MEE - Civ Pro Flashcards

1
Q

*What is subject matter jurisdiction, and what are its two main types?

A

Subject matter jurisdiction is the power of the federal courts to hear a certain kind of case. The two main types are diversity of citizenship jurisdiction and federal question jurisdiction.

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2
Q

*What are the requirements for diversity of citizenship jurisdiction?

A

Diversity of citizenship jurisdiction requires complete diversity of citizenship between the plaintiffs and defendants and that the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

For diversity purposes, a corporation is a citizen of every state in which it is incorporated and the one state in which it has a principal place of business. The corporations principal place of business is the place from which the corporation’s high-level officers direct and control the corporation’s activities.

For diversity purposes, an individual is a citizen of the state in which they are domiciled. A party’s domicile may be changed by being physically present in the state coupled with the intent to remain there permanently or for an indefinite period.

For diversity purposes, an executor of an estate, is considered to domicile in the same place as the decedent. For trusts, the domicile of the trustee is used.

The P’s good faith allegation in the compliant determines the amount in controversy.

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3
Q

How is a citizen of a foreign country treated for diversity purposes?

A

A citizen of a foreign country who has been admitted to the U.S. as a permanent resident is treated as a citizen of the state in which they are domiciled.

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4
Q

*What is required for federal question jurisdiction?

A

Federal question jurisdiction exists when the plaintiff’s well-pleaded compliant sets forth a claim that arises under federal law. Federal defenses - whether set out in the defendant’s answer or in the plaintiff’s complaint in anticipation of the defendant’s answer - are irrelevant.

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5
Q

*What is supplemental jurisdiction?

A

Supplemental jurisdiction allows a federal court with subject matter jurisdiction over a case to hear additional state law claims if those claims arise from a common nucleus of operative fact. However, plaintiffs cannot add claims against non-diverse parties if the sole basis for subject matter jurisdiction is diversity.

Plaintiff may be prohibited from asserting SJ against impleaded parties, compulsorily joined parties, permissively joined parties, and intervening parties. This does not mean that a permissively joined party may not us SJ against another party.

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6
Q

What is the rule for counterclaims in relation to the amount in controversy?

A

A counterclaim does not have to meet the $75,000 requirement if it is compulsory, meaning it arises out of the same transaction or occurrence.

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7
Q

*What is the statutory basis for personal jurisdiction?

A

Must be authorized by state statute. A federal court must analyze PJ issues as if it were a state court in the jurisdiction. When the long arm statute is the maximum allowed under the constitution, the statute and the constitution merge together.

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8
Q

*What is the constitutional basis for personal jurisdiction?

A

Personal jurisdiction is constitutional if the defendant has engaged in such minimum contacts with the state that it would not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice. The court considers whether the defendant has purposely availed himself of that state’s jurisdiction, and whether the defendant could reasonably anticipate being haled into the state’s courts

Specific personal jurisdiction: If the cause of action arises from or relates to the defendant’s contact with the forum, Specific PJ exists.

General personal jurisdiction: If Specific PJ does not exist, then it may exist if the defendant consents to or is “at home” in the state.

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9
Q

*What is the general rule for the scope of discovery?

A

Discovery is generally permitted with regard to any non-privileged matter relevant to any party’s claim or defense including the identity of persons having knowledge of relevant facts. The information need not be admissible in evidence to be discoverable; it just has to be relevant.

The costs of discovery and the needs of the case will also be considered.

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10
Q

*What is the work product doctrine?

A

In discovery, the work product doctrine protects documents and tangible things prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial by or for another party or its representative from discovery. However, such materials can be discovered if the party shows a substantial need for them and cannot obtain their substantial equivalent by other means.

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11
Q

What are the different methods of discovery?

A

The different methods of discovery include oral depositions, written depositions, interrogatories, requests for production and inspection of documents and land, physical and mental examinations, and requests for admission.

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12
Q

What are the limits and rules for oral depositions?

A

Oral depositions are limited to 10 per side unless the court allows more, each limited to one day of seven hours. Questions are asked and answered orally and under oath.

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13
Q

What are interrogatories, and what are their limitations?

A

Interrogatories are written questions that must be answered under oath in writing. They are limited to 25 per party unless the court allows more, and responses are required within 30 days.

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14
Q

When can physical and mental examinations be ordered?

A

Physical and mental examinations can be ordered only against a party when their physical or mental condition is in controversy and only for good cause shown.

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15
Q

**What happens if a party fails to preserve electronically stored information?

A

Once litigation is reasonably foreseeable, a party must take reasonable steps to preserve the ESI.

