist have on display? (2) What information must this contain?

A

(1) Responsible Pharmacist sign

(2)
- Name of Responsible Pharmacist
- GPhC number
- “The Responsible Pharmacist is in charge of the pharmacy”
- Pharmacist needs to keep record of time they arrived and left
ø (inc. absences)

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19
Q

What is the longest period of time that the Responsible Pharmacist can be absent for?

A

2 hours

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20
Q

Is ordering/ receiving/ putting away stock from the wholesaler permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

Except CDs

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21
Q

Is ordering/ receiving/ putting away CD stock from the wholesaler permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

No

Non-CD only

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22
Q

Is date checking permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

Except CDs

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23
Q

Is stocking pharmacy shop floor permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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24
Q

Is cleaning permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Is accessing PMR permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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26
Q

Is responding to enquiries permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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27
Q

Is collecting prescriptions permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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28
Q

Is processing dispensed prescriptions permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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29
Q

Are medicine deliveries to patients permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

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30
Q

Is receiving patient returns permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

Yes

Except CDs

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31
Q

Is receiving patient CD returns permissible without the Responsible Pharmacist?

A

No

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32
Q

Which activities are permissible with the Responsible Pharmacist signed in and not supervising at all?

A

(1) Selling GSLs

(2) Taking medication returns (exc. CDs)

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33
Q

Which activities are permissible with the Responsible Pharmacist signed in and not physically supervising?

A

(1) Accuracy checking

(2) Making labels

(3) Picking medication

(4) Assembling items

(5) Labelling items

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34
Q

Which activities are permissible with the Responsible Pharmacist signed in and physically supervising?

A

(1) Clinical/ legal check

(2) Supplying P meds

(3) Handing out medication

(4) PGD services

(5) Medicine wholesale

(6) Emergency supply

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35
Q

What are the requirements for the revalidation process?

A

SIX submissions to be made each year

  • 4 CPDs (2 planned)
  • Peer discussion
  • Reflective account
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36
Q

What are the prescription requirements?

A
  • Prescriber signature/ address/ particulars
  • Prescription date (28 days CD2/3/4)
  • Patient name + address
  • Age of patient (if under 12yrs)
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37
Q

When is the age of a patient required on a prescription?

A

When they are under 12 years old

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38
Q

What are the labelling requirements for a prescription?

A
  • Patient name
  • Name + address of pharmacy
  • Dispensing date
  • Medication name/ directions/ precautions
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39
Q

What are the CD prescription rules?

A
  • CD2/ CD3 should be prescribed on separate scripts to other meds
  • Valid for 28 days (6 months for schedule 5)
  • Private scripts for CD2/ CD3 must be on a standardised FP10PCD
  • Vet CDs should be kept for 5 years
  • ID should be requested
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40
Q

Which CD(s) prescriptions are valid for 6 months?

A

CD5 only

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41
Q

What are the CD prescription requirements?

A
  • Prescriber signature + address (UK only)
  • Date
  • Medication name/ form/ strength/ dose/ quantity/ total quantity
  • Quantity (no more than 30 days supply, but NOT legal requirement)
  • Total quantity (words + figures)
  • Patient name + address
  • Instalment direction (refer if 3 days of methadone missed)
  • Dental prescriptions (“For dental treatment only”)
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42
Q

Is a maximum of 30 days supply of a CD a legal requirement?

A

No.

Not a legal requirement, just good practice.

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43
Q

What can be listed for address on a prescription if a patient is homeless?

A

NFA

No Fixed Abode

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44
Q

What specific requirement is only required for dental prescriptions?

A

“For dental treatment only”

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45
Q

What should be considered for destruction of CD returns/ expired stock?

A

CD2/ CD3/ CD4i must be denatured

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46
Q

When is an authorised witness required for unwanted/ expired stock?

A

CD2

Good practice for another member of staff to be present for CD3

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47
Q

Is an authorised witness required for patient returns of CDs?

A

No

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48
Q

Do CD returns need to be entered into the CD register?

A

No

Keep separate record for CD2

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49
Q

Who needs to approve an authorised witness?

A

An accountable officer

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50
Q

When are CD register records needed?

A

CD1 or CD2

Also needed for Sativex (CD4i)

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51
Q

In what order should records in the CD register be made?

A

Chronologically

52
Q

How soon after dispensing a CD1 or CD2 should a record in the CD register be made?

A

Enter by end of following day

53
Q

What must be adhered to if a pharmacist is to make alterations to a CD register?

A
  • Alterations must be made in margin/ footnotes
  • Pharmacist name
  • GPhC number
  • Signature
54
Q

What are the CD register requirements for receiving CD1 or CD2 stock?

A
  • Date of supply received
  • Name + address of supplier
  • Quantity
55
Q

What are the CD register requirements for supplying CD1 or CD2 stock?

A
  • Date of supply
  • Patient name + address
  • Prescriber name + license number
  • Quantity of medication
  • Details of person collecting + ID requested/ provided
56
Q

Which CDs are subject to safe custody?

