MEE Subjects Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What state governs a decedant’s will?

A

Generally, it’s the state where the decedant is domiciled, but in the case of real property, it’s the state where the property is located.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the requirements for a valid will?

A
  1. Testamentary intent
  2. Formal execution
  3. Testamentary capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must a will contain to be properly attested?

A

An attested will must be (1) in writing, (2) signed by the testator or someone acting in their capacity, (3) witnessed by the required number of people in the state (usually two but three in some states).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the requirements for a holographic will?

A

(1) the material, dispositive portions must be in the testator’s own handwriting; and (2) it must be signed and in some cases dated in the testator’s own handwriting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is required for a testator to be considered as having capacity?

A

The testator must be of age and of sound mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does it mean for a testator to be of sound mind?

A

The testator must
1. understand the nature and extent of their property
2. the “natural objects of their bounty” (usually their family members)
3. must understand they are executing a will
4. that they understand and can articulate what they want to happen to their property under the terms of the will.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Under the harmless error rule, when might a will be valid even if it does not satisfy all the requirements for an attested or holographic will?

A

A will may be valid, despite defects in formal execution, if the will’s proponent proves by clear and convincing evidence that the testator intended for the document to be her will.
Normally, this rule excuses attestation defects in the will.
The rule will never excuse the lack of a writing, and it will almost never excuse the lack of the testator’s signature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Under the UPC, how long does a surviving spouse need to survive the decedent by in order to be considered an heir?

A

120 hours. Anything less than that and they will be considered to have died simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is a per stirpes representation in a will calculated?

A

The descendants’ portion of the intestate estate is divided into one equal share for each surviving child of the decedent and each child who predeceased the decedent but has at least one living
descendant of her own. Any predeceasing children without living descendants are disregarded. The portion allocated to any deceased child is further divided in like manner, until the intestate estate is fully allocated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is per capita at each generation in a will calculated? (note: this is the default method under the UPC)

A

The division of the
intestate estate starts at the first generation of the decedent’s lineal descendants with at least one surviving member, which we’ll call the prime generation.
The intestate estate is divided into one equal share for each
surviving member of the prime generation and each predeceasing member of the prime generation who has at least one surviving descendant.
Here again, predeceasing members without surviving descendants are disregarded.
Each surviving member of the prime generation receives one share.
Any shares allocated to predeceasing members of the prime generation are combined into one share and then allocated in like manner among more remote descendants, until the intestate estate is fully allocated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Under the UPC, what happens to a decedent’s estate if they die intestate and have no surviving descendants or parents?

A

If either or both of the decedent’s parents have
surviving descendants, then those descendants take by representation whatever doesn’t go to the surviving spouse.

If the decedent has no surviving parents or descendants, and the parents also lack surviving descendants, then whatever doesn’t go to the surviving spouse will devolve to the decedent’s grandparents or their surviving descendants by representation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an inter vivos trust?

A

An inter vivos trust is one that the settlor creates during her lifetime. Normally, no specific formalities are required to create an inter vivos trust. The settlor need only manifest intent, whether orally or in writing, for a trustee to hold specific property in trust for a beneficiary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a testamentary trust?

A

A trust arising by will must, of course, comply with
all the same formalities that are required for a valid will. Additionally, because a will has no effect until the testator’s death, a testamentary trust has no effect until the settlor’s death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a remedial trust, and what are the two main types of a remedial trust?

A

A remedial trust’s purpose
is not to facilitate a donative transfer of property. Rather, a remedial trust is imposed or implied to provide an equitable remedy to redress a wrong or, perhaps, fill a gap in a donor’s dispositive plan.

The two main types are constructive trusts and resulting trusts.

Courts will impose a constructive trust if a party wrongly has title to a piece of property in the trust, and the trust will compel the wrongdoer to turn the property over to the aggrieved party.

Courts will impose a resulting trust if an express trust fails and they need to do something with the property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe a resulting trust.