If a party fails to preserve electronically stored information that should have been preserved and it cannot be restored or replaced, the court may order sanctions against the wrongful party, which could include presuming the lost information was unfavorable, instructing the jury to presume the information was unfavorable, or dismissing the action or entering a default judgment.

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16
Q

What must be included in a pretrial statement?

A

A pretrial statement must include the claims and defenses, itemization of damages, requests for stipulations and admissions, and a list of all witnesses and exhibits.

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17
Q

*What is the doctrine of claim preclusion (res judicata)?

A

For claim preclusion to apply, (1) there must have been a valid, final judgment on the merits, (2) both parties must be the same (or be in privity with a party in the prior suite), and (3) the new action must involve the same cause of action (Must arise out of the same transaction or occurrence).

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18
Q

*What is the doctrine of issue preclusion (collateral estoppel)?

A

Under the traditional mutuality rule, because an earlier judgment cannot be used against a person who was not a party, that person is similarly barred from taking advantage of the judgment. However there is an exception: For issue preclusion to apply (1) the issues in both actions must be the same, (2) there must have been a final judgment as to that issue, (3) The party against whom collateral estoppel is asserted must have had a fair opportunity to be heard on the matter, and (4) the posture of the case must be such that it would not be unfair or inequitable to apply collateral estoppel.

Nonmutual defensive issue preclusion is generally allowed. When Defendant was not a party in case 1, but uses the judgment in case 1 in case 2 as a defense to prevent plaintiff from suing.

Nonmutual offensive issue preclusion is more complicated and requires an analysis of various fairness factors to the defendant. The most common factor is whether there have been no inconsistent findings from courts on the issue. If there have been inconsistent findings, it would be unfair to allow nonmutual offensive issue preclusion.

Judgments by settlement do not have issue preclusive effect because settlements typically do not contain admissions and do not involve an actual judgment on the issue.

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19
Q

*What are the requirements for a case to be removed to federal court?

A

The first step in removal is to file a notice with the federal district court and division in which the action is pending. Copies of the notice must be sent to the opposing parties and to the state court. The notice must contain the grounds for removal. If notice for removal is due to the establishment of diversity, the action may not be removed from state court if one year has passed since filing complaint unless bad faith by plaintiff can be shown.

The defendant may remove a case to federal court if the federal court has subject matter jurisdiction, all defendants agree, no defendant is a resident of the forum state (if based on diversity), and removal notice is filed within 30 days of service of summons and complaint.

When a case is removed from state court to federal court, venue is set in the federal district court that embraces the state court in which the action was pending.

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20
Q

**How does one determine proper venue?

A

Venue is proper in a judicial district in which (1) any defendant resides, if all defendants are residents of the state in which the district is located, (2) a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred, or a substantial part of the property that is the subject of the action is situated; or (3) any defendant is subject to the court’s personal jurisdiction with respect to such action, if there is no such district then (4) anywhere within the United States satisfies (1) or (2).

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21
Q

*What law applies when a party moves to transfer the case?

A

To transfer venue, the court must determine whether venue has been properly laid, and, if so, whether any basis for transfer of venue exists.

If venue was proper the case may be transferred: (1) for the convenience of the parties or witnesses, (2) to another venue in which the action might have been brought, or (3) to another venue to which the parties have consented.

Under the Erie Doctrine, a federal court sitting in diversity must apply substantive state law, but will apply federal procedural law. If there is a federal directive on point, such as a federal rule of procedure or a federal statute, and it is valid, it will be applied.

If venue was proper, the court to which the action is transferred must apply the law of the state of the transferor court, including that state’s rules regarding choice of law rules. Otherwise, the transferee court applies the law of the transferee court.

Forum selection Clauses: If venue in the original action is proper, the federal court, in the interests of justice, may transfer the case for the convenience of the parties and witnesses to another venue in which the action might have been brought (considering the rules for V, PJ, and SMJ) or to which the parties have consented. The transferee court will apply the laws of the forum selected by the parties.

When the parties have agreed to a valid forum selection clause, a district court should ordinarily transfer the case to the forum specified in that clause. Only in extraordinary circumstances will the court be allowed to deny transfer to a venue agreed to by the parties. The court will make this determination on the basis of public interest factors alone. The public interest factors include (1) what law applies, (2) what community should be burdened with jury service, and (3) desire to keep local action local. These factors will rarely result in denial of a chosen forum by the parties.

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22
Q

When should a federal court apply state law?