A
  • CD1
  • CD2
  • CD3 (buprenorphine/ tempazepam ONLY)
  • CD4i (Sativex ONLY)
57
Q

Which CD3s are subject to safe custody?

A

(1) Buprenorphine AND temazepam

58
Q

How many medication groups, relating to drugs and driving, are there?

A

2

Group 1 and Group 2

59
Q

What are the group 1 drugs, relating to drugs and driving?

A
  • Cannabis
  • Cocaine
  • Heroin
  • Ketamine
  • LSD
  • MDMA (ecstasy)
  • Methylamphetamine
60
Q

What are the group 2 drugs, relating to drugs and driving?

A
  • Amphetamine
  • Methadone
  • Opioids (morphine/ codeine/ tramadol)
  • Benzodiazepines (COLD FT):
    ø Clonazepam
    ø Oxazepam
    ø Lorazepam
    ø Diazepam
    ø Flunitrazepam
    ø Temazepam
61
Q

Relating to drugs and driving, are group 1 medications considered to have low limits or higher limits?

A

Low limits for Group 1

62
Q

Relating to drugs and driving, are group 2 medications considered to have low limits or higher limits?

A

Higher limits for Group 2

63
Q

What type of script is needed for POM-V prescriptions?

A

Written

64
Q

Who prescribes on POM-V prescriptions?

A

Vet surgeons

65
Q

Who can supply POM-V prescriptions?

A

Vet surgeons or pharmacists

66
Q

What type of script is required for POM-VPS prescriptions?

A

Written script only needed if supplier is not the same as prescriber

67
Q

Can GSLs or P meds be sold for animals?

A

Illegal

Unless, prescribed under the cascade

68
Q

What are the veterinary prescription requirements?

A
  • Prescriber name/ address/ telephone number/ qualification/ signature
  • Name + address of owner
  • Animal name/ species/ address (if different to owner)
  • Drug name/ quantity/ dose/ administration directions
  • Necessary warnings/ withdrawal periods
  • “Prescribed under the cascade”, if necessary
69
Q

What additional requirements are there for CDs on a veterinary prescription?

A
  • “the item has been prescribed for an animal/ herd under the care of the veterinarian”
70
Q

What are the steps of the veterinary cascade?

A

(1) Vet med with a UK/ GB marketing authorisation (MA) for species and indication must be used if it exists + is clinically appropriate

(2) Vet med with NI MA for species + indication

(3) Vet med with UK/ GB/ NI MA for other species/ indication

(4) Human med with UK/ GB/ NI MA or vet med with MA outside of UK

(5) Extemporaneous/ specially prepared medicine

71
Q

What requirement is there for a human medicine to be prescribed for an animal?

A

“Prescribed under the veterinary cascade”

72
Q

What are the labelling requirements for a veterinary medicine?

A

Unless already appears on the box:
- Name of surgeon
- Name + address of owner
- Name + address of pharmacy
- ID + species of animal
- Date of supply
- Expiry date of medication
- Product name/ quantity/ dose/ storage instructions
- Withdrawal periods
- “For animal treatment only”
- “Keep out of reach of children”

73
Q

For how long must be veterinary prescription records be kept for?

A

5 years

74
Q

For which types of veterinary prescriptions are records required for?

A

Needed for POM-V and POM-VPS

75
Q

What details must be recorded for veterinary prescriptions?

A
  • Medication name + quantity
  • Date of supply/ receipt
  • Batch number
  • Name + address of supplier/ recipient
76
Q

For how long must a signed order for wholesale dealing be kept?

A

2 years

OR enter into the POM register

77
Q

Which records must be kept for wholesale dealing?

A

(1) Keep signed order for 2 years

OR

(2) Enter into POM register

78
Q

What details must be kept for wholesale dealing?

A
  • Entry date
  • Name/ quantity/ formulation/ strength
  • Name/ address/ profession of person supplied
79
Q

What requirement is there for wholesale dealing of CDs?

A

Must be requested on approved CD requisition form

80
Q

In wholesale dealing, for which CDs are CD requisition forms required for?

A

CD2 + CD3

81
Q

On which form must a CD requisition form, for wholesale dealing, be on?

A

FP10CDF

82
Q

What details are required on a CD requisition form?

A
  • Name/ address/ profession/ signature of recipient
  • Total quantity of drug
  • Purpose of requisition
83
Q

What are the requirements for EEA/ Switzerland prescriptions?

A
  • Patient prescriber/ medication details
  • Prescriber signature
  • 6 month validity
84
Q

Which CDs are valid on an EEA/ Switzerland script?

A

CD4 ONLY

85
Q

Which CDs are not valid on an EEA/ Switzerland script?

A

CD1/ CD2/ CD3

86
Q

Is phenobarbital valid on an EEA/ Switzerland script?

A

No

87
Q

Can products without a UK MA be prescribed on a EEA/ Switzerland script?

A

No

UK MA products only

88
Q

For emergency supply at the request of the prescriber, how soon after must a prescription be provided?

