Medicine Shelf Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Goodpastures Disease

A

Young adult male, nephritic proteinuria, acute renal failure, urinary sediment w/ dysmorphic RBC.
Caused by Antibodies to alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen in alveolar and glomerular basement membranes. LUNG AND RENAL SXS, hemoptysis
Renal biopsy shoes linear IgG deposition along BM. Systemic sxs uncommon.

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2
Q

Pneumocystic pneumonia

A

PCP – HIV w/ CD4

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3
Q

Which electrolyte needs to be corrected in alcoholics in order to successfully fix hypokalemia?

A

Magnesium

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4
Q

Sxs of hypophosphatemia

A

weakness, rhabdo, paresthesias, respiratory failure

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5
Q

Common electrolyte abnormalities in alcoholics

A

low K low Mg, low hosphate. Hypomag causes refractory hypoK.

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6
Q

Complications of PEEP?

A

Alveolar damage, tension pneumo, hypotension when high pressure applied.

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7
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

all or part of a lung becomes airless/ collapes

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8
Q

Organisms implicated in epiglottitis?

A

H flu and Strep pyogenes (GAS)

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9
Q

What is a hazard ratio?

A

ratio of event rate occurring in treatment arm versus non treatment arm. Ratio less than one means tx arm had lower event rate.

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10
Q

What is factorial design study?

A

Two or more experimental interventions each w/ two or more variables studied independently.

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11
Q

Most common side effect of radioiodine therapy for graves?

A

Hypothyroidism. Like 80 percent get it.

Also worsening opthalmopathy is bad too. Can be prevented w/ corticosteroid tx before and after.

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12
Q

tx for stable chronic angina?

A

Beta blocker FIRST LINE - reduce myocardial oxygen demand
Ca blocker can combine w/ beta blocker if angina persists. Causes peripheral and coronary vasodilation.
Nitrates; ACUTE
Pr

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13
Q

Preventive tx w/ angina?

A

aspirin, statin, smoking cessation, BP and DM control, exercise weight loss

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14
Q

Conditions associated w/ Erythema Nodosum?

A

Recent strep infx, sarcoidosis, TB, histoplasmosis, IBD. Sarcoid most common in AA women.

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15
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

painful subQ nodule on anterior surface of lower legs

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16
Q

Things associated w/ sarcoidosis?

A

Cough arthritis, uveitis, hilar adenoathy, and erythema nodosum (shin lesions)

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17
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis?

A

increased thyroid hormone w/ suppressed TSH, radioactive iodine uptake in nodule. Toxic adenoma

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18
Q

What causes molluscum?

A

poxvirus. Usually skin colored papules w/ central pit

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19
Q

How do viral URI and influenza present differently?

A

Flu usually starts abruptly, URI is stepwise. Flu has myalgias, posssible fever, HA.

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20
Q

Nitroglycerin MOA?

A

Dilation of veins (capacitance vessels) this decreases preload and decrease heart size, decrease oxygen requirement of the heart. Can alsy dilate arteries but less significant for anginal pain.

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21
Q

sxs of zinc deficiency?

A

aloecia, abnormal taste, bullous, pustulous leasions surrounding body orifices or extremities, impaired wound healing

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22
Q

Celiac sxs?

A

diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue, can lead to malabsorption of vitamin D, K , B12, folate, calcium, zing

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23
Q

vitamin a deficiency?

A

blindness, dry skin, imaired immunity

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24
Q

sxs of selenium deficiency?

A

cardiomyopathy

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25
Q

Likely complication of GCA?

A

Aortic aneurysm

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26
Q

Sxs of GCA?

A

headache, jaw claudication, muscle fatigue / polymyalgia, visual disturbance. high ESR

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27
Q

Important causes of membranous glomerulonephritis?

A

hep B, C, syphilis, gold, penicillamine, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis

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28
Q

Management of acute COPD exacerbation?

A

Oxygen, albuterol/ipratropium, IV steroids, Abx if >1 cardinal symptom, NPPV for severe, intubation if necessary

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29
Q

Cardinal sxs of COPD exacerbation

A

Increased dyspnea, increased cough, increased sputum production (change in color/volume)

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30
Q

what’s cromolyn?

A

mast cell stabilizer (prevents histamine release and leukotrienes) used for asthma.

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31
Q

Salmeterol?

