Memory Items cockpit/flows Flashcards

1
Q
  1. OXYGEN panel

What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean?

A

The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. OXYGEN panel

Does this mean that the masks have all deployed?

A

No - some masks may have to be deployed manually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. OXYGEN panel

What causes automatic deployment of the masks?

A

Cabin Altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. OXYGEN panel

How does the passenger oxygen system work?

A

Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. OXYGEN panel

What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PB?

A

Valve opens to supply low pressure crew oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. RCDR Panel

Why is the GND CTL PB selected to ON during preflight?

A

To record preflight activities in the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. RCDR Panel

If the PB was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?

A

 ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft

 At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. RCDR Panel

What allows the cabin PA’s to be recorded?

A

ACP 3 PA Volume knob out and in 12 o’clock position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN
light?

A

AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

When would it normally illuminate?

A

During the 8-second RAT deployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

How can the RAT be deployed?

A

Manually by pushing MAN ON or RAT MAN ON, or Automatically by the loss of both AC
BUS 1 and AC BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What does the RAT supply?

A

Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?

A

 AC ESS and AC ESS Shed

 DC ESS and DC ESS shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What is the difference between the Automatic RAT deployment and RAT deployed by
pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?

A

RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel
and it became necessary to also extract electrical power, how it be accomplished?

A

By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. EMER ELEC PWR Panel

ECAM procedure directs the GEN 1 LINE PB to OFF. What is accomplished?

A

 Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)

 AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor

 Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

A

Fly-By-Wire System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

How are they controlled and activated?

A

Electrically and Hydraulically, respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Green double markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

 AMBER “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”

 Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A

 RED “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”

 Amber X’s (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

When operating in NORMAL LAW in FLIGHT mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

A

 Pitch – G load

 Bank – Roll Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

A

The other pilot has gained side stick authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

Name the Flight Control Computers

A

 ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)

 SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)

 FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What are the some of the ELAC functions? QRM should be referenced.

A

 Normal elevator

 Normal aileron

 Normal pitch and roll

 Alternate pitch

 Direct pitch and roll

 Abnormal alt

 Aileron droop

 Autopilot orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What are some of the SEC functions? QRM should be referenced.

A

 Normal roll

 Speed brakes

 Alternate pitch

 Direct pitch

 Direct roll

 Abnormal altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What does the SEC 3 control?

A

Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What are some of the FAC functions?

A

 Rudder Trim

 Rudder travel limit

 Yaw control

 Flight Envelope Protection - vertical

 Windshear Protection

 Low Energy Warning Protection

 Alpha Floor Protection

 PFD speed scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

Explain the spoiler extension logic on landing

A

For full extension:

 Less than six feet RA + both struts compressed OR

 More than 72 KT wheel speed on both wheels

 Thrust at idle – above ten feet RA = TLA < 4 / below ten feet RA = TLA < 15

 If NOT armed, they will extend when at least one engine TLA = REVERSE For partial extension (ten degrees):

 One engine at reverse with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. FLIGHT CONTROLS

Explain the spoiler extension logic on a rejected takeoff

A

 If the spoilers are armed, and speed exceeds 72 KT, they extend fully when both TLA = IDLE

 If the spoilers are not armed, and speed exceeds 72 KT, they extend fully when one TLA = REVERSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. ADIRS

What is the ADIRS?

A

Air Data and Inertial Reference System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. ADIRS

What are some of the parameters the Air Data Reference System provides?

A

Barometric altitude, Airspeed, Overspeed Warnings, Temperature, AOA, MACH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. ADIRS

What are some of the parameters the IR provides?

A

Attitude, FPV, Track, Heading, Acceleration, Angular Rates, GS and Aircraft Position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. ADIRS

If #1 IR fault light illuminated steady, what are some of the important ECAM procedures that you would expect to see?

A

 IR 1…OFF

 ATT/HDG to Capt 3 on EIS switching panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. ADIRS

If the AIR DATA portion of #1 ADIRU failed, what are some of the important ECAM procedures that you would expect to see?

A

 #1 ADR pb…OFF

 Air Data to Capt 3 on EIS switching panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. ADIRS

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

A

 Switch OFF to NAV

 ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes

 White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. ADIRS

What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?

A

It tests the ADIRS ability to revert to battery power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. ADIRS

What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?

A

 An external horn sounds

 An ADIR and the blue AVNCS light illuminates on the External Power Panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. ADIRS

What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

A

IR has failed and cannot be recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. ADIRS

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?

