Mental Health Flashcards

1
Q
The following is included in the test for cognition:
	A. Mood 	
	B. Hallucinations 	
	C. Delusions 	
	D. Memory
A

D. Memory

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2
Q

An illusion is:
A. A sense perception in the absence of a stimulus
B. A false sense perception of a real stimulus
C. A false belief held in the absence of proof
D. A false perception in the auditory modality

A

B. A false sense perception of a real stimulus

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3
Q

The following statement is true about delusion:
A. It is always accompanied by hallucination
B. It is classified as bizarre if it cannot be probable in the realm of possibility
C. It is something that can never happen in the realm of possibility
D. It means to hold an odd belief

A

B. It is classified as bizarre if it cannot be probable in the realm of possibility

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4
Q

Life stresses play a role in psychiatric illness because they:
A. Must always be severe to lead to an acute illness
B. Can be a trigger for a breakdown leading to a need for hospitalisation
C. Cause the underlying illness
D. Must always be present with every illness

A

B. Can be a trigger for a breakdown leading to a need for hospitalisation

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5
Q

The following statement is true for DSM IV – R:
A. It uses 4 axes to record diagnosis
B. It divides mental illness into 16 categories
C. It is a system that categorises both mental and physical illnesses
D. It is available in all the languages of the world

A

B. It divides mental illness into 16 categories

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6
Q

The following statement is true for hallucination:
A. It can only occur in the visual or auditory modality
B. It is always present in depression
C. It can occur in any sensory modality
D. It can be classified as bizarre or non-bizarre

A

C. It can occur in any sensory modality

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7
Q
I.Q. testing can demonstrate if someone has ........
	A. Mental retardation 	
	B. a disorder of affect 	
	C. Long and short term memory 	
	D. Concrete thinking
A

A. Mental retardation

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8
Q

Attention and concentration is tested by ………
A. giving a patient 3 objects to remember and testing recall
B. Asking a patient to explain a proverb
C. Asking a patient to link similarities
D. Doing the ‘Serial seven’s and serial three’s’ test

A

D. Doing the ‘Serial seven’s and serial three’s’ test

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9
Q
People with cognitive deficit display possible ……
	A. Disturbances in affect 	
	B. Symptoms of de-realisation 	
	C. Deficits in short term memory 	
	D. Complex delusions
A

C. Deficits in short term memory

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10
Q
In suspected dementia this test is essential ………
	A. Serial seven's and serial three's 	
	B. Test for abstract thinking 	
	C. I Q testing 	
	D. Test for long and short term memory
A

D. Test for long and short term memory

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11
Q

Match the listed examples with the DSM IV – R diagnostic axes below:

Axis I
	A. Physical illness 	
	B. Psychiatric diagnosis 	
	C. Personality disorder 	
	D. Global assessment of functioning
A

B. Psychiatric diagnosis

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12
Q

Match the listed examples with the DSM IV – R diagnostic axes below:

Axis II 
	A. Physical illness 	
	B. Psychiatric diagnosis 	
	C. Personality disorder 	
	D. Global assessment of functioning
A

C. Personality disorder

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13
Q

Match the listed examples with the DSM IV – R diagnostic axes below:

Axis III
	A. Physical illness 	
	B. Psychiatric diagnosis 	
	C. Personality disorder 	
	D. Global assessment of functioning
A

A. Physical illness

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14
Q
Axis V
	A. Physical illness 	
	B. Psychiatric diagnosis 	
	C. Personality disorder 	
	D. Global assessment of functioning
A

D. Global assessment of functioning

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15
Q

Mental retardation is
A. Defined by having an IQ less than 70
B. Always accompanied by autism
C. Defined as being of moderate intensity if the IQ is less than 30
D. Defined by having an IQ less than 90

A

A. Defined by having an IQ less than 70

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16
Q

Sexual Identity is defined as
A. A person’s biological sex
B. A person’s erotic response in real life or in their fantasies
C. A subjective feeling of being a man or a woman
D. A social display of their gender identity