A

The law implies a resulting trust if an express trust fails partially or wholly.
Resulting trusts usually arise if (1) a transferor transfers some or all of her equitable interest in property; (2) for one reason or another, that interest is not entirely disposed of nor entirely retained by the transferor; and (3) there is an unrebutted presumption that the transferor did not intend for the transferee to have the remaining beneficial interest.

Here, courts will impose a resulting trust upon the transferee in favor of the transferor or her
successors in interest. The resulting trustee’s obligation, then, is to transfer the relevant
interest back to the transferor or her successors in interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe a constructive trust.

A

“Constructive trust” is a technical term of art describing a specific equitable remedy that courts employ to address unjust enrichment. The remedy applies if a wrongdoer is unjustly enriched by acquiring legal
title to specific, identifiable property at an aggrieved party’s expense or in violation of the aggrieved party’s rights. Here, to address the injustice, the court may declare the
wrongdoer to be a constructive trustee over the property (and its traceable product) for the benefit of the aggrieved party. The constructive trustee’s sole duty is normally to transfer the property to the aggrieved party, under whatever terms or conditions the court sees fit to impose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who can serve as a trustee for an express trust?

A

In an express trust, the trustee can be virtually anyone, including (1) a natural person, (2) an artificial entity, (3) the settlor, (4) a beneficiary, or (5) a third party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is a surviving spouse not entitled to claim an intestate share if the decedent spouse made a will prior to the marriage to the surviving spouse?

A

In three circumstances: (1) the will was made in contemplation of the marriage; (2) if the will expressly states that it is to remain effective despite any later marriage; or (3) if the testator provided for the surviving spouse outside the will, and the testator intended for this provision to operate in lieu of any gift under the will.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an omitted child under a will?

A

A child for whom there is no provision in the will because they were born after the will was executed, or a child that the testator erroneously thought was dead when the will was executed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When may an omitted child not claim a forced share of an estate?

A

If the will leaves most or all of the estate to the omitted child’s other parent, who survives the testator and is entitled to take under the will.
Also, if the testator had other living children who also get nothing under the will, the omitted child also gets nothing.
But if the testator’s other children take under the will, the omitted child can receive a forced share.
But in ANY case, an omitted child receives nothing if they are (1) intentionally omitted from the will; or (2) if the testator provided for the child through some nonprobate transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If an unmarried testator makes executes a will and is clear that the will is to not consider any future spouse in their asset distribution, and then subsequently gets married without updating their will, what (if anything) is their spouse entitled to in the event of the testator’s death?

A

The surviving spouse’s elective share is sometimes called a forced share because it permits even an intentionally disinherited surviving spouse to elect to take a share of the estate, although doing so would directly contravene the testator’s will. If the will does leave something to the surviving spouse, then the surviving spouse can take either the elective share or the testamentary gift, but not both cumulatively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the core principles of the liabilities that arise when an agent acts on a principal’s behalf? (when in doubt on the bar exam, come back to these)

A
  1. Creating Agency Relationships
  2. Types of Agent Authority
  3. Contract Liability
  4. Tort Liability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What questions should you ask yourself if a question on the bar exam asks whether an agent’s act binds a principal?

A

First, identify whether an agency relationship exists. Then, examine whether the conduct involves contracts or torts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can a principal be directly liable for an agent’s tort?

A

When (1) the agent’s tortious conduct is within the scope of the agent’s actual authority; (2) the agent’s tortious conduct is ratified by the principal, that is, the principal later assents to be bound by the
agent’s conduct; (3) or
the principal is negligent in selecting, managing, or retaining the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is a principal vicariously liable for an agent’s tort?

A

When the agent commits or conceals a tort with apparent authority.

The best known form of this is respondeat superior (“let the boss speak”), which makes an employer-principal liable for an employee-agent’s tort committed within the scope of their employment, but not a consultant-agent’s tort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When is an agency relationship created?

A

An agency relationship is created if a principal authorizes an agent to act on its behalf. A writing is not necessary to create this relationship, even if agreements the agent enters into on the principal’s behalf require a writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Talk about the three main types of principals.