A

long acting beta two agonist used in maintenance therapy of COPD, not for acute exacerbation.

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32
Q

Tropical sprue?

A

chronic diarrheal illness, malabs of nutrients esp B12 and folate, metaloblastic anemia. Fatty diarrhea, cramps, gas, fatigue, weight loss. small intestine biopsy shows villus blunting and infiltration of chronic inflammatory cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils.

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33
Q

epidermal inclusion cyst?

A

benign nodule w/ normal epidermis that produces keratin. It’s hard. May develop inflammation w/ rupture and involvement or surrounding tissue.
Dx: cliically, dome shapped, firm, movable cyst/nodule w/ central unctum (pore like opening). Some can have discharge. Some can resolve spontaneously. `

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34
Q

dermatofibroma?

A

benign fibroblast proliferation, firm, hyperpigented nodule on lower extremities. Have “dimple” or “buttonhole sign” when pinched.

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35
Q

Management of STEMI?

A

nitrates (caution w/ hypotension, RV infarction, severe aortic stenosis)
antiplatelets
anticoag
beta blockers – contraindicated in overt heart failure
Prompt reperfusion with PCI
Statin ASAP

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36
Q

Imipramine / amytriptiline overdose? (TCA)

A

Has anticholinergic effects, can cause sinus brady/hypotension, prolonged intervals., anticicholinergic toxicity (hyperthermia, dilated pupils, cardiac toxicity.) risk of vtach 2/2 widening QRS.

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37
Q

Imipramine/amitryptiline overdose (TCA) treatment

A

Bicarb - given if QRS is widened >100 ms give sodium bicarbonate, increases serum pH and extracellular sodium. Increased pH decreases drug avidity for sodium channels

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38
Q

Salicylate / aspirin overdose tx:

A

urine alkalinization w/ sodium bicarb to increase asirin excretion

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39
Q

Isolated systolic HTN

A

usually in elderly, 2/2 decreased elasticity of artery wall. Tx: thiazide, ACE I, or long acting calcium channel blocker for initial tx.

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40
Q

Most common head/neck cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma. Hard unilateral LN. Biopsy stat.

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41
Q

lymph nodes most often affected in EBV?

A

posterior cervical chain

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42
Q

EKG of afib?

A

Absent P wave, replaced by tiny fibrillatory waves, irregularly irregular R-R interval, and narrow QRS. The pulmonary veins are most frequent location of ectopic foci that cause AF. Can ablate the tissue around PV

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43
Q

WPW syndrome causes?

A

accessory atrioventricular bypass tract can cause reentrant loop pattern and AVRT. Will see delta waves on WPW.

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44
Q

AVnRT caused by?

A

reentrant circuit formed by two separate conducting pathways (one fast and one slow) in the AV node. Characterized by sudden onset/stop, 10-250 /min, regular, no p waves to be discerned.

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45
Q

Most common cause of A flutter?

A

reentrant circuit around tricuspid annulus, “cavotricuspid isthmus”. Rapid sawtooth waves on EKG.

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46
Q

bad things w/ Lyme disease

A
Carditis (AV block)
Neuro: cranial nerve palsy, esp VII
Muscles: arhtralgia
conjunctivitis
Skin
Adenopathy
Long term: Encephalomyelitis, peripheral nueropathy
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47
Q

disseminated gonorrhea sxs

A

vesculopustular dermatitis, reactive arhtiritis, migratory asymmetric polyarhtralgia. Rash rarely involves face

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48
Q

recommended vaccines for chronic liver dz

A

Td q 10 years (give one Tdap?), flu annual, pneumo PPSV23 once then follow w/ PCV13 and PPSV23 at age 65, Hep A, and Hep B

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49
Q

risk factors for avascular necrosis

A

steroids, alcohol, lupus, APA, hemoglobinopathies, infx, renal transplant.

Groin pain w/ weight bearing, worse on hip abduction and internal rotation. Normal ESR/CRP. MRI most sensiive

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50
Q

Babesiosis?

A

caused by tick bite w/ babesia. Northeast US. Enters RBC and causes hemolysis. Leads to jaundice, hemoglobinuria, renal failure, etc. No rash. Giemsa stain can dx. Use: quinine clinda and atovaquone-azithro.

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51
Q

Ehrlichiosis?

A

Spotless rocky mountain spotted fever, tick borne. Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, fever/malaise, HA, N/V.