A

A. A person’s biological sex

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17
Q

A phobia can be
A. Treated with in depth psychoanalysis
B. Treated with antipsychotic medication
C. Treated with the therapy of flooding and electroconvulsive therapy
D. Treated with the therapy of flooding or systematic desensitization

A

D. Treated with the therapy of flooding or systematic desensitization

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18
Q

A 78 year old lady complains that for some time she has had to rush to the toilet when she feels the urge to urinate as she wets herself if she delays. In the past week it has been much worse and she has had several episodes of wetting herself before she gets to the toilet.

The most likely reversible cause of urinary incontinence for which you should investigate this patient is;
	A. spinal chord lesion 	
	B. autonomic neuropathy 	
	C. urinary tract infection 	
	D. uterine prolapse
A

D. uterine prolapse

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19
Q

A 70 year old diabetic man complains that for the past year he has had a poor urinary stream and must press to pass urine and more recently he dribbles small amounts of urine all the time.

The most likely kind of urinary incontinence in this case is:
	A. stress incontinence 	
	B. overflow incontinence 	
	C. urge incontinence 	
	D. functional incontinence
A

B. overflow incontinence

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20
Q
Which of the following does an ADL (activity of daily living) scale such as the Barthel test:
	A. the ability to cook food 	
	B. the ability to work with money 	
	C. both B and C correct 	
	D. the ability to walk and transfer
A

D. the ability to walk and transfer

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21
Q

IADL’s (instrumental activities of daily living) scales such as the Frenchay are most useful in assessing a patient’s;
A. Ability to take care of their basic grooming needs
B. ability to walk and climb stairs
C. ability to live independently in the community
D. need for full time frail care

A

C. ability to live independently in the community

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22
Q

In a patient who is having recurrent falls which you think are due to a peripheral neuropathy the best functional assessment of this problem is
A. The reach test ( patient stands with feet together and distance they can reach with arm outstretched is measured)
B. The sternal nudge (push on sternum while patient stands with feet together)
C. The Rhomberg’s test (stand with feet together and eyes closed)
D. A thorough neurological examination

A

D. A thorough neurological examination

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23
Q

You see an 80 year old woman who has fallen once and is now terrified of falling again. You assess her fully and find no cause for the fall.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate management of her fear of falling:
A. prescribe a mild benzodiazepine for anxiety
B. reassure her that there is nothing wrong with her
C. suggest that she uses a walking stick
D. refer her for physiotherapy for balance exercises

A

C. suggest that she uses a walking stick

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24
Q

An 85 year old woman with moderate Alzheimer’s disease, on no medications, who was still able to bath and dress herself and walk to church nearby on her own deteriorates over 2 weeks to the point that she is disorientated in her own house, confused, restless at night, drowsy during the day, having falls and episodes of incontinence.

Which of the following would be the most likely cause for her deterioration?
A. rapidly progressive form of Alzheimer’s disease
B. delirium due to an underlying infection
C. delirium on its own
D. the multiple falls

A

A. rapidly progressive form of Alzheimer’s disease

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25
Q

Which of the following cognitive problems would be most likely to fulfil the DSM IV criteria for dementia?
A. poor executive function
B. Progressive impairment of language and memory
C. memory impairment alone with preserved function
D. stable memory impairment and apraxia

A

B. Progressive impairment of language and memory

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26
Q

Which of the following best describes a delirium?
A. slow onset of disorientation for time and place
B. agitation and restlessness plus cognitive impairment
C. sudden onset of poor concentration, disorientation and perceptual disturbances
D. sudden onset of memory impairment

A

C. sudden onset of poor concentration, disorientation and perceptual disturbances

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27
Q
Which of the following patient characteristics would make the MMSE (Minimental-state-examination) score unreliable or difficult to interpret in terms of dementia?
	A. mild Alzheimer’s disease 	
	B. severe Alzheimer’s disease 	
	C. previous severe stroke 	
	D. no formal schooling
A