A

A federal court should apply state law for substantive issues that govern conduct (e.g., burdens of proof, statutes of limitations, permissible defenses) and follow federal procedural law (e.g., timing requirements).

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23
Q

**What are the requirements for intervention as of right?

A

Under Rule 24, a nonparty has the right to intervene if they have an interest in the subject matter of the action, the disposition of the action may impair their interests, and their interest is not adequately represented by existing parties.

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24
Q

*What is permissive joinder, and when is it allowed?

A

Parties may be permissively joined as plaintiffs or be joined as defendants whenever: (1) some claim is made by each plaintiff and against each defendant relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences; and (2) There is a common question of law or fact among all the parties.

Must be pleaded or it is barred.

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25
Q

**What is compulsory joinder?

A

The determination of whether a party must be joined is a three-step process: (1) whether the party should be joined; (2) if the party should be joined, whether its feasible to join the party and (3) if the party should be joined and joinder is feasible, whether the party must be joined.

As the first step (1), the court must determine if the party should (not must) be joined. Such a party is sometimes called a necessary party. A party should be joined if: (A) complete relief cannot be given to the existing parties in their absence; (B) the disposition in the party’s absence may impair the absent party’s ability to protect her interest in the controversy; or (3) the party’s absence would expose existing parties to a substantial risk of double or inconsistent obligations.

If a party is not a necessary party the analysis of the second two steps is required. (2) if the party should be joined, the court next must determine if it is feasible to join the party (determine if the joinder of the party would destroy venue or jurisdiction), and (3) if the party should be joined and their presence would not be feasible, the court lastly must decide whether the party must be joined. (whether the court must dismiss the action or whether it can proceed without the absent party, looking at such factors as the prejudice to both the present and absent parties, whether judgment can be shaped to avoid such prejudice, whether the judgment will be adequate without the absent party and whether the plaintiff will be deprived of an adequate remedy if the action were to be dismissed. If the court determines that it must dismiss the action, the absent party is sometimes called a necessary and indispensable party.

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26
Q

What is an interpleader?

A

Interpleader is used to resolve the problem of competing claims to the same property, avoiding inconsistent obligations or multiple claims. Rule interpleader requires an independent basis for federal jurisdiction, while statutory interpleader requires minimal diversity and a dispute over property worth at least $500.

27
Q

**What are the requirements for a temporary restraining order (TRO)?

A

A TRO is granted by a court to prevent irreparable injury before a preliminary injunction hearing can be held. It can be issued to restrain a party from acting or require the party to act. The person requesting a TRO must show that if the TRO is not granted now, they will suffer irreparable injury before a trial on the merits can be held and that this injury greatly outweighs any harm that will be caused to the restrained party or the public if it turns out that the TRO was improvidently granted. In addition, the moving party must show that it will likely succeed on the merits of its underlying case. The moving party will also be required to post a bond to protect the restrained party against possible harm if the TRO is improvidently granted. Notice to the adverse party is generally required unless the moving party chan show that it reasonably attempted to give the other party notice and/or strong reasons why notice should not be required in this case. A TRO cannot be effective for more than 14 days from its issuance.

28
Q

**What are the requirements for a preliminary injunction?

A

A preliminary injunction is similar to a TRO. It can be issued to restrain a party from acting or require the party to act. The person requesting a PI must show that if the PI is not granted now, they will suffer irreparable injury and that this injury greatly outweighs any harm that will be caused to the restrained party or the public if it turns out that the PI was improvidently granted. In addition, the moving party must show that it will likely succeed on the merits of its underlying case. The moving party will also be required to post a bond to protect the restrained party against possible harm if the PI is improvidently granted.

A preliminary injunction cannot be issued ex parte - a full hearing on notice must be held - and a preliminary injunction remains in effect throughout the pendency of the litigation until dissolved by the court.

29
Q

What must be included in the defendant’s answer?

A

The defendant’s answer must state any avoidance or affirmative defense that they have, or it is deemed waived. Amendments are allowed when justice requires it.

30
Q

What are the defenses that must be raised in the first pre-answer motion/answer?

A

Insufficient service of process must be raised in the first pre-answer motion or they are waived. If a pre-answer motion is filed, the other waivable 12(b) affirmative defenses must also be raised. If there is no pre-answer motion, all waivable 12(b) affirmative defenses must be raised in the answer. Lack of PJ, Lack of Venue, Lack of Service, Lack of Service of Process are waivable affirmative defenses if not raised.

31
Q

What must a complaint include?

A

A complaint must include a short and plain statement of the court’s subject matter jurisdiction, a short and plain statement showing the claimant is entitled to relief, and a claim for the remedy sought by the pleader.

32
Q

**When can a pleading be amended to change the party or party name of the defendant relate back to the date of filing?

A

Under the FRCP, an amended complaint changing the party or the name of the party against whom the claim is asserted relates back to the date the original compliant was filed if the amendment concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original complaint and if, within 90 days (time period for service of process), the party to be brought in by amendment has received such notice of the action that she will not be prejudiced in maintaining her defense on the merits and that she knew or should have known that, but for a mistake concerning the proper party’s identity, the action would have been brought against them.

33
Q

**When may a party amend their pleading?

A

A pleading, including an answer, may be amended once within 21 days of serving it. Thereafter, a pleading may be amended only by written consent of the adverse party or by leave of court on motion. Leave of court is freely given when justice so requires; generally speaking, a trial on the merits is the preferable course when the opposing party cannot show prejudice by the amendment. The evidence must be construed in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party.

34
Q

When should a motion for summary judgment be granted?

A

A motion for summary judgment should be granted if the pleadings, discovery materials, and any affidavits show there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.

35
Q

**What are acceptable methods of service under the FRCP?

A

Under the FRCP, service of a copy of the summons and complaint (process) must be made by a nonparty who is at least 18 years old. Generally, service must be made (1) personally; (2) by leaving the process at the defendant’s usual place of abode with one of suitable age and discretion residing therein; (3) by serving the defendant’s authorized agent; or (4) as permitted under state law.

Additionally, service of process rules are procedural for Erie purposes. Thus, the federal court need not exclusively follow state service of process rules. FRCP allows a federal court to use state service of process methods, but it is not required to do so.

Certain defenses must be raised at the first opportunity, when, in response to the plaintiff’s complaint, the defendant first files a motion to dismiss or an answer, or else the defense is waived. Insufficient service of process is one of those motions. Waivable defenses may be joined with other defenses, but they cannot be omitted completely.

36
Q

What is the difference between Rule Interpleader and Statutory Interpleader?

A

Rule Interpleader requires an independent basis of federal jurisdiction such as diversity or federal question jurisdiction, while Statutory Interpleader requires minimal diversity and a property value dispute of at least $500.

37
Q

*What are the prerequisites for a class action?

A

In determining whether to certify a class action, the court will look to see if the class action requirements under the federal rules have been satisfied. The class must be so numerous that joinder of all the members is impracticable. The class must have a common question of fact or law.

Additionally, the action just fall into one of the following categories: (1) risk of inconsistent results or risk that separate trials would impair the rights of all plaintiffs, (2) defendant must have acted or refused to act on grounds applicable to the whole class and injunctive or declaratory relief would be appropriate; (3) common questions of law or fact predominate and (4) class action is superior method of adjudication.

When many of the defendants have different evidentiary requirements numbers (3) and (4) are not satisfied.

38
Q

How does the Class Action Fairness Act (CAFA) affect class actions?

A

CAFA allows very large class actions involving at least 100 members with more than $5 million at stake. Only minimal diversity is required, meaning any plaintiff diverse from any defendant.

39
Q

**What is an Impleader?

A

Under the FRCP, a defendant, as a third-party plaintiff, may implied a nonparty as a third-party defendant when that nonparty is or may be liable to the defendant/third-party plaintiff for all or part of the claim against it. If the defendant/third-party defendant attempts to bring in a third party with a claim that is not for indemnity, the claim should be stricken or dismissed.

40
Q

What are the different ways a case can be terminated without trial?

A

Termination without trial includes judgment on the pleadings, default judgment, voluntary dismissal (without prejudice), involuntary dismissal (with prejudice), and summary judgment.

41
Q

What is a voluntary dismissal?

A

Plaintiff has a right to voluntary dismissal once at any time prior to the defendant serving an answer or motion for summary judgment. The defendant’s motion before filing an answer does not cut off the right to a voluntary dismissal. After a defendant has filed an answer or motion for summary judgment, or if the plaintiff has already voluntarily dismissed once, plaintiff must seek leave of court for dismissal without prejudice.

42
Q

What is involuntary dismissal?

A

Involuntary dismissal for lack of jurisdiction, improper venue, or failure to join an indispensable party is without prejudice. In all other cases, involuntary dismissal is with prejudice.

43
Q

What is dismissal with prejudice?

A

An adjudication on the merits, which means that, under federal law, given full res judicata (preclusive) effect, which bars any attempt at re-litigation of same claims. May be imposed for plaintiff’s failure to prosecute or for failure to comply with FRCP or any court order. Standard for appellate review is abuse of discretion.

44
Q

*What is summary Judgment and when is it appropriate?

A

Summary judgment must be granted if, from the pleadings, affidavits, and discovery materials, it appears that there is no genuine dispute of material fact and the moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.

If the moving party submits an affidavit in support of the motion for summary judgment, the nonmoving party must count that affidavit with their own evidence from affidavits, discovery, etc., on the matter.

45
Q

*What is a Judgment as a Matter of Law and what standard is applied?

A

Essentially a motion for summary judgment after the trial has begun and before it ends.

There must be no genuine dispute of material fact when viewing the evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party, and the moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The court may not consider the credibility of witnesses.

A party is limited to the grounds raised in the initial JMOL, or a party is unable to renew an objection that was not raised in the initial motion, as there would be no objection to renew.

46
Q

*What is a Renewed Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law?

A

It is made at the close of all the evidence and may be renewed after the jury returns a verdict. A JMOL must have been properly moved for prior to the case being submitted to the jury.

There must be no genuine dispute of material fact when viewing the evidence in the light most favorable to the nonmoving party, and the moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The court may not consider the credibility of witnesses.

Party has 28 days to raise RJMOL

47
Q

*When can a motion for a new trial be granted?

A

A new trial can be granted for serious legal errors (an error in admission of evidence or verdict is excessive), newly discovered evidence that could not have been discovered previously with due diligence, prejudicial misconduct by a lawyer, party, or juror, or if the judge concludes that the verdict is against the great weight of the evidence (but the judge may not replace their own judgment for that of the jury).

48
Q

What is the Final Judgment Rule?

A

The Final Judgment Rule states that appeals are available only from a final judgment on the merits. Judgment becomes final when entered by the clerk on the court docket, not when announced. Remand orders are not reviewable on appeal.

49
Q

What is the standard of review for questions of law on appeal?

A

The standard of review for questions of law is de novo, meaning the appellate court gives no deference to the trial court’s decision.

50
Q

*When may one appeal an order granting motion for judgment on the pleadings?

A

Ordinarily, only a final order is appealable. A final order is one that disposes of the whole case (all claims and all parties) on the merits.

Under the federal rules, when multiple claims or multiple parties are involved in an action, the court may enter a final judgment as to fewer than all of the claims or parties on (1) an express determination that there is no just reason for delay, and (2) an express direction for the entry of judgment.

Unless the trial judge makes the express determination, the order determining the merits of fewer than all of the claims or dismissing fewer than all of the parties is not a final judgment and is not appealable.

51
Q

*When may one appeal a denial of motion to dismiss?

A

Only a final order is ordinarily appealable. A final order is one that disposes of the whole case all claims and all parties on the merits. A motion to deny a motion to dismiss is not final and thus not appealable.

52
Q

*What is a writ of Mandamus or Prohibition?

A

In exceptional cases, circumvention of the final judgment rule through the appellate writs of mandamus and prohibition is allowed. Mandamus commands a trial judge to act and prohibition commands the judge to refrain from acting. The writs are available only if an appeal will be insufficient to correct a problem and the trial court’s actions constitute a serious abuse of power that must be immediately corrected.

53
Q

*What is an appeal of a collateral order?

A

If the claim or issue is separable from and collateral to the main suit and is too important to require deferring appellate review, it may be classified as a judgment in a separate collateral proceeding and thus be appealable.

54
Q

*What is an appeal under the interlocutory appeals act?

A

As a general matter, only final orders are appealable, interlocutory orders are not. There are several exceptions, most importantly as they relate to injunctions, the appointment of a receiver, admiralty, patent infringement, and property possession.

However, under the interlocutory appeals act, review is discretionary and may be available when: (1) the trial judge certifies that the interlocutory order involves a controlling question of law, as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion, and immediate appeal from the order may materially advance the ultimate termination of the litigation; and (2) the court of appeals then agrees to allow the appeal.

55
Q

*Must a federal court abstain from hearing a case in light of the pendency of a state court case on the same issue?

A

Unless an abstention doctrine applies, nothing prohibits a federal court from hearing a case that is pending in state court. The primary reasons a federal court will abstain from hearing a case is when the constitutionality of a state statute is at issue. The court will retain jurisdiction of the case but defer ruling on the state constitutional issue until the state court rules on the case.

