MEE - Flashcards (All Subjects)

1
Q

What is the authority of agent to bind principal?

A

Can do if agent acting within actual / apparent authority or inherent agency power

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2
Q

What is apparent authority?

A

o P holds out A has having authority AND

o P’s conduct reasonably causes a third party to rely on A’s appearance in dealing.

o DOES NOT exist if third party has knowledge A doesn’t have actual authority

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3
Q

What is the contract liability of a partnership?

A

o Partnership bound by actions of every partner made in ordinary course of business to carry on partnership business

UNLESS
§ Acting partner has no authority

§ Other party has knowledge that partner lacks authority

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4
Q

When does the dissolution of a partnership occurs?

A

o Dissolution occurs:
§ Actions taken by partners
§ Operation of law
§ Court order

o Followed by the winding up phase to complete the partnership’s affairs
§ Partner’s actual authority is limited to what’s necessary to wind up
§ Partner may still have apparent authority if the other party doesn’t have notice

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5
Q

What is the duty of care of directors/officers of a corporation?

A

D/O Duty of care includes:

§ Reasonable steps to monitor management
§ Act in the best interests of the corporation
§ Disclose material information
§ Make reasonably informed decisions

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6
Q

What is the Best Jugement Rule?

A

BJR applies when D/O allegedly breached the duty of care.
Courts will not second guess D/O if decisions are made:
§ In good faith
§ With the care of an ordinarily prudent person AND
§ D/O reasonably believes the decision is in the best interests of the corporation.

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7
Q

What are shareholder derivative claims?

A

Brought by a shareholder on behalf of the corporation
o Sometimes have to make the demand 90 days in advance, but not if futile
o Damages go to the corporation unless they would benefit defendants, then to the shareholder

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8
Q

What is a partner’s duty of loyalty?

A

o Requires that partners

§ Act in good faith/fairly towards others
§ Account for property, profit, and benefit derived from partnership business/property
§ Refrain from
· Competing in scope of partnership business
· Usurping partnership opportunity

o Personally liable on breach

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9
Q

How is a general partnership formed?

A

o 2 or people
o As co-owners
o Decide to carry on business for profit

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10
Q

When does a director/officer have a conflict of interest with respect to transactions?

A

o D/O has conflicting interest when D/O or family member either:

§ Is party to transaction OR
§ Has beneficial financial interest of such significance it would reasonably be expected to exert influence on D/O in a vote

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11
Q

What is a safe harbor (CORPORATIONS)

A

§ Approval of disinterested shareholders
§ Approval of disinterested board members
§ Transaction is fair to the corporation

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12
Q

When does “piercing the corporate veil” occur?

A

o Courts allow creditors to PCV and hold shareholders personally liable if:
§ Alter ego
§ Failure to follow corporate formalities
§ Undercapitalization
§ Fraud/illegality

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13
Q

What is diversity jurisdiction?

A

o Complete diversity
o AIC exceeds $75k

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14
Q

What is Federal question jurisdiction?

A

o Complaint alleges complaint that arises under federal law
o Well pleaded complaint rule: cannot be a defense or counterclaim

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15
Q

How is citizenship is determined for diversity purposes?

A

o Individuals: domicile
o Corps: place of incorporation or PPB (Principal Place of Business)
o Unincorporated associations: anywhere the member is located
o Class actions: citizenship of named parties

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16
Q

Where is Venue proper?

A

o Venue proper where:

§ Any D resides if all Ds reside in a state
§ Substantial part of events/property giving rise to claim located
§ If neither, than anywhere D is subject to PJ

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17
Q

Where is the residence for venue purposes?

A

§ Individuals: domicile
§ Businesses: where subject to PJ
§ Foreign: anywhere

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18
Q

What are the traditional bases for personal jurisdiction?

A

o Court must have PJ to adjudicate rights/liabilities of D

o Traditional bases
§ Domicile
§ Physical presence
§ Consent
§ Waiver

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19
Q

When can use long-arm statutes be used?

A

Need minimum contacts thru:

§ General jx - d “at home” in the forum state or
§ Specific jx - D’s contact gives rise to claim AND
· Purposeful availment
· Reasonable to be “haled into court”
§ Exercise of jx does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice considering
· Convenience for D
· State’s legitimate interest
· P’s interest proper
· Efficiency
· Social policies

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20
Q

When can a federal court exercise supplemental jurisdiction in the context of FEDERAL QUESTION?