D. no formal schooling

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28
Q

A patient in an acute psychiatric ward complains that there are voices talking to him/her. — Choose match

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Hallucination

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29
Q

A patient was brought in for an assessment as she was causing a disruption in a supermarket. On evaluation you find that she expresses her feelings without restraint and overestimate her own importance. — Choose

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Expansive mood

Individuals with an expansive mood may behave brashly or lavishly, assume a superior or grandiose attitude, or dress and act flamboyantly. They exhibit larger-than-life behaviors that can often be accompanied by (or result in) extreme bursts of irritability.

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30
Q

An elderly patient cannot tell you the date , time of the day, or month of the year. — Choose

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Disorientation

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31
Q

A patient tells you that aliens have implanted a sensor in his head and are tracking all his movements. — Choose m

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Delusion

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32
Q

A patient in an acute psychiatric ward tells you that he is seeing pink insects flying around in his room. — Choose

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Hallucination

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33
Q

A male patient believes he is pregnant. — Choose

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Delusion

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34
Q

A patient cannot tell you in which country he lives — Choose

Hyperacousis 
Hallucination 
Expansive mood
Dissociation
Disorientation
Delusion
Dereailization
A

Disorientation

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35
Q

The patient is restless and paces up and down — Choose match

hallucination appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

psychomotor agitation

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36
Q

The patient wants to end her own life. — Choose

hallucination 
appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

suicidal

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37
Q
The patient is unkempt and dirty. —  Choose 
hallucination 
appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

appearance

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38
Q
The patient feels sad /depressed most of the time. —  Choose 
hallucination 
appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

mood

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39
Q
The patient’s memory is impaired. —  Choose hallucination
appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

cognitive impairment

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40
Q

The patient is elated and feeling very happy. — Choose

hallucination appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

mood

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41
Q

The patient is hearing voices — Choose

hallucination 
appearance 
pressure of speech 
psychomotor agitation
cognitive impairment
mood
suicidal
sublimation
A

hallucination

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42
Q

A 75 year old woman is brought to see you by her daughter who complains that the patient has been becoming very forgetful over the past year. She also confuses the days, gets lost in shopping malls and can no longer do her own shopping or cook for herself. There is no past history of any medical condition. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. delirium
b. Alzheimer’s dementia.
c. An underling medical illness
d. A frontal lobe tumour

A

b. Alzheimer’s dementia.

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43
Q

An 80 year old man has a history of long standing confusion and memory problems. He does not speak English and has no formal education. You suspect that he has a dementia. What is the most reliable way of making the diagnosis?

a. The Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE)
b. An MRI scan of his brain
c. A thorough neurological examination
d. A careful history documenting functional decline.

A

d. A careful history documenting functional decline.

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44
Q

When caring for patients with dementia which aspect of follow-up is the most important?

a. Regularly checking the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE).
b. Finding out if the care giver is coping and receiving adequate support.
c. Performing a neurological examination regularly.
d. Checking the thyroid function regularly.

A

a. Regularly checking the Mini Mental State

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45
Q

A 68 year old woman is admitted to hospital for severe pneumonia. She has a history of moderate dementia, hypertension and diabetes. On admission she is agitated, trying to climb out of bed, disorientated, hallucinating and will not co-operate with the nurses. The most likely reason for her mental state is;

a. A new intracerebral medical problem.
b. The dementia itself.
c. A superimposed delirium due to the pneumonia.
d. Pneumonia complicated by a psychotic illness

A

c. A superimposed delirium due to the pneumonia.

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46
Q

A 90 old woman is brought in from the old age home. The nurse informs you that she recently had a urinary tract infection after which she was restless and wandering around confused at night. She was then put on a benzodiazepine to sleep. She has normal vital signs, no focal signs on CNS examination and no obvious injury but is drowsy and uncooperative. The most likely cause for her mental state is;

a. A rapidly progressive dementia aggravated by benzodiazepine use.
b. A delirium due to the infection and benzodiazepine use.
c. A subdural haematoma.
d. A stroke.