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52
Q

Q fever?

A

zoonosis, caused by coxiella burnetii. Infected by cattle/goat/sheep usually in meat workers and fets. flu, hepatitis, pneumo

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53
Q

Lynch syndrome?

A

Hereditary non-polyposisi colorectal cancer (HNPCC). Risk for colon cancer and endometrial carcinoma

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54
Q

Diffuse esophageal spasms / motility disorders, sxs & tx

A

spontaneous pain, odynophagia for cold and hot food. Nitroglycerin helps. Nitrates relax the esophagus! Dx w/ esophageal manometry showing non-peristaltic high amplitude contractions.

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55
Q

amlodipine

A

calcium channel blocker (norvasc) used for tx of HTN

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56
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency, cause & sxs

A

Usually chronic steroid therapy. Cortisol is down, ACTH is down, aldo is normal. No hyperpigmentation or hyperkalemia. Possible hypontatremia

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57
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Autoimmune, causes low cortisol and aldo, elevated ACTH. Causes severe sxs, hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypotension.

Aldo deficiency can cause sodium wasting and lead to hyponatremia.

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58
Q

Coccidiomycosis?

A

Southwest US (think Arizona, California), central/south america. Primay pulmonary infection. Cutaneous findings of erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum, arthralgias.

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59
Q

Blastomycosis

A

south and north central US. Lungs, skin, bone, joint, and prostate involvement. Rare in immunocompetent

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60
Q

Invasive aspergillosis

A

happens in immunocompromised(on immune modulating therapies, AIDS), invasive pulmonary disease p/w fever, cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis. Cavitary lesions on chest x ray. CT shows pul mondules w/ halo sign or air crescent

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61
Q

Sporotrichosis

A

Subcutaneous skin infection

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62
Q

Cryptococcus

A

Meningoencephalitis in HIV patients w/ CD4 pulmonary phase –> meningoencephalitis.

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63
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Central: decreased ADH from pituitary, or
nephrogenic (normal ADH w/ renal ADH resistance.) Central DI patients have problem w/ thirst and have high serum sodium >150. Nephrogenic DI can have intact thirst w/ lower sodium. ~145
Desmopressin to distinguish between nephrogenic vs. central. Central will cause ADH release and urine will concentrate. If nephrogenic won’t help. . Tx w/ intranasal desmopressin.

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64
Q

Primary polydipsia

A

Person just wants to drink a tons of water for no good reason. Intact ADH, ability to concentrate urine but just drinks too much.

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65
Q

Treatment for SIADH?

A

Demeclocycline –> inhibits ADH mediated aquaporin insertion in collecting tubule to help dilute urine.

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66
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI?

A

hydrochlorothiazide. Increases proximal water and sodium resorption

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67
Q

Ulcerative colitis features (colonic + extracolonic)

A

20’s/30’s, bloody diarrhea, lower abd pain, tenesmus. Skin findings like erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, arthritis, cholangitis. P-ANCA is positive. Arthritis is similar to ankylosing spondylitis (low back)

assAnkylosing spondy and IBD both associated with HLA-B27. +p-ANCA even though no vasculitis.

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68
Q

Whipple disease

A

multisystemic disease, caused by tropheryma whippelii, malabsorptive diarrhea, weight loss, skin hyperpigmentation, migratory arthritis, lymphadenopathy, fever. PAS+ small bowel biopsy

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69
Q

Celiac antibody findings

A

anti-endomysial and anti-transglutaminase. Characteristic cutaneous findings is dermatitis herpetiformis

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70
Q

primary aldosteronism sxs

A

hypokalemia, slight hypernatremia, hypertension w/ adrenal incidentaloma

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71
Q

pheochromocytoma sxs

A

elevated BP w/ tachy, pounding A, plapitation, diaphoresis, HTN w/ adrenal incidentaloma

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72
Q

high plasma aldo/renin ratio >20:1?

A

primary aldosteronism. Resistant HTN, hypokalemia.

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73
Q

urinary excretion of vanillylmandelic acid?

A

pheochromocytoma.

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74
Q

rib notching on x ray?

A

coarctation of aorta 2/2 enlarged collateral intercostal vessels

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75
Q

renovascular htn tip off:

A

diffuse athero, asymmetric kidney, recurrent flash pulm edema, elevation in Cr 30% from BL after ACE I or ARB. