Melanoma Flashcards

1
Q

Review updated tumor staging guidelines for melanoma.

A
  • Tx: cannot be assessed
  • T0: no primary tumor
    -Tis: in situ
  • T1: ≤ 1.0 mm
    — a: ≤ 0.8 mm w/o ulceration
    —b: 0.8- 1.0 mm without ulceration, ≤ 1.0 mm w/ ulceration
  • T2: 1.1-2.0 mm
    —a: w/o ulceration
    —b: w/ ulceration
  • T3: 2.1 - 4.0 mm
    — a: w/o ulceration
    — b: with ulceration
    -T4: > 4 mm
    —a: w/o ulceration
    — b: w/ ulceration
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2
Q

Review general overview of lymph node staging in melanoma

A

-Nx: regional nodes can’t be assessed
-N0: no regional Mets
-N1: 1 node
-N2: 2 or 3 nodes
-N3: ≥ 4 nodes

Subcategories for each
-A: clinically occult node(s) w/o satellites, local recurrence, or transit Mets
-B: clinically detected node(s) “ ^”
-C: no satellites (N1), 1 clinically occult node w/ “^” (N2), 2 or more nodes clinically occult or with satellites, local recurrence, or in transit Mets in > 1 node

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3
Q

Review the metastasis staging for melanoma

A

-M0: no Mets
-M1a: Mets to skin, subQ or distant LN
—(0) normal LDH
—(1) elevated LDH
-M1b: Mets to lung
—(0) normal LDH
—(1) elevated LDH
-M1c: Mets to all other visceral sites
—(0) normal LDH
—(1) elevated LDH
-M1d: Mets to brain
—(0): normal LDH
—(1): elevated LDH

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4
Q

What is recommended regarding genetic expression profile outside of clinical study?

A

Don’t recommend genetic expression profile outside of clinic study

Still get SNLB

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5
Q

What are liquid biopsies being explored for in melanoma?

A

Prognosis, monitor treatment response, genetic tumor evolution, and acquired drug resistance

Based on circulating tumor cells, cell-free tumor DNA, microRNA

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6
Q

What is the significance of the presence of BRAF in melanoma prognosis?

A

Independent prognostic factor for progression and recurrence free survival

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7
Q

What predicts response and prolonged survival in patients treated with pembrolizumab or nivolumab?

A

Undetectable cell-free tumor DNA level at baseline or within 8 weeks of therapy

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8
Q

What is the effect of surgery timing after biopsy on mortality risk?

A

Surgery within 30 days of biopsy lowers mortality risk

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9
Q

What margin is recommended for Breslow thickness < 1 mm?

A

1 cm margins

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10
Q

What margins are recommended for Breslow thickness > 1 but ≤ 2 mm?

A

1-2 cm margins

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11
Q

What margins are recommended for Breslow thickness > 2 mm?

A

2 cm margins

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12
Q

What technology is used for identifying sentinel lymph nodes in melanoma surgery?

A

Indocyanine green based technology

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13
Q

What are the advantages of indocyanine green over methylene blue?

A

Highest tissue penetration, visualization up to 1 cm deep, lack of radiation, lower side effect protein, less false negatives

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14
Q

Does complete lymph node dissection after positive SLNB increase survival benefit?

A

No increased survival benefit compared to observation of nodal basin

Complete dissection if evident disease; may depend on subgroups of melanoma

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15
Q

What are melanomas derived from?

A

Melanocytes in the stratum basale

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16
Q

What are the four layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial?

A
  • Stratum basale
  • Stratum spinosum
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Stratum corneum
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17
Q

What additional layer is found in glabrous skin?

A

Stratum lucidum

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18
Q

What type of cells are found in the stratum basale?

A

Basal cells

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19
Q

What do basal cells differentiate into?

A

Keratinocytes

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20
Q

What is formed in the stratum spinosum?

A

Intercellular connections via desmosomes

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21
Q

What do keratinocytes have in the stratum granulosum?

A

Keratohyalin granules

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22
Q

In the stratum corneum, how are the cells arranged?

A

Compact and surrounded by a lipid layer

23
Q

Where are Merkel cells located?

A

Stratum basale

24
Q

Where are Langerhans cells found?

A
  • Stratum spinosum
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Dermis
25
Q

What is a congenital melanocytic nevus associated with?

A

Abnormalities of the vertebral column, including spina bifida

26
Q

What is the recommended treatment for giant congenital melanocytic nevus?

A

Surgical treatment does not reduce risk. Risk of melanoma in this population is 0.7 - 2.9% vs. 0.6% in the general population. Melanoma is a generic biological risk rather than related to the nevus itself. Melanoma highest risk on trunk lesions, but can still occur in satellite lesion instead of the gain nevus itself.

27
Q

What defines a giant nevus?

A
  • 20 cm in greatest dimension in an adult or will be once child grown
  • Nevus > 100 cm² in area
  • Nevus that cannot be excised in one stage
28
Q

What is the melanoma risk in patients with multiple congenital nevi?