A

A disclosed principal is one where a third party working with the agent knows or has reason to know of the principal’s identity. Partially disclosed and undisclosed agents follow the predictable pattern of definitions here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is a general partnership formed?

A

A general partnership is formed when (1) two or more persons join as co-owners to carry on a business for profit and (2) the arrangement doesn’t meet the legal requirements to form a different business entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some differences between a general partner and a limited partner?

A

A general partner’s actions binds the entire partnership, where a limited partner does not.
Also, a limited partner contributes capital to the business but does not participate in business decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some key aspects of dissociation?

A

Dissociation is when one partner withdraws from the partnership.
Dissociation does not end the partnership.
A partner that dissociates is still liable for partnership obligations before dissociation.
There are also certain circumstances where, within two years of dissociation, a partner remains liable for the partnership’s acts and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the effect of dissolution?

A

Dissolution ends the partnership’s operation as a business except for winding up. Once winding up is concluded, the partnership terminates.

32
Q

If a partner in an LLP acts on behalf of the partnership, is that partner personally liable for that act?

A

No. Partners in a limited-liability partnership have no personal liability for partnership obligations arising from being partners.

33
Q

What is the effect on an at-will general partnership if one partner dissociates?

A

A partnership at will dissolves if a partner provides the partnership notice of her express will to withdraw from the partnership or to dissolve the partnership. However, following a partner’s dissociation from a partnership at will, the resulting dissolution can be rescinded, and the partnership continued, by the affirmative vote or consent of all remaining partners. In that case, the dissociating partner is not a partner anymore and does not participate in the decision to continue. But if any partner does not want to continue the business, the partnership dissolves and the only thing left to do is wrap up.

34
Q

When does a corporation begin to exists?

A

When the articles of incorporation are filed. If the articles of incorporation list an earlier effective filing date, this earlier date is irrelevant.

What matters, for purposes of determining when the corporation exists, is the date on which the articles of incorporation are filed.

35
Q

In general, who owes fiduciary duties to whom in corporations and partnerships?

A

All agents owe their principals fiduciary duties. In general, actors who manage and control a business owe fiduciary duties to the business itself and to the business’s owners.

36
Q

What fiduciary duties does an agent owe their principal?

A

Good faith, care, and loyalty.

37
Q

What reasonable, proactive steps must a fiduciary take to become adequately informed for decisions they make for the business?

A

(1) Review information provided; (2) actively participate in meetings; (3) gain reasonable familiarity with the context for any decision.
Fiduciaries do not need to be experts and may rely on information provided by others.

38
Q

What are the elements of the business-judgment rule?

A

The business judgment rule can provide a defense for a director who allegedly breached the duty of care.

Under this rule, a court will presume that the director acted:
in good faith,
upon reasonable information, and
in the honest belief that the decision was in the corporation’s best interests.

Unless these presumptions are rebutted, a director isn’t liable for breaching the duty of care based on honest mistakes or poor business judgment. The rule prevents a court from second-guessing a director’s reasonable
business decisions, even if they turn out to be bad ones.

39
Q

Under the duty of loyalty, what are fiduciaries required to place the interests of the business and its owners ahead of?

A

The fiduciary’s own personal interest, and
the interest of any single owner, group of owners, or third party.

In particular, the duty of loyalty prohibits a fiduciary from improperly personally benefiting in the conduct of the
business’s activities. A fiduciary who receives an improper benefit may not keep it but should instead account for it and hold it as trustee for the business.

40
Q

What are the elements of a conflicting-interest transaction, in which a fiduciary has a meaningful incentive to act contrary to the business’s best interests?

A

A conflicting-interest transaction is one in which the business is a party and:

the fiduciary, individually, is also a party;
the fiduciary knows of the transaction and knows that he has a material financial interest in it; or
the fiduciary knows that a related person either is a party or has a material interest in the transaction.

41
Q

When might a fiduciary escape liability for a conflicting-interest transaction?