A

Maximum 72 hours after

89
Q

What should be written on the label of an item that has been supplied as part of an emergency supply?

A

“Emergency Supply”

90
Q

Which CDs cannot be supplied under emergency supply?

A

CD1/ CD2/ CD3

CD3 - Phenobarbital CAN be supplied for epilepsy

91
Q

When can phenobarbital be supplied under emergency supply?

A

For treatment of epilepsy

92
Q

What duration of phenobarbital can be supplied under emergency supply?

A

5 days

93
Q

What is the maximum duration of supply for CD4 and CD5 under emergency supply?

A

5 days

94
Q

What is the maximum duration of supply for non-CD POMs under emergency supply?

A

30 days maximum supply

95
Q

When can a supply larger than 30 days be supplied for non-CD POMs?

A

When pack cannot be split

e.g. insulin pens/ inhalers

96
Q

For emergency supply of non-CD POMs, what should be done when a pack size cannot be split?

A

Provide smallest pack size available

97
Q

What are some POM to P reclassifications?

A
  • Amorolfine
  • Anti-malarials
  • Chloramphenicol drops/ ointment
  • Emergency contraceptives
  • Fexofenadine
  • Mometasone nasal spray
  • Lidocaine (for teething)
  • Orlistat
  • PPIs
  • Sildenafil
  • Sumatriptan
  • Tamsulosin
  • Tranexamic acid (age 18-45)
98
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of pseudoephedrine?

A

720mg

99
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of ephedrine?

A

180mg

100
Q

What should be known about supply of ephedrine and pseudoephedrine?

A

One OR the other

CANNOT supply both in same transaction

101
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of paracetamol?

A

100 tablets (non-effervescent only)

102
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of aspirin?

A

100 tablets (non-effervescent only)

103
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of effervescent paracetamol?

A

No limit on effervescent supply

104
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of effervescent aspirin?

A

No limit on effervescent supply

105
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of codeine?

A

32 tablets

3 days supply

106
Q

What is the maximum legal supply of dihydrocodeine?

A

32 tablets

3 days supply

107
Q

What is the last date a medication can be used that has an expiry of 12/27?

A

31/12/2027

108
Q

What is the last date a medication can be used that has a ‘Use By’ of 12/27?

A

30/11/2027

109
Q

What is the last date a medication can be used that has a ‘Use Before’ of 12/27?

A

30/11/2027

110
Q

What are the levels of study designs?

A

(1) Meta-analysis
(2) Systemic reviews
(3) Randomised controlled trials
(4) Cohort studies
(5) Case control studies
(6) Case series/ case reports
(7) Editorials/ expert opinions

111
Q

What are the different classes of MHRA recalls?

A

Class 1: Life-threatening/ serious risk to health

Class 2: Harm to patient, but not serious (within 48hrs)

Class 3: Unlikely to cause harm to the patient (within 5 days)

Class 4: No threat to the patient (advise caution to the patient, no need to recall)

112
Q

What is an example of a Class 1 MHRA recall?

A

Contamination with NDMA which has genotoxic and carcinogenic potential

113
Q

What is an example of a Class 2 MHRA recall?

A

Identification of nitrosamine above the acceptable limit

114
Q

What is an example of a Class 3 MHRA recall?

A

Microfibres of the API present on the surface of the tablet

115
Q

What is an example of a Class 4 MHRA recall?

A

Outdated version of the PIL is still in the packaging?

116
Q

What is the Yellow Card Scheme?

A

(1) For any adverse event associated with a NEWER product

(2) Serious events associated with ANY drug

117
Q

What is a black triangle drug?

A

(1) For any adverse event associated with a NEWER product

(2) Serious events associated with ANY drug

118
Q

What is an example of a black triangle drug for a newer product?

A

Dupixent

Rash associated with Dupixent (dupilumab)

(If different, verify in BNF)

119
Q

What is the Yellow Card Scheme relevant to?

A
  • All medicines (vaccines/ herbal/ homeopathic)
  • Defective and counterfeit medicine
  • Medical devices
  • Nicotine-containing devices & refill containers
120
Q

What is the national stance on reporting errors?

A

“Just culture”

Allows us to learn from mistake and take accountability (between punitive/ no-blame)

121
Q

What is the main issue with punitive culture, with regards to error reporting?

A

Stifles learning

122
Q

What is the main issue with no-blame culture, with regards to error reporting?

A

Lack of accountability

123
Q

Where should errors be reported to?

A

National Reporting and Learning System (NRLS)

124
Q

(1) Should near misses be recorded? (2) Why?

A

(1) Yes

(2) Reviewing and training

125
Q

With regard to communication to the patient, what is very important when reporting errors?

A

Apologise to the patient

126
Q

What are the different stages of change?

A

(1) Pre-contemplation (not thinking about it)

(2) Contemplation (thinking about it)

(3) Preparation (getting ready)

(4) Action

(5) Maintenance

(6) Relapse

Pre-Reg (Trainee) Pharmacy (31 decks)

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