A

o FQ: can hear pendent state law claim if same trans/occurrence as fed law claim

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21
Q

When can a federal court exercise supplemental jurisdiction in the context of DIVERSITY JURISDICTION?

A

§ Compulsory counterclaims: arises out of same trans/occurrence - has jx

§ Permissive counterclaims: does not arise out of same trans/occurrence - jx only if AIC met independently

§ Cross claims between same side parties: arises out of same trans/occurrence - has jx

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22
Q

What are the procedural requirements for a Motion for Summary Judgment?

A

o Any time until 30 days after close of discovery
o Must be granted if when viewing in a light most favorable to nonmovant, appears that
§ No genuine dispute of material fact
§ Moving party entitled to judgment as a matter of law
o Can be partial
o Denial not appealable

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23
Q

What happens to change of venue when venue is PROPER?

A

Court:
§ Can transfer for convenience to anywhere it could have originally been filed
o Choice of law
· Diversity: transferor court law
· Fed q: transferee court’s fed court of appeals

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24
Q

What happens to change of venue when venue is IMPROPER?

A

Court:
§ Dismiss
§ Transfer anywhere it could have originally been filed
Choice of law
· Diversity: transferee court law
· Fed q: transferee court’s fed court of appeals

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25
Q

What is Removal?

A

o Allows D to move to fed court if it could have been originally filed there
o Must be sought within 30 days by D only
o Fed Q: can remove if complaint discloses fed law
o Diversity: need complete diversity, AIC, and action brought in state where no D is citizen

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26
Q

What is the Erie doctrine?

A

o Fed court sitting in diversity must apply the law of the forum state in which it sits, not its own fed law, regarding SUBSTANTIVE issues

o Can apply fed law for PROCEDURAL issues
Note: COL (Conflicts of Law) is substantive - must apply forum states COL rules

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27
Q

What is the Vested rights approach in COL?

A

Apply the law of where the event that gave rise to the suit occurred;
Apply the law of where the injury occurred, and where K was formed

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28
Q

Governmental interest approach in COL?

A

o apply law of jx that has greater interest considering
§ Policies behind respective laws in forum and other jx
§ Whether it is reasonable for jxs to assert interest in application of policies under the circumstances

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29
Q

Most significant relationship approach in COL?

A

o apply law of jx with most significant relationship to issue considering:

§ Relevant policies of forum/other jx
§ Relevant policies of law at issue
§ Uniformity of result and
§ Ease of application of law to be applied
K consideration:
§ Where K formed
§ Where negotiated
§ Place of performance
§ K subject matter location
§ Connection to forum
Torts considerations:
§ Place of injury
§ Place where conduct causing injury occurred
§ Connection of parties to forum
§ Place where relationship b/w parties is

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30
Q

What are the rules for Collateral estoppel (ISSUE PRECLUSION)?

A

Mnemonic SAFE:
o Same issue
o Actually litigated
o Final judgment
o Essential to prior judgment

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31
Q

What are the rules for Res judicata (CLAIM PRECLUSION)?

A

Mnemonic PAM:
o Parties sufficiently identical
o Action sufficiently identical
o Merits decided

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32
Q

What are the Conflict of Laws rules for decedent’s estates?

A

o Personal property: disposition governed by law of jx of decedents domicile

o Real property: disposition governed by jx of where property located

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33
Q

What are the Conflict of Laws rules for Contracts?

A

o Used for interpretation purposes
o If matter re: K validity or formation, parties may choose which law applies only if
§ Jx has some connection to K
§ COL not contrary to substantial policy interest of another jx with greater interest

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34
Q

What is Full faith and credit?

A

Courts must give FFC to judgments of of other states unless there is any of the following defenses:

§ Lack of jx
§ Fraud
§ Not on merits
§ Lacking finality (NOT FINAL JUDGMENT)

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35
Q

When is State action required?

A

o State action required to trigger individual constitutional protections

o When state action exists in cases of private parties:

§ Private party exercises activities traditionally performed exclusively by the state OR

§ There are sufficient mutual contacts between the conduct of a private party and the government

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36
Q

What is the State sovereign immunity (11A)?