A

In the corporation context, a fiduciary may escape liability for a conflicting-interest transaction if:
the board of directors properly approves it,
the shareholders properly approve it, or
the transaction is objectively fair to the corporation.
Board or shareholder approval requires that the conflicted fiduciary fully disclose all material facts known about the transaction and the conflict. A majority of qualified, disinterested directors or qualified, disinterested
shareholders with no material relationship with the conflicted fiduciary must then approve the transaction.

42
Q

What must be true of a pre-marital agreement for it to be enforceable?

A

It must satisfy general contract law principles, be voluntary, informed, and not unconscionable.

43
Q

What is the rule of parentage by estoppel?

A

The rule of parentage by estoppel can bar someone from denying parentage if that person has acted as a parent toward a child.

44
Q

What is the doctrine of when a party in a purported marriage that is actually void may claim property rights as a couple if they believed in good faith the marriage was proper?

A

The putative-marriage doctrine.

45
Q

What is the principle of equitable distribution?

A

It’s a rule that most states follow in divorces that requires a court to divide property equitably (not necessarily equal) between the parties.

46
Q

What are the types of alimony?

A

Temporary alimony: payable while divorce is pending
Rehabilitative alimony: temporary award to help that spouse get education or training to become self-supporting
Reimbursement alimony: compensates a spouse for money or other value given to the other during the marriage
Permanent alimony: to a spouse who can’t become self-supporting or maintain standard of living from the marriage.

47
Q

What law adopted by all 50 states governs child support enforcement?

A

The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act

48
Q

What law enforces interstate custody disputes?

A

The Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act

49
Q

What rule(s) does a court apply to determine personal jurisdiction over a child under the The Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act? (these are important for the bar exam)

A

The Home State rule (last 6 months), Recent Home State rule (previous state if child has not been in one state for the last 6 months), or significant connection rule (if child/+parents have significant connection to a state beyond mere physical presence).

50
Q

What test will a court apply when awarding or modifying custody or support awards?

A

Best Interest of the Child.

51
Q

What is the earliest date a modification to a child support order can be effective?

A

The earliest that a child support modification may take effect is the date when the party seeking modification notified the other party of the petition to modify.

52
Q

What is a secured transaction?

A

When a debtor voluntarily grants an interest (security interest) in personal property (collateral) to secure payment or performance of an obligation.

53
Q

What type of property can serve as collateral for a secured transaction?

A

It must be personal property (not real property). It can be tangible or intangible.

54
Q

What does Article 9 of the UCC govern for secured transactions?

A

Any transaction, regardless of form, that creates a security interest in personal property by contract.
Substance matters more than form (the bar likes to test this)

55
Q

Be sure to classify the collateral on any secured transactions on the exam. Break down why.

A

What type of collateral is it? The type can impact (1) the steps a creditor must take to have an enforceable security interest, and (2) the steps a creditor must take to give third parties notice of the secured creditor’s interest.

56
Q

What is tangible property for a secured transaction question?

A

Takes the form of goods (things that are movable): inventory, raw materials, farm products, consumer goods, equipment, fixtures…

57
Q

Define different instruments that can be used for collateral.

A

Collateral can be tangible property like goods, quasi-tangible property, or intangible property.

Quasi-tangible collateral includes important pieces of paper recording obligations or value. I

Instruments are a type of quasi-tangible collateral. Instruments are any writing that evidences a financial obligation but does not evidence a lease or a security interest in specific goods. In the ordinary course of business, an instrument is transferred by delivering the writing with any needed indorsement or assignment.

Common instruments include checks and promissory notes.

58
Q

What is chattel paper evidence of?

A

Chattel paper evidences both a monetary obligation and a security interest in specific goods.

59
Q

What is a document under Article 9 of the UCC?

A

As defined by Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code, a document is a record or sometimes a receipt of title. The most common type of document is a warehouse receipt.

60
Q

Describe the process of attachment in a secured transaction.

MEMORIZE THE REQUIREMENTS

A

Attachment is the process by which an unsecured creditor becomes a secured creditor and obtains an enforceable security interest in specific collateral.

Attachment’s 3 requirements: (1) the secured creditor must provide value to the debtor; (2) the debtor must have rights or the power to transfer rights in the collateral; and (3) the debtor must authenticate a written agreement which grants the secured creditor rights in specific collateral and reasonably describes the collateral.

61
Q

What is perfection in a secured transaction?

A

Perfection is the process by which a secured creditor gives third parties notice of its rights in the collateral. This can only happen after the interest has attached.

62
Q

What does a financing statement have to contain in order to perfect a security interest?

A

Must contain the debtor’s name and mailing address, the secured party’s name, and some indication of the collateral.
Can use very generic description of the collateral.

63
Q

How long is a financing statement valid for?

A

5 years. If the secured party doesn’t file a continuation statement within 6 months before the financing statement expires, then the perfection lapses.

64
Q

What types of collateral is a financing statement ineffective at perfecting an interest in secured collateral, and how can those be perfected?

A

Fixtures: fixture filing

money: possession

deposit accounts: control

certificate of title systems: notation/lien

65
Q

How specific does the description of he collateral need to be in order for attachment to be valid?

A

Not very specific. Classifying the property by type, such as “all of the debtor’s equipment” or “all the debtor’s accounts” is okay. But “all the debtor’s personal property” is not.

66
Q

What is the general rule that Article 9 establishes to determine the order in which competing creditors’ claims are satisfied against the same piece of collateral?

A

Generally, “first in time, first in right,” but there are exceptions. But on the bar exam, start with this.

  • a secured creditor always has priority over an unsecured creditor
  • between perfected interests, the “first to file or perfect” rule applies.
67
Q

What are the elements of conversion?

A

Conversion arises if the actor (1) intentionally exercises control over (2) the personal property (chattel) of another and thus (3) seriously interferes with the other’s possessory rights in the chattel. (NOTE: conversion does not require the actor to intentionally deprive the owner of the property forever)

68
Q

When does implied consent for a tort of battery arise?

A

For implied consent to arise, it is not enough that the actor subjectively intends to help or save the victim. Rather, an emergency must make it apparently necessary for the actor to physically contact the victim to prevent harm to the victim. The actor must have no reason to believe that the victim would decline to consent if given the opportunity.

69
Q

Can a marriage be annulled based on fraud?

A

A marriage can be annulled based on fraud, but in most states, any such fraud must go to the essentials of the marriage. Generally, false statements about one’s wealth or social status are not enough to annul a marriage.

70
Q

If a couple gets married, and then one of those spouses leaves, gets married again (with this second spouse ignorant of the first marriage), and after the second marriage gets divorced from the first spouse, what is the status of the second marriage?

A

A marriage carried out in the face of some impediment becomes valid when that impediment is removed.

So, in effect, the second marriage was void until the divorce from the first marriage was finalized. At that point, the second marriage automatically became valid with no further action required.

71
Q

If a law treats “illegitimate” (ugh) differently than “marital children,” what level of scrutiny will courts apply when evaluating its constitutionalit?

A

Intermediate (law will be struck down unless it is substantially related to an important government interest).

72
Q

If a married couple has and raises a child together, and the husband later finds the child is biologically not his, can the husband petition the court to nullify his paternity and eliminate his child support obligation?

A

Probably not. The presumption of legitimacy makes the marital partner the child’s legal father. There is also often a two year statute of limitations for how long a father has to challenge paternity.

Also consider the doctrine of parentage by estoppel. This doctrine applies when someone who’s not a child’s biological parent nonetheless acts like the child’s parent and induces reliance on that relationship. If terminating the relationship isn’t in the child’s best interests, then the nonparent may be estopped from denying parentage.

73
Q

What are the three types of alimony?

A

Rehabilitative, reimbursement, and permanent.

74
Q

What are some factors courts use to determine the applicability and amount of spousal support?

A

Needs, ability to pay, earning potential, capacity for self-support, contributions to the marriage (both positive and negative), separate assets, length of marriage. Issues of personal character are irrelevant.

75
Q

What acts require states to honor child support orders from other states?

A

The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act (UIFSA) and the Full Faith and Credit for Child Support Orders Act (FFCCSOA).

76
Q
A