Memory Items Flashcards

1
Q

Max. Ramp weight

A

85,000 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max. Landing weight

A

75,100 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max. Zero fuel weight

A

70,750 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Min. Flight weight

A

45,000 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When conducting instrument approaches what category is CRJ900

A

Category D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Flight deck door must be:

A

Kept closed and locked except per FOM & CFM

Challenge and response when opened.

Must always have 2 crew members in flight deck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Baggage compartment aft.

A

3,650 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Baggage compartment forward.

A

1,700 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Max. RVSM Mach speed.

A

.82 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flaps 1

A

230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Flaps 8

A

230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Flaps 20

A

220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Flaps 30

A

185 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Flaps 45

A

170 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Max. Landing gear extension.

A

220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max. Landing gear retraction

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max. Speed w/ landing gear extended.

A

220 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Max. Turbulent air speed.

A

280 KIAS or .75 M

Whichever is less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Max. Windshield wiper speed.

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Max. Windshield wiper speed when failed in non parking position.

A

250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max. Tire speed.

A

195 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Max. Airspeed for ADG operation.

A

VMO / MMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max tailwind for TO & lndg

A

10 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max. Crosswind for Takeoff dry runway

A

PIC 35 kts.

SIC 35 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Max. Crosswind for landing dry runway.

A

PIC 32 kts.

SIC 32 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Max. Crosswind for takeoff and landing ; wet runway

A

PIC 27 kts.

SIC 27 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Max. Crosswind for takeoff and landing; slippery runway braking action fair

A

PIC 20 kts.

SIC 20 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Max. Crosswind for takeoff and landing; slippery runway braking action poor

A

PIC 15 kts.

SIC 15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Max. Crosswind for takeoff and landing; high mins

A

PIC 25 kts.

SIC 15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Max pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

9600’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Max. Operating altitude

A

41,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max. Ambient air temperate for takeoff and landing

A

ISA +35C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Min. Ambient air temperature for takeoff

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cargo: flight must be within ___ min. of a suitable airport if cargo is carried within either cargo compartment.

A

60 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Taxi lights must be switched off when stationary in excess of ___ min.

A

10 min.

36
Q

Wheel brake cooling limits ____ __ ________ between landing or low energy rejected takeoff and subsequent takeoff.

A

must be observed

37
Q

Max. Differential pressure

A

8.7 PSI

38
Q

Max. Negative differential pressure

A

-0.5 PSI

39
Q

Max. Differential pressure during taxi, takeoff, and landing

A

0.1 PSI

40
Q

Max. Altitude for single pack operation

A

25,000’

41
Q

Max. Take off weight

A

84,500 lbs.

42
Q

To preclude possible ear damage use of emergency depress switch above ____ is prohibited

A

15,000’

43
Q

Autopilot operation below 600’ AGL is prohibited except when performing a visual or non precision approach

A

400’

44
Q

Autopilot operation below 600’ AGL is prohibited except when performing a precision approach (ILS) all engines operating.

A

80’

45
Q

Autopilot operation below 600’ AGL is prohibited except when performing a precision approach (ILS) one engine inoperative.

A

110’

46
Q

RVSM flight; The ADC source coupled to the active Autopilot must be:

A

Same as that coupled to the ATC transponder during flight in RVSM airspace.

47
Q

Max. TRU load in flight

A

120 Amps

48
Q

Max. Time for DC only power to CRT displays is:

A

5 min

49
Q

Max. Differential pressure before opening any doors

A

0 PSI

50
Q

Circuit breaker reset in flight is prohibited unless:

A

Directed by written procedure or in the judgement of the PIC it is necessary for the safe completion of the flight.

51
Q

Setting the MDA must rounded to the next higher

A

10’

52
Q

Pilots are authorized to deviate from ATC instructions when:

A

Necessary to comply with TCAS or RA command.

53
Q

Icing condition definition in flight is defined as:

A

TAT less than or equal to 10 C and in visible moisture (clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals) except when SAT is less than or equal to -40 C.

54
Q

SLD Definition

A

Ice accretion on flight compartment side windows

1) Wing anti-icing must be ON
2) Cowl anti-icing must be ON
3) Leave icing condition

55
Q

(Contamination)

Takeoff with

A

Frost, ice, snow or slush on adhering to any critical surface (wings,winglets, horizontal & vertical stabilizers, control surfaces, and engine inlets)

56
Q

Fuel Imbalance TO

A

300 lbs.