56
Q

**What is the purpose of a final pre-trial conference?

A

A final pretrial conference is held for the purpose of formulating a plan for the trial, including a program for admission of evidence. After the pretrial conference, the court issues an order that controls the subsequent course of events in the case, including issues needing resolution and the order in which they are presented to the jury. This order supersedes the pleadings.

57
Q

**May a court sanction a party who fails to show at a settlement conference?

A

Under the federal rules of cicil procedure, a court has the power to compel parties to attend a pretrial conference. A party or counsel may be sanctioned for failure to attend a conference or obey an order entered pursuant to a conference.

58
Q

**May a court refuse to amend a pre-trial order?

A

A pretrial order is issued after the pretrial conference and controls the subsequent course of events in the case, including issues needing resolution and the order in which they are presented to the jury. This order supersedes the pleadings and may be modified only to prevent manifest injustice. As with amending the answer, the question of whether denying leave to amend the pretrial order would result in manifest injustice is a question of fact.

59
Q

**May a party be allowed to present evidence that was not disclosed during discovery or during pretrial conference?

A

As an initial disclosure, a party has a duty to disclose documentary evidence in its possession that it may use to support its claims for defenses. The disclosure must be made at or within 14 days of the pretrial conference. Furthermore, a party has a duty to disclose other parties and file with the court a list of documents or exhibits it expects to offer or might offer if needed at least 30 days before trial. Additionally, a party must produce all physical material, including documents, relevant to the pending action. The federal rules provide that a party may not use the information that the party failed to disclose unless the failure was substantially justified or harmless.

60
Q

**What are protective orders?

A

A party may take the deposition of another party on notice to all involved parties, regardless of whether a subpoena has been issued. It does not matter whether parties reside within or without of the United States.

A court may order that a deposition be taken by telephone or some other remote electronic means.

An order can be a blanket protective order or a limited protective order.

61
Q

**Must state courts give full faith and credit to judgments of other state courts and federal courts?

A

Generally, state courts must give full faith and credit to judgments of other state courts and federal courts if: (1) there was proper jurisdiction; (2) the judgment was on the merits; and (3) the judgment was final.

Ordinarily, a judgment issued by a court without SMJ is void. However, an exception exists when the party contesting jurisdiction appears and litigates the issue in trial court, but loses. In that case, the findings of the court regarding its jurisdiction, even if in error, become binding and conclusive in later jurisdiction.

62
Q

**May a trial judge strike pleadings and enter default judgment for failure to attend a pre-trial conference?

A

Under FRCP, a judge may hold scheduling conferences, and the judge may inquire into the possibility of the settlement. For failure to attend the conference, a judge may impose a range of sanctions - including holding the party in contempt, the striking of pleadings, and prohibiting the introduction of evidence - against a party who fails to attend a pretrial conference. The imposition of a sanction should bear some relationship to the violation, and, on appeal, the decision to impose sanctions will be reviewed on an abuse of discretion standard.

63
Q

**What is the compulsory counterclaim rule?

A

Under the compulsory counterclaim rule, if a potential counterclaim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff’s claim, it is compulsory and must be pleaded or it will be barred. Even states that do not follow the compulsory counterclaim rule (all counterclaims are permissive) generally prohibit a party from asserting a claim when the successful assertion of that claim would have the effect of rendering a prior judgment moot.

64
Q

**What is the proper method for seeking sanctions on an opposing party?

A

Under the FRCP, an attorney, by presenting to the court a pleading, written motion, or other paper, certifies that to the best of their knowledge, information, and belief formed after a reasonable inquire: (1) the paper is not presented for any improper purpose (harassment, delay, ect.); (2) modification of existing law or the establishment of a new law; (3) the allegations and factual contentions either have, or upon further investigation or discovery are likely to have, evidentiary support; and (4) denials of factual contentions are warranted on the evidence or, where specified, are reasonably based on a lack of information and belief. A party who believes that their opponent has presented a paper in violation of this rule may serve a motion for sanctions on the party. If the party does not withdraw or correct the matter within 21 days, the moving party may then file the motion for sanctions with the court.

The court has discretion to impose sanctions, limited to what is sufficient to deter repetition of the conduct, against a party who presents a paper to the court in violation of the rules listed above. When appropriate, sanctions may be imposed against parties, attorneys, or law firms, and may consist of non monetary directives (such as striking a pleading) or monetary penalties, including payment of expenses and attorneys’ fees incurred because of the improper paper. However, a monetary sanction may not be imposed on a represented party for violation of the legal contentions provision.