A

b. A delirium due to the infection and benzodiazepine use.

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47
Q

Doing formal cognitive testing in a patient with delirium is difficult and not informative. Which of the following is a diagnostic feature of delirium and makes cognitive testing (e.g. A MMSE) difficult.

a. Disordered language.
b. Poor short term memory.
c. Hallucinations
d. A deficit in attention (distractible/ poor concentration)

A

d. A deficit in attention (distractible/ poor concentration)

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48
Q

A well 78 year old woman lives on her own and has no social support. You are asked to assess her to see if she is fit enough to remain on her own and what social services she needs in order to do so. In order to do this which of the following would be the most useful?

a. Scoring her activities of daily living (ADL’s) e.g. Barthel Index
b. A detailed medical history and examination.
c. Scoring her instrumental activities of daily living (IADL’s) e.g. Frenchay Index.
d. Doing a fitness test such as a distance walked in 5 minutes.

A

c. Scoring her instrumental activities of daily living (IADL’s) e.g. Frenchay Index.

49
Q

You are managing a 68 year old man who has had a severe stroke. In order to document his level of disability and anticipate the amount of care he will need to see to his basic needs which of the following would you do?

a. A full neurological examination.
b. A full cardiovascular and neurological examination.
c. Use an Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL) scale to score his function e.g. Frenchay Index.
d. Use an Activity of Daily Living (ADL) scale to score his function e.g. Barthel Index.

A

d. Use an Activity of Daily Living (ADL) scale to score his function e.g. Barthel Index.

50
Q

When trying to determine whether a frail elderly patient with multiple medical problems, and using multiple medications, is stable or whether there is a deterioration in one of her medical conditions or a new problem the most effective and efficient way to go about it is to;

a. Ask for a chest x-ray, electrolytes, liver functions and a full blood count.
b. Do a full systematic inquiry of each system.
c. Do a full examination.
d. Ask if there has been a decline in her function with regard to her Instrumental Activities of Daily living (IADL’s) and Activities of Daily living (ADL’s).

A

d. Ask if there has been a decline in her function with regard to her Instrumental Activities of Daily living (IADL’s) and Activities of Daily living (ADL’s).

51
Q

A 78 year old woman is brought to see you after a fall. She tells you that she used to be steady on her feet but has now had 5 falls in the last month. You examine her and do not find any significant injuries. The most important thing you must now do is to;

a. An x-ray of her hips.
b. Treat her for osteoporosis.
c. Do a full assessment looking for the underlying cause of the falls.
d. Give her a walking stick.

A

c. Do a full assessment looking for the underlying cause of the falls.

52
Q

A 70 year old man has had 2 falls. You find no cause for his falls. In order to assess his risk of falling again and therefore the need for intervention which of the following would be most useful and informative.

a. A neurological examination.
b. A CT scan of his head.
c. Sending an occupational therapist to his house to look for hazards in the house.
d. A get-up-and-go test.

A

d. A get-up-and-go test.

53
Q

The reason that there is a decline in independence after most falls in the elderly is that;

a. The patients are frail.
b. There is back pain due to osteoporosis.
c. Even a minor fall causes a fear of falling and voluntary curtailment of activities.
d. There are injuries due to the fall.

A

c. Even a minor fall causes a fear of falling and voluntary curtailment of activities.

54
Q

A 68 year old woman who has had 5 normal vaginal deliveries complains that she dribbles urine every time she coughs or sneezes. The most likely diagnosis is;

a. Detrusor muscle instability and urge incontinence
b. Functional incontinence.
c. Stress incontinence.
d. A urinary tract infection.
e. Overflow incontinence

A

c. Stress incontinence.