A

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. ADIRS

What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

A

 PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment - within 3 minutes of fast-alignment

 Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position - 1 degree

 Aircraft movement during alignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. ADIRS

Can the ADR be turned OFF without losing the IR functions?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. ADIRS

Can the IR be turned OFF without losing the ADR functions?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Overhead CB Panel

What is the significance of black and green CB’s?

A

 Green monitored by ECAM

 Black not monitored by ECAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Overhead CB Panel

When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

A

Enables Captain or FO to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. APU panel

What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

A

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. APU panel

What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illumination?

A

APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95% (in practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. APU panel

What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

APU fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. CABIN PRESS panel

What does selecting the MODE SEL from AUTO to MAN to AUTO accomplish?

A

Switches the active controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. CABIN PRESS panel

How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?

A

 Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)

 Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button

 Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. CABIN PRESS panel

What does selecting the DITCHING push button to ON accomplish?

A

 Closes the outflow valve

 Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet

 Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves

 Closes pack flow control valves

 (closes all valves below the waterline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. ANTI-ICE panel

What is accomplished if the Wing Anti Ice push button is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?

A

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. ANTI-ICE panel

What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A

 Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

 Low pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. ANTI-ICE panel

What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A

Valve disagreement. (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. ANTI-ICE panel

Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT Logic.

A

Probes and Window Heat come on automatically (Probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the Pack Flow Rate?

A

HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

A

All trim air valves close and pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value – PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?

A

 low air pressure

 compressor outlet overheat

 pack outlet overheat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

What are SOME potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light

A

 Bleed overpressure

 Bleed overheat

 Wing or engine leak on the related side

 Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start

 Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED on

64
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

XBLEED Valve

A

 SHUT = the valve is closed.

 AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open – closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).

 OPEN = the valve is open.

65
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?

A

APU bleed leak.

66
Q
  1. AIR COND panel

What does selecting the RAM AIR push button accomplish?

A

Ram Air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.

67
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.6

68
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What would you do if BAT voltage is below 25.6?

A

With external power, select BAT pb’s to AUTO

69
Q
  1. ELEC panel

Explain how to conduct the BAT check.

A

 Select ELEC on ECAM

 BAT 1 & 2 OFF then on

 Check BAT charge current is <60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds

 *What if it fails the test? Call MX

70
Q
  1. ELEC panel

Is this an AC airplane or DC airplane?

A

AC

71
Q
  1. ELEC panel

If all AC is lost, what happens?

A

DC power from the batteries is converted into AC

72
Q
  1. ELEC panel

The engine GEN FAULT light is illuminated before engine start. Is this normal?

A

Yes

73
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What is an IDG?

A

Integrated Drive Generator.

74
Q
  1. ELEC panel

How do you explain how an IDG works?

A

Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.

75
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What is one precaution when disconnecting the IDG?

A

Don’t hold for longer than 3 seconds or you will damage the solenoid.

76
Q
  1. ELEC panel

Can the IDG be reconnected?

A

No. MX function

77
Q
  1. ELEC panel

Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO?

A

 Allows single source of power to run entire elec system

 Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system

 Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously

78
Q
  1. ELEC panel

 If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?

A

AC BUS 2 powers the system through the bus tie.

79
Q
  1. ELEC panel

How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

A

From AC Bus 1

80
Q
  1. ELEC panel

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?

A

AC Bus 2 automatically feed the AC ESS bus.

81
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What indication will you get on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

A

AC ESS FEED ALTN light on

82
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

A

At least one generator load is above 100% rated output. (will all or main galleys shed)

83
Q
  1. ELEC panel

Explain the Auto function of the GALLEY pushbutton.

A

 Sheds main galley if only 1 gen is avail in flight or

 Sheds main galley if only 1 gen is avail on the ground

84
Q
  1. ELEC panel

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

85
Q
  1. ELEC panel

How does the EMER Generator connect to the ELEC system?

A

Connects to the AC essential bus which powers the DC essential bus.

86
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What is the difference of the APU Gen Fault and the ENG fault?

A

 Both are indicators of a line contactor open. The diff is the fault may also indicate a

 Fault detected by the ENG GCU.

87
Q
  1. ELEC panel

What does a BAT fault light indicate?

A

Battery charging current outside limits. BAT contactor opens.

88
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Describe the layout of the fuel tanks in the A320.

A

Center tank, and wing tanks made up of inner, outer and vent tanks.

89
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?

A

42,000 lb (41, 285)

90
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Why is it possible for the fuel computer to indicate 42, 200 lbs on ECAM when fueled to MAX capacity?

A

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard.

91
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Where are the fuel pumps located?

A

 2 Center tank pumps and 2 wing tank pumps per wing.

 The APU has it’s own pump. (When does it run? CTR tank pumps OFF)

92
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Are the pumps in the center tank different from the wing pumps?

A

They are identical pumps, but plumbing creates different outputs. The Center pumps have a greater system output

93
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to taxi out. (Assume full tanks)

A

At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks. After both engines are started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run until slats are selected then the stop. At t/o the engines feed fuel from the respective wing tanks. When slats are zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank. (After center tank runs dry, the pumps continue to run for 5 min)

94
Q
  1. FUEL panel

What does a fault light in one of the ENG fuel pumps indicate?

A

Low delivery pressure

95
Q
  1. FUEL panel

What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?

A

 Failure of the AUTO mode

 Center tank has more than 550lb and either wing tank has less than 11K

96
Q
  1. FUEL panel

How do you know that fueling is in progress?

A

REFUELING message on ECAM.

97
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Does this mean that fuel is entering the tanks?

A

NO. It means the refueling fuel door is open.

98
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Is fuel used to cool the IDG?

A

Yes.

99
Q
  1. FUEL panel

Where does this fuel return to?

A

Wing tanks.

100
Q
  1. FUEL panel

What if this return fuel fills the wing tanks with center tanks feeding?

A

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1100lb.

101
Q
  1. HYD panel

How are the three HYD systems referred to as?

A

Green, Blue and Yellow Systems

102
Q
  1. HYD panel

How is each system powered?

A

 Green - Engine Driven

 Blue - Electrical

 Yellow – Engine Driven and Electrical

103
Q
  1. HYD panel

When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

A

After the first engine is started

104
Q
  1. HYD panel

The RAT supplies the BLUE hydraulic system. Does the RAT deploy automatically with loss of BLUE pressure?

A

No. It must be deployed manually

105
Q
  1. HYD panel

What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

A

On the ground, coordinate with personnel and turn on the Yellow ELEC pump

106
Q
  1. HYD panel

With no HYD system power, how can the forward CARGO door be opened?

A

By using a hand pump

107
Q
  1. HYD panel

What causes the PTU to operate in AUTO?

A

 Differential pressure of 500 psi between Green and Yellow

 After first engine start until second engine starts

108
Q
  1. HYD panel

What are some users of the Green system? QRM can be referenced.

A

 Landing Gear

 Normal Brakes

 Slats and Flaps

 #1 Thrust reverser

109
Q
  1. HYD panel

What are some users on the Blue system?

A

 Emergency generator

 Slats

110
Q
  1. HYD panel

What are some users of the Yellow system?

A

 Flaps

 NWS

 Alternate brakes

111
Q
  1. HYD panel

What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

A

What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

112
Q
  1. HYD panel

What would cause a fault light in the ENG 1 pump?

A

 Pump low pressure

 Overtemp in reservoir

 Low air pressure in res

 Low quantity

113
Q
  1. HYD panel

How do you know which fault has occurred?

A

 ECAM will display the fault

114
Q
  1. FIRE panel

Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A

 Pylon nacelle

 Engine core

 Fan Section

115
Q
  1. FIRE panel

What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

FIRE warning will be issued (If the failure occurs within 5 seconds)

116
Q
  1. FIRE panel

What does amber DISCH light mean?

A

Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection

117
Q
  1. FIRE panel

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

A

Two

118
Q
  1. FIRE panel

What happens when the engine fire PB is pushed?

A

 Silences the aural fire warning

 Arms the squibs

 Closes the hydraulic fire valve

 Closes the LP fuel valve

 Closes the engine fuel return valve

 Deactivates the generator

 Closes the pack flow control

 Closes the engine bleed valves

119
Q
  1. FIRE panel

What happens when the ENG FIRE test button is pressed?

A

 Continuous Repetitive Chime sounds

 Master warning lights flash

 ENG FIRE PB illuminates red

 SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate

 ECAM fire warning

 Fire light on ENG panel

120
Q
  1. FIRE panel

What should occur if the APU is operating and an APU fire is detected?

A

 On the ground - APU auto shut down and bottle discharge

 In the air – no automatic functions

121
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?

A

 Low blower pressure

 Duct overheat

 Computer power supply failure

 Smoke warning activated

122
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?

A

 Low extract pressure

 Computer power supply failure

 Smoke warning activated

123
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both engines stopped.

124
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

Describe the avionics ventilation system?

A

It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjust inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and air flow.

125
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

NORMAL OPERATIONS

A

(during normal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE remains always closed)

126
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION

A

Both the inlet and the outlet flaps are fully open (ACFT is on ground; skin temperature above a set threshold)

127
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION

A

Both the inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed. The SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE is open, allowing air to the cargo underfloor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (ACFT is on the ground or in-flight; skin temperature below a set threshold).

128
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

NORMAL INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION

A

The inlet flap is fully closed, the outlet small flap is open (ACFT is in-flight; skin temperature is above a set threshold).

129
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

ABNORMAL OPERATIONS

A

(during abnormal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE always opens providing fresh ventilation air)

130
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT

A

Both inlet and outlet flaps fully closed, SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closed.

131
Q
  1. VENTILATION panel

SMOKE CONFIGURATION

A

Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT push buttons have been selected to OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the extract fan will continue to run – the inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap opens the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes.

132
Q
  1. CARGO SMOKE panel

Describe the cargo smoke test.

A

Press to test for three seconds until the red SMOKE lights in the FWD and AFT push buttons illuminate – test sequence will run twice; Red SMOKE lights, CRC, DISCHARGE lights and ECAM warning.

133
Q
  1. CARGO SMOKE panel

Following a cargo smoke indication and consequent discharging of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?

A

The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the HALON concentration present in the cargo compartment.

134
Q
  1. CARGO SMOKE panel

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?

A

One that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.

135
Q
  1. CARGO HEAT panel

What is the significance of the illumination of the HOT AIR FAULT light?

A

Duct overheat is detected.

136
Q
  1. CARGO HEAT panel

What is the significance of the illumination of the AFT ISOL VALVE FAULT light?

A

Either the inlet or the outlet valve is not in the selected position.

137
Q
  1. Glareshield

What are some causes for AUTOLAND light?

A

 Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure

 Radio Altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet

 Both autopilots fail

138
Q
  1. Glareshield

What should the pilot action be in case the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates below 200 feet RA?

A

Immediate Go-around.

139
Q
  1. Glareshield

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.

A

 Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.

 Should there be dual input, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash - side stick inputs are algebraically summed.

 Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated ( “I
HAVE CONTROL”) – the pilot taking over MUST press and hold the takeover push button.

 If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control or there is a malfunction present, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds. An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT”) will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority.

 The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover push button.

140
Q
  1. Glareshield

What should be selected on the EFIS panel during the Cockpit Preparation?

A

 ARC or ROSE NAV (more than 70 degree turn after takeoff)

 Minimum range to display the first fix, weather – in all cases less than 40 NM

 Other selectors as appropriate

141
Q
  1. Glareshield

If a HDG is pre-selected (not pulled) to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?

A

RWY TRACK

142
Q
  1. Glareshield

If MANAGED LATERAL DOT is displayed next to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?

A

NAV

143
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

Describe the preflight actions on ECAM CONTROL PANEL

A

Check HYD - quantity, ENG – oil Quantity, DOORS – OXY quantity

144
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

Should the ECAM CONTROL PANEL fail, what functions are available as hard-wired buttons?

A

CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC and ALL

145
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What does the EMER CANC accomplish?

A

 Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)

 Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight – calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure

 Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds

146
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?

A

Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

147
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

If a Radio Management Panel 1 (RMP 1) fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?

A

By using RMP 2 or 3

148
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

How is AUTOTHRUST normally armed?

A

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

149
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll with FLX thrust and proper temperature set on a RWY with a localizer?

A

MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THRUST (blue)

150
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll with THRUST LEVERS were in TOGA?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS, RWY, A/THRUST (blue)

151
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

How should AUTOTHRUST be turned off?

A

Match the blue TLA indicators to the present thrust setting and push the IDP’s or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE

152
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A

Move the THRUST LEVERS one notch and push the IDP’s or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE

153
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Move the thrust levers – ECAM will annunciate this as well

154
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

AUTOTHRUST active zone for 2-engine operations?

A

From slightly above IDLE to CLB

155
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

AUTOTHRUST active zone for OEI operations?

A

From slightly above IDLE to MCT

156
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

When selecting flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or higher, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?

A

 CONFIGURATION 1 + F

 Maximum speed 215 KT with automatic retraction of flaps when passing 210 KT

157
Q
  1. Center Pedestal

What is the normal flap setting for a go-around?

A

 One setting up from the approach flap setting

 If the approach was made at CONF 3 in high density altitude and at high landing weight (QRH 2.43), the flaps are selected from CONF 3 directly to CONF 1