A

o Jurisdictional bar that prohibits:

§ Citizens of a state/foreign country from suing another state in federal court AND
§ Suits in fed court against state officials for violating state law

o Exceptions:
§ Consent
§ Injunctive relief against state official D
§ Individual damages w/ personally liable state official D
§ Congressional authorization

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37
Q

What is the dormant commerce clause?

A

o If Congress has not acted re: area of interstate commerce, states can as long as the action does not:
(1) Discriminate against out-of-state commerce
(2) Unduly burden interstate commerce OR
(3) Regulate wholly out-of-state activity

o Exceptions:
(1) State acting as a market participant
(2) Legislation favors gov’t entities performing a traditional gov’t function OR
(3) Congress explicitly permits

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38
Q

What is the 14A Equal protection?

A

o Requires gov’t to provide citizens equal protection of the laws

o Suspect classes - strict scrutiny (narrowly tailored, compelling interest):
§ Race, ethnicity, national origin, alienage

o Quasi-suspect classes - intermediate scrutiny (substantially related, important interest):
§ Gender and legitimacy

o All others - rational basis (not rational, not legitimate)

o Proving government intent to discriminate
§ Discriminatory on its face
§ Discriminatory application
§ Discriminatory motive

39
Q

What is the 1A free speech?

A

o Have the right to not speak

o Cannot be overbroad or vague

o Prior restraints unconstitutional w/ limited exceptions:
§ Particular harm avoided
§ Procedural safeguards provided to speaker

o Content based restrictions are presumptively unconstitutional

o Content neural subject to intermediate scrutiny:
§ Advance important interest unrelated to speech suppression
§ Not burden substantially more speech than necessary

40
Q

What are Time, Place, and Manner restrictions?

A

o Public forums/designated public forums
§ PUBLIC FORUM = historically open to speech related activity
§ DESIGNATED PUBLIC FORUM = gov’t has made open for such activities on permanent/limited basis by practice or policy
§ Can regulate w/ reasonable time, place manner laws that:
· Content Neutral
· Narrowly tailored, important gov’t interest
· Leave open alt channels

o Limited public forums/nonpublic forums
§ LIMITED PUBLIC FORUM = not historically linked opened for specific speech activity
§ NONPUBLIC FORUM = gov’t property not historically linked, not open for a specific activity
§ Can regulate if:
· Viewpoint neutral
· Reasonably related to legitimate gov’t purpose

41
Q

What is Unprotected Speech?

A

o Restrictions on content must be necessary to compelling gov’t interest

o Unprotected speech
(1) Inciting imminent lawless action
· Clear and present danger
· Conduct is likely
· Speaker intended to cause

(2) Fighting words
· Likely to incite immediate physical retaliation from average person

(3) Obscenity
· Appeals to prurient interest in sex
· Patently offensive
· Lacks literary, artistic, political, or scientific value

(4) Defamatory speech
(5) Some commercial speech - regs must:
· Substantial govt interest
· Directly advances
· Narrowly tailored

42
Q

What are the exclusive state powers?

A

o Reserved powers - all powers not assigned to feds are left to states/people

o Fed has virtually unlimited power to reg states
§ Cannot command legislatures to make laws/administer fed programs, but can encourage through taxing and spending powers

43
Q

What the commerce power?

A

o All foreign and interstate commerce
§ Channels, instrumentalities, or activities that have substantial effect on interstate commerce

o Regulating intrastate activity is upheld if
§ Regulating economic or commercial activity AND
§ Rational basis that Congress could conclude activity in the aggregate substantially affects interstate commerce

o Regulating noneconomic intrastate activity upheld if
§ Direct substantial economic effect on interstate commerce
§ Not aggregated

44
Q

What is the Takings clause? (Power of EMINENT DOMAIN)

A

o 5A provides
§ Private property may be taken
§ For public use
· Even to transfer to private party, have to show not related to conceivable public purpose
§ With just compensation (FMV)

o Regulatory taking - consider:
§ Economic impact
§ Interference with owner’s reasonable investment backed expectations AND
§ Character of the regulation

o Per se regulatory takings
§ Permanent physical occupation of the property OR
§ Permanent total loss of the property’s economic value

45
Q

How do contracts differ Common Law v. UCC?

A

If contract is for sale of goods, apply the UCC; otherwise apply common law

46
Q

What are the requirements to form a contract?

A

(1) Mutual assent (offer + acceptance)
(2) consideration (bargain for legal detriment)
(3) no defenses to formation

47
Q

How is an offer terminated?

A
  • offeror expressly revokes
  • offeree learns offeror has taken action inconsistent with continuing ability to K
  • offeree rejects
  • counteroffer
  • offeror dies/incapacitated
  • lapse
  • SM illegal/destroyed
48
Q

What are the expectation damages?

A
  • goal is to put nonbreaching party in same economic position that it would be if K had been performed
  • must be proven with reasonable certainty
  • unforeseeable consequential damages not recoverable unless breaching party had reason to know about them
49
Q

What is an Acceptance?

A
  • manifestation of willingness to enter into K by offeree
  • bilateral: promise or start of performance
  • unilateral: complete performance
  • mailbox rule: acceptance valid when mailed out
50
Q

What are the required terms for an offer, COMMON LAW v. UCC?

A

CL
- parties, subject quantity, price
UCC
- parties, subject, quantity unless requirement/output K

51
Q

What are the requirements for Contract modification COMMON LAW v. UCC?

A

CL: must be supported by consideration,
pre-existing duty is not consideration

UCC: good faith requirement

52
Q

What is the Mirror Image rule?

A

COMMON LAW only:
An acceptance must match the terms of the offer exactly otherwise is not acceptance, but a counteroffer

53
Q

What is UCC 2-207 (BATTLE OF THE FORMS)?

A
  • fine unless made conditional on additional/different term
  • additional terms will govern if both parties are merchants unless original offer expressly limited, additional terms materially alter, offeror objects
  • Knock out rule: different terms knocked out leaving gap
54
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation? (COMMON LAW v. UCC)

A

CL: clear and unequivocal repudiation of a promise before its due;
can be retracted until promisee relies on, signifies acceptance, or commences action for breach

UCC: unequivocal refusal to perform OR reasonable grounds for insecurity arise and repudiating party fails to provide adequate assurances

Remedies: non-repudiating party may treat the repudiation as breach and sue for damages OR ignore repudiation, urge performance, wait and see

55
Q

What are the MENS REA (Mental state) requirements for a crime? COMMON LAW v. MPC

A

CL
- specific intent or objective
- malice: reckless disregard of high risk
- general intent of committing a legally prohibited act
- strict liability (statute)

MPC
- purposely: conscious objective to engage in conduct/cause certain result
- knowing/willful: aware of likely result
- reckless: conscious disregard of substantial/unjustified risk
- negligent: fails to perceive substantial/unjustified risk

56
Q

What is the Miranda analysis?

A

Any incriminating statement taken during a custodial interrogation may not be used against D unless they have been given their miranda rights

  • CUSTODIAL: reasonable belief they are not free to leave or terminate the encounter with the government
  • INTERROGATION: when police know/should know words/actions likely to elicit incriminating response
  • Rights: (i) to remain silent (ii) statements may be used against D in court (iii) right to atty and (iv) right to atty appointment
  • waiver can only be knowing/voluntary
  • exceptions: public safety, suspect is not aware interrogator is cop, questions for routine booking purposes
57
Q

For 4A searches, when does a person have a REASONABLE EXPECTATION OF PRIVACY?

A

REP in: hotels, homes, offices, curtilage, luggage

No REP: public streets, open fields, garbage, abandoned property, visible from public airspace, anything that can be seen inside a home from public space

No warrant needed: (ESCAPES)
(1) Exigent circumstances
(2) Search incident to a lawful arrest
(3) Consent
(4) Automobiles
(5) Plain view
(6) Evidence from admin searches
(7) Stop and frisk

58
Q

What is larceny?

A
  • taking
  • carrying away
  • of another’s personal property
  • by trespass
  • with intent to permanently deprive
59
Q

What is embezzlement?

A
  • fraudulent conversion
  • of another’s personal property
  • by a person in lawful possession of that property
60
Q

What is Common law murder?

A

Unlawful killing with malice aforethought
- intent to kill
- intent to inflict great bodily injury
- depraved heart
- felony murder rule

61
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

would be murder but for existence of adequate provocation
- provocation arouse sudden/intense passion in ordinary person AND
- not sufficient cool off period AND
- Defendant did not cool off

62
Q

What is INvoluntary manslaughter?