55
Q

An 83 year old woman has, for a long time, had the problem that she has to rush to the toilet if she feels the urge to urinate other wise she wets herself before getting to the toilet. For the past week she has had the urge to urinate frequently, burning when she passes urine and is wetting herself before she gets to the toilet most of the time. Your assessment of the problem is most likely:

a. Stress incontinence with a urinary tract infection.
b. Overflow incontinence
c. Longstanding urge incontinence with a urinary tract infection .
d. Irritable bladder due to detrusor muscle instability

A

c. Longstanding urge incontinence with a urinary tract infection .

56
Q

A 90 year old woman is severely demented and has been bed bound for some time. She is continent for faeces but had severe constipation. Her carer complains that for the last week she has been having frequent watery stools and that she is now incontinent of faeces. The most likely cause of the new incontinence is:

a. Faecal impaction with overflow incontinence
b. A neurological problem affecting the anal sphincter
c. An underlying medical problem which needs investigation
d. Infective diarrhoea.

A

a. Faecal impaction with overflow incontinence

57
Q

Drugs with no abuse or addictive potential

A

Antipsychotic, Mood Stabilising and Antidepressant drugs have no abuse or addictive potential

58
Q

Drugs having abuse or addictive potential

A

Sedative/Hypnotic drugs do have abuse and addictive potential

59
Q

Antipsychotic drugs - mechanism

A

These drugs as a group block Dopamine receptors in the brain

The Typicals block Dopamine and the Atypicals block Dopamine and Seratonin

60
Q

Typical antipsychotics (examples)

A

Chlorpromazine, Haloperidol and Trifluoperazine

61
Q

Typical antipsychotics (side effects)

A

Dopamine is also needed for fluid movement of the body and as these drugs block dopamine it has unpleasant movement related side-effects

62
Q

Atypicals (examples)

A

Risperidone, Clozapine and Olanzepine

63
Q

Atypicals (side effects)

A

They have less movement side-effects but very concerning metabolic side-effects which can cause weight gain and its attendant problems

64
Q

Clozapine - side effect

A

Clozapine has the potentially life-threatening side-effect of agranulocytosis, and thus those patients taking Clozapine require the regular monitoring of their white blood cell counts.

Agranulocytosis is a life-threatening blood disorder. It happens when the body doesn’t make enough of a type of white blood cells called neutrophils.

65
Q

Categories of mood stabilisers

A

Lithium and Anticonvulsant medications

66
Q

Lithium side effects

A

Lithium has many side-effects like tremors, polyuria, acne, hypothyroidism and many more

It is also potentially lethal if the blood levels are above the normal therapeutic index

67
Q

Anticonvulsants - potential harms

A

All the mood stabilisers have the potential of causing birth defects as they are teratogenic and must be used with caution in women of child-bearing age

68
Q

Anticonvulsant drugs

A

Anticonvulsant drugs which are used to treat epilepsy, are also used to treat mood disorders

They work on neurotransmitters in the brain to effectively either increase inhibitory neurotransmission or decrease excitatory neuro-transmission

69
Q

Anticonvulsant drugs (examples)

A

Carbamazepine, Sodium Valproate and Lamotrigine

70
Q

Anticonvulsant drugs (side effects)

A

Their side-effects include sedation, pancreatitis, ataxia and skin reactions

71
Q

Antidepressants - mechanism

A

They work by preventing the reuptake of monoamine neurotransmitters like noradrenaline and serotonin from the synapse

72
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants - examples

A

Amitryptiline, Imipramine and Clomipramine

73
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants - side effects

A

Their side-effects include weight gain and sedation and they are cardiotoxic and potentially lethal if taken in overdose

74
Q

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors

A

Inhibits the enzyme irreversibly

Strict diet - metabolites tyramine
Tyramine is a potent vasopressor and a hypertensive crisis could develop with the risk of a stroke if it accumulates in the blood

75
Q

SSRI

A

These drugs were developed to counter the cardiac side-effects of the tricyclic antidepressants

They prevent the reuptake of serotonin from the synapse

76
Q

SSRI Examples

A

Fluoxetine(Prozac), Paroxetine, Citalopram and Sertraline

77
Q

SSRI Side Effects

A

They are not lethal in overdose, but have their own side-effects like tremors, sleep disturbances and sexual difficulties

78
Q

SNRI

A

These drugs prevent the reuptake of both Serotonin and Noradrenalin from the synapse

The drug Venlafaxine is an example from this group

79
Q

Sedatives and Hypnotics

A

Addictive potential

In the past drugs like Barbiturates were used but now we largely use Benzodiazepines

80
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

They have their own receptor in the brain and affect gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) transmission

These are drugs like Diazepam(Valium), Clonazepam and Lorazepam

They cause sedation and decrease anxiety

They are also used in anesthesia and to treat epilepsy

81
Q

Non-Benzodiazepine sedative drugs

A

These drugs are called the Zdrugs
They also work on the benzodiazepine receptor in the brain
These are drugs like Zolpidem (Ambien) and Zopiclone

It is important to understand that all the hypnotic drugs have the potential to block memory consolidation and thus can have amnestic effects

82
Q

Urge Incontinence

A

Uninhibited detrusor muscle contractions +/- irritation of bladder

Strong urge to void with urination before reaching toilet

83
Q

Stress Incontinence

A

Weakness of pelvic floor muscles (external sphincter)

Leakage of urine with increased intra-abdominal pressure (cough, strain, laugh, exercise)

84
Q

Overflow Incontinence

A

LMN/autonomic neuropathy OR physical obstruction of bladder outlet

Large bladder, incomplete emptying, dribbling, straining to urinate

85
Q

Functional Incontinece

A

Physical, cognitive or psychiatric disability that prevents the person from getting to the toilet and undressed before bladder capacity is exceeded and urination occurs despite anatomically normal bladder and nervous innervation

86
Q

Impairments

A

The abnormalities of body structure, organ or system function from any cause.

87
Q

Disabilities

A

The consequences of impairments in terms of functional performance and activities by the individual; disabilities represent disturbances at the level of the individual

88
Q

Handicaps

A

The disadvantages experienced by the individual as a result of impairments and disabilities; handicaps reflect the interaction with and adaptation to the environment or the individual’s surroundings.

89
Q

ADLs

A
Basic self-care activities and include;
• Transferring from bed to chair to toilet/commode
• Walking on the flat
• Walking up or down stairs
• Continence
• Feeding oneself
• Grooming
• Bathing
• Dressing
90
Q

ADLs measured by what index?

A

Barthel Index

91
Q

IADLs

A
These are activities that are necessary to survive independently in the community such as;
• Managing finances and banking
• Transportation
• Shopping
• Cooking
• Housekeeping
• Gardening
• Maintaining social contact
• Pursuing hobbies or activities
92
Q

IADLs measured by what index?

A

Lawton Scale

93
Q

Agnosia

A

This is the inability to recognize objects despite adequate and intact vision (brain has forgotten what it is).

94
Q

Apraxia

A

This is the inability to perform a learned motor action despite intact motor function (such as tying a shoelace, using a tooth brush or doing up buttons).

95
Q

Weaknesses of MMSE

A

Does not test executive function

Seven years of formal education required

96
Q

Frailty

A

Frailty is a term used to describe older persons at increased risk of morbidity, dependence and mortality.

97
Q

Four major factors leading to frailty

A

Sarcopenia
Cognitive Impairment
Malnutrition
Atherosclerosis

98
Q

Frailty is due to reduced capacity in

A

i. Musculoskeletal function
ii. Aerobic capacity
iii. Cognitive and intergrative (balance and postural reflexes) neurological function
iv. Malnutrition

99
Q

Frailty and falls - mechanism

A

Frail elderly people develop a typical wide based, shuffling gait where they are bent forward so have to lift the chin up. This leads to an abnormal centre of gravity and an increased risk of stumbling due to catching the forefoot on obstacles.