57
Q

Fuel Imbalance Flight

A

800 lbs.

58
Q

Fuel remaining in tanks when indicator reads zero is:

A

Not usable

59
Q

Takeoff with more than _____ lbs. of fuel in center tank is prohibited unless each wing has more than ____ lbs.

A

500 lbs.

4,400 lbs.

60
Q

Minimum go-around fuel is ____ lbs. and limited to a pitch angle of ___ degrees.

A

600 lbs. per tank

10 degrees nose up

61
Q

Min. Engine fuel temperature for TO is

A

5 C

62
Q

Powered and Gravity fuel cross flow must be ___ for TO and Landing

A

OFF

63
Q

Minimum ambient temperature for APU start is

A

-40 C

64
Q

APU Starter motor duty cycle

A

No more than 3 start/start attempts within 1 hr. with a minimum of 2 min. between cranking attempts for starter and starter contactor cooling and APU drainage.

65
Q

Max. APU Generator load. 0 - FL410

A

40 kVA

66
Q

Engine Warm-up

A

Must remain at IDLE until oil pressure reaches normal range.

During all starts do not exceed 75% N1 until 2 min. after start or until all operating indications are in normal range, whichever is longer.

67
Q

Cold Soaked Aircraft

A

Less than or equal to -30C for more than 8 hours

Motor engines for 60 sec. and verify Fan rotation.

Thrust reversers must be actuated until deploy and stow cycles are less than or equal to 5 sec.

68
Q

Continuous ignition must be used when.

A

Takeoff and Landing on a contaminated runway.

Moderate or greater rain

Moderate or greater turbulence

Flight in the vicinity of thunder storms.

69
Q

If cowl anti-ice and continuous ignition are simultaneously required

A

Aalways select cowl anti-ice before continuous ignition. (Endeavor)

70
Q

Reduced (Flex) thrust takeoff is prohibited when:

A

If wing or cowl anti-ice is in use.

Contaminated runway.

Windshear or downdrafts have been forecast.

Anti-skid is inoperative.

Flexing is acceptable provided wet runway data are used.

71
Q

Engine Starter Cranking limitations

A

Cannot be used if N2 > 45%

72
Q

Engine Start (Ground)

A

Attempt - Max. Time on - Cool down
1&2 90 sec. - 10 sec.
3-5 90 sec. - 5 min.

73
Q

Engine Start or Motoring (Flight)

A

Attempt - Max. Time on - Cool down
1 120 sec. - 10 sec.
2-5 60 sec. - 5 min.

74
Q

Motoring (Ground)

A

Attempt - Max. Time on - Cool down
1 90 sec. - 5 min.
2-5 30 sec. - 5 min.

75
Q

Do not move thrust lever from SHUT OFF to IDLE unless: (Ground)

A

ITT 120C or below

76
Q

Do not move thrust lever from SHUT OFF to IDLE unless: (Flight)

A

ITT is 90C or below

77
Q

Thrust Reverser is approved for:

A

1) Ground use only
2) Full stop landing
3) Do not attempt go around after deployment
4) TO w/ EICAS Caution/Warning is prohibited

78
Q

Max. Reverse Thrust is:

A

Prohibited below 75 KIAS,

REV idle below 60 KIAS

79
Q

Thrust Reverser preflight check is

A

Limited to reverse idle only.

80
Q

Reverse taxi ops is

A

Prohibited

81
Q

Slats and flaps use are

A

Prohibited enroute

Prohibited above 15,000’

82
Q

Flight Spoiler in flight must

A

Not be extended below 1000’ AGL (Company)

Not be extended in flight at airspeed below Vref +10

83
Q

Both stall protection switches must

A

Be ON for all phases of flight

86
Q

Operation with ILS glidepath angles greater than __ is prohibited

A

3.5 degrees

87
Q

Rejected Takeoff Memory Items:

A

CA
Idle, brakes, spoilers, thrust reversers A/R.
Abort, I have an aircraft.
This is the Captain. We have discontinued the takeoff. Please remain seated.

FO
You have the aircraft. 
Verify IDLE 
Brakes Maximum.                            Spoilers Green 
Thrust reverser A/R.
ATC Notify