A

unintentional killing committed either:
- with criminal negligence: gross negligence putting another at significant risk of bodily harm/death. OR
- during unlawful act

63
Q

What are 1st and 2nd degree murder?

A

usually second degree murder unless aggravating circumstances est. in statute:
- premeditation: deliberate & premeditated, cool manner & reflection
- felony murder: BARRK & inherently dangerous felonies
- heinous: performed in a certain way (torture, mutilation)

64
Q

What is felony murder?

A
  • Death caused in commission of or attempt to commit a felony
  • must have committed underlying felony, defenses work
  • felony must be distinct from the murder
  • death must be foreseeable result of the felony
65
Q

What is Causation in homicide?

A
  • Cause in fact: death would not have occurred but for D’s conduct
  • proximate cause: death is natural and probable cause of D’s conduct (negligent medical care/victim’s refusal of treatment foreseeable)
66
Q

What are the insanity defenses?

A
  • M’Naghten: because of mental defect D did not know (i) nature/quality of act OR (ii) wrongfulness of act
  • Irresistible impulse: because of mental defect D lacked capacity for (i) self-control/free choice OR (ii) conform to requirements of law
  • MPC test: because of mental defect D did not have capacity to (i) appreciate wrongfulness OR (ii) conform conduct to requirements of law
  • Durham test: act would not have been committed BUT FOR D’s mental illness.
67
Q

What are the defenses to crimes?

A

(1) Intoxication
- voluntary: valid for specific intent crimes only
- involuntary: valid defense for all crimes

(2) Self Defense
- non deadly force: ok when confronted with unlawful force and necessary to protect self from imminent use of force
- deadly force: ok when unlawful force and reasonable belief of threat of death or great bodily harm
- imperfect: can reduce murder charge if based on honest but unreasonable belief deadly force was necessary

(3) Duress
- if D reasonably believed other person would inflict death/bodily harm

(4) Mistake of fact
- specific intent crime: doesn’t have to be reasonable
- general/maile: must be reasonable

68
Q

What is Hearsay?

A

OOCS (Out-Of Court Statement) offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted
statements = written, oral, conduct intended to be assertive

69
Q

What is Non- Hearsay?

A

If not offered for TOMA (Truth Of the Matter Asserted):
(1) independent legal significance
(2) effect on listener
(3) declarant’s mental state/state of mind
(4) impeachment

Non-hearsay
(1) prior inconsistent statements (subject to cross, under oath, inconsistent with present testimony)
(2) prior consistent statements (subject to cross, before opp to fabricate)
(3) prior statements of ID (subject to cross)
(3) admissions by party opponent

70
Q

What is Logical relevance?

A
  • Probative: any tendency to make fact more true than without evidence
  • Material: fact of consequence in determining the action
71
Q

What is Character Evidence in Civil Cases?

A

Character Evidence in Civil Cases
Not admissible for propensity purposes unless
- character is essential element of claim/defense (all types)
- cased on D’s sexual misconduct

72
Q

What is Character Evidence in Criminal Cases?

A

Not admissible by prosecution unless D opens door
D can “open door” and offer positive character evidence when:
- pertinent to crime charged AND
- rep and op testimony only (no specific acts)
Then P can introduce negative character evidence by:
- calling in own character witness (rep/op) OR
- cross D’s character witness (specific instances related to trait in question)

Victim’s character
- D can introduce if relevant to defense
- P then can rebut by showing: D has same trait OR V has positive trait
- Can use specific instances on cro

73
Q

What is MIMIC?

A

Specific instances of conduct admissible to show:
- Motive/opportunity
- Intent
- Mistake (absence)
- Identity
- Common plan/preparation
* must also have sufficient evidence to support jury verdict that D committed prior act AND PV (probative value) > UP (unfair prejudice)

74
Q

When is a witness unavailable? (Unavailability requirement)

A
  • privilege
  • refuses
  • not remembering
  • cannot be present b/c of death/illness
  • absent

Exceptions for unavailability only:
- former testimony
- dying declaration
- statements against interest
- forfeiture by wrongdoing

75
Q

What is Present sense impression?

A

describes event as it takes place or immediately after

76
Q

What is Excited utterance?

A

made while still under the stress of the startling / exciting event

77
Q

What are statements for Medical diagnosis/treatment?