100
Q

Delirum - DSMV definition

A

i. Disturbance of cosciousness
ii. Change in cognition
iii. Develops over a short period and fluctuates
iv. The disturbance is a caused by the direct physical consequence of a general medical condition

101
Q

Spheres of cognitive function

A

Language
Memory
Apraxia
Executive Function

102
Q

Causes of dementia

A

Alzheimers
Vascular
Infective - HIV, syphilis
Metabolics - hypothyroidism, B12 deficiency
Structural - frontal lobe tumour, normal pressure hydrocephalus
Lewy body dementia
Parkinsons with dementia

103
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus presents with a triad of:

A

Confusion
Abnormal gait
Urinary incontinece

104
Q

Lewy body dementia

A

Lewy body dementia has rapidly progressive cognitive decline with prominent executive and visuospatial deficits. It is recognized by rapid cognitive fluctuations like delirium and vivid visual hallucinations.

Neuroleptic antipsychotic drugs are contraindicated.

105
Q

Fronto-temporal dementia

A

Fronto-temporal dementia leads to a lack of insight/judgement and disinhibition so they usually present with unacceptable social behaviours. They also have repetitive behaviours.

106
Q

Treatment of depression

A

SSRI’s (serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are the agents of choice. Tricyclic antidepressants are contraindicated as they cause delirium and more rapid cognitive decline due to their anticholinergic effects.

107
Q

Treatment for dementia

A

Cholinesterase Inhibitors - halts progression

Memantine - no clinical proof

108
Q

Nicotine

A

It acts directly on nicotinic cholinergic receptors

109
Q

Caffeine

A

It is a stimulant which binds to adenosine receptors in the brain

It also prevents dopamine from being reabsorbed and thus induces that ‘feel good’ feeling

110
Q

Cannabis

A

It has both sedative and stimulant properties

Its active metabolite is tetra hydroxy cannabinol (THC) and may act at endogenous THC receptors in the brain

111
Q

Stimulants

A

Its major effect is to induce a feeling of euphoria

Examples of these drugs are Cocaine and Amphetamines

They both increase the central action of dopamine and both increase the central and peripheral action of noradrenaline

112
Q

Alcohol

A

It initially causes disinhibition but is ultimately a central nervous system depressant

It is postulated that alcohol acts at a few different receptors which include opiod, GABA and glutamate receptors

113
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Mediate their central action via dopamine and noradrenaline

Examples of these drugs are LSD, Psilocybin, MMDA ’Ecstacy’ and Magic Mushrooms

114
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

It has its own receptor in the brain, and it is abused for it’s potential to cause feelings of calm

115
Q

Sedative Hypnotics

A

Examples of these drugs are barbiturates (phenobarbital, secobarbital, amobarbital) and other substances such as chloral hydrate and meprobamate

In the South African context, Methaqualone (Mandrax) is abused

116
Q

Opiates

A

These include natural substances like opium and morphine, semisynthetic drugs like heroin and hydromorphone and totally synthetic drugs like methadone

They act at specific opioid receptors in the brain and the body, as do the endogenous opioids (endorphins, enkephalins and dynorphins)

They induce intense feelings of euphoria

117
Q

Hydrocarbons

A

These are inhaled and found in solvents(petrol), Toluene (paint and plastics), glue and other things like hairspray etc.

They produce a ‘giddy’ delirium

118
Q

GHB (Gamma hydroxybutyrate)

A

It is a neurotransmitter that affects a variety of systems including sleep, memory and temperature regulation

It causes euphoria, disinhibition and increased libido

119
Q

Phencyclidine (PCP) and Ketamine

A

These drugs were originally used in anesthesia and veterinary medicine

Ketamine is a derivative of phencyclidine and is a dissociative anesthetic which is sometimes abused by heath professionals with easy access

Phencyclidine can cause hallucinations and psychotic reactions

Phencyclidine is thought to work at glutamate receptors