A

> 3 nevi indicates malignant potential

29
Q

What is the second most common subtype of melanoma?

A

Nodular melanoma

30
Q

When should non-urgent surgery for melanoma in pregnancy be performed? What if the risk of waiting is unacceptable?

A

In the second trimester to avoid preterm contractions and spontaneous abortion.
If risk to high&raquo_space; perform a wide local excision with local anesthetic after a preioerative lymphoscintigraphy with delayed sentinel node biopsy during general anesthesia in the second trimester or after delivery

31
Q

Where are nodular melanomas commonly seen?

A
  • Trunk
  • Head
  • Neck
32
Q

What is a characteristic appearance of nodular melanoma?

A

Dark, dome-shaped with a blood blister appearance

Show a rapid vertical growth phase

33
Q

What is the most common subtype of melanoma?

A

Superficial spreading melanoma

34
Q

What characterizes superficial spreading melanoma?

A

Lateral spreading of malignant melanocytes in the epidermis in sun exposed skin or from pre-existing nevi

35
Q

What is the typical location for lentigo maligna?

A

Chronically sun-exposed areas like face and neck

36
Q

What is the treatment of choice for lentigo maligna? What if they are not surgical candidate?

A

Wide local excision (5-10 mm margins)
Can’t do Mohs b/c can’t interpret melanocyte proliferation on frozen section; must send for permanent for final margins
Second line therapy is radiation and 5% imiquimod (clearance rate of 50-93% and 24.5% recurrence); can also be used on positive or close margins after excision if re-excision not possible or would cause unacceptable morbidity.

37
Q

Where is acral lentiginous melanoma seen and in what population?

A

Found on palms, nail bed, soles of feet
Dark-skinned patients

38
Q

What is the typical prognosis for acral lentiginous melanoma?

A

Worse than other melanoma subtypes (5 year survival 80% vs 91% in other types)

39
Q

What is a characteristic feature of subungual melanoma?

A

Longitudinal band > 3 mm or irregular border, extension onto periungal skin (Hutchison’s sign - extends from top of nail to nail bed and into eponychium), single finger involvement

40
Q

What is the current recommendation for biopsy in subungual melanoma?

A

Perform a biopsy of any subungual lesion after 4 weeks without significant change

41
Q

What type of melanoma is desmoplastic melanoma?

A

Rare subtype with aggressive local growth

42
Q

What is the best method of biopsy for suspected melanoma?

A

Excisional biopsy

43
Q

What is the standard surgical treatment for melanoma?

A

Wide local excision + sentinel node biopsy if < 0.75 mm + high risk factors (ulceration, male sex, head/neck location), consider for 0.8-1.0 mm, all > 1 mm need SLNB.

SLN biopsy does not increase survival - it is diagnostic

Must be sent for permanent sections for final margins. Frozen sections (aka MOHs) not an option in melanoma

44
Q

What is the purpose of immunoscoring and immunoprofiling?

A

To evaluate preexisting antitumor immunity, identify therapeutic targets, and predict response to immunotherapy or small molecule inhibitors.

Involves microscopy and molecular testing of the primary tumor or metastatic disease.

45
Q

What role does CTLA-4 play in immune response?

A

Downregulates immune response by transmitting inhibitory signals to T cells.

Ipilimumab is an anti-CTLA-4.

46
Q

How does PD-1 affect T cell proliferation?

A

Inhibits T cell proliferation and survival by binding PDL-1.

Nivolumab and Pembrolizumab are anti-PD-1.

47
Q

What correlation exists between PDL-1 expression in pretreatment biopsies and clinical outcomes?

A

Correlates with response and survival.

Important for predicting the effectiveness of immunotherapy.

48
Q

List some immune-mediated adverse responses associated with immunotherapy.

A
  • Rash
  • Diarrhea
  • Colitis
  • Vitiligo
  • Hypopituitarism
  • Hypophysitis
  • Adrenal insufficiency

PD-1 inhibitors are associated with fewer adverse responses.

49
Q

What is the function of BRAF in cell growth?

A

Regulates cell growth by mitogen-activated protein kinase.

Mutation common is BRAF-V600E.

50
Q

What are the side effects of BRAF inhibitors?

A
  • Arthralgia
  • Fatigue
  • Diarrhea
  • Cutaneous toxicity
  • Keratoacanthoma
  • Well-differentiated SCC

Effects can be mitigated by adding a MEK inhibitor.

51
Q

What is the benefit of combining BRAF and MEK inhibitors?

A

Increased tumor response, decreased drug resistance, and decreased SCC due to unmasking of oncogene cancer RAS mutations in sun-damaged skin.

This combination therapy helps manage side effects and improve efficacy.

52
Q

When is immunotherapy considered in melanoma

A

Stage III melanoma (positive nodes)

53
Q

Review pathological staging of melanoma