A

statement of past/present condition for purposes of getting medical diagnosis/treatment
can be made to nurses, fam, non-medical individuals
can be made to enable physician to testify at trial

78
Q

What are the rules for Impeachment?

A

CHARACTER FOR TRUTHFULNESS:
- through rep/op testimony
- can’t bolster credibility
- can use specific instances on cross if: involves truthfulness, good faith belief, does not involve arrest/consequence of arrest
- extrinsic evidence not admissible

PRIOR CONVICTIONS:
- involving dishonesty: always admissible (under 10 yr)
- prior felony w/o dishonesty: if PV not substantially outweighed by UP
- 10+ years since conviction/release: must show PV substantially outweighs UP
- not admissible if pardon, annulment, later innocent

PRIOR INCONSISTENT STATEMENTS:
- extrinsic evidence only if witness can explain/deny
- extrinsic evidence cannot be used for collateral matter

79
Q

What is the Child custody standards with respect to the best interests of the child?

A
  • meaningful relationship with parents
  • ability/willingness of parents
  • relationship of the child with parents, siblings, any others
  • Childs adjustment to home/school/community
  • mental and physical health of all involved
  • parents intent to relocate
  • wishes of Childs parents
  • wishes of the child (greater weight with age/maturity)
80
Q

Property division at divorce (how is property divided?)

A

Analysis:
- categorize property
- determine equitable distribution of marital property

Separate property: acquired before marriage, by gift, acquired with spouse’s own proceeds, passive appreciation

Marital property: all property acquired during marriage, active appreciation, reimbursement of support in pursuit of professional degrees

81
Q

What are the considerations of equitable marital property division?

A
  • income, property, liabilities
  • duration of marriage
  • obligations of prior marriage
  • lifestyle expectations
  • spousal contribution
  • fault is NOT factor
82
Q

What are the rules for Premarital contracts?

A

Valid if
- in writing, signed by both
- full disclosure
- voluntary

Under UPAA challenger must show
- not voluntary
- unconscionable when executed
- no fair/reasonable disclosure
- no adequate knowledge of other’s assets

*Child custody arrangements in premarital agreements are unenforceable, child support agreements that adversely affect the child are unenforceable

83
Q

What are the jurisdictional requirements for marital actions?

A

Annulment: majority is state where either party domiciled

Divorce: valid & FFC applies when petitioning party (i) domiciled in state granting divorce and (ii) provides adequate notice to other spouse

Divisible divorce: state does not have jx to divide marital property that is in another state absent PJ, but can rule on termination of marriage

84
Q

What are the requirements for a Common law marriage?

A
  • cohabitation for statutory period
  • held out to be married
  • intended to be married
85
Q

What is the standard for the modification of child support?

A

Substantial changes in circumstances making prior order unreasonable

some courts will not allow if the change was anticipated or voluntary unless in good faith

must be done by court with home state jx if still home state of any party

86
Q

What is the standard for the modification of child custody

A

parent must show
- substantial change in circumstances
- modification in child’s best interests

must be done by court with home state jx if still home state of any party

87
Q

What is the standard for the modification of spousal support

A

need substantial change in circumstances making prior order unreasonable

some courts will not allow if the change was anticipated or voluntary

88
Q

How is Child support calculation done?

A
  • consider income of noncustodial parent
  • provide for kid’s healthcare needs
  • based on some formula
89
Q

How is paternity established?

A

Established by
- effective acknowledgement of paternity unless rescinded
- adoption
- adjudication

Man is presumed to be father under UPA if
- man/woman married & child born during marriage or w/in 300 days after divorce
- same as above but with attempted marriage that was invalid for some reason
- holding out minor child as his own
- must be established by clear and convincing evidence

90
Q

How is legitimation established?

A

legal action brought by bio father to establish rights concerning child born out of wedlock

man must show that he
- assumed parental responsibilities
- established substantial parent child relationship

91
Q

What are the 3 different types of Deeds?

A

General: warrants against all title defects even if grantor did not cause them

Special: warrants against defects caused by grantor

Quitclaim: no warranties

92
Q

What are the implied covenants of warranty deeds

A

Present:
- seisin (land as described & grantor is owner)
- right to convey
- against encumbrances (none undisclosed)

Future
- quiet enjoyment (G defends against future challenges)
- warranty (G defends against future developments)
- further assurances (G reasonably cures future title problems)

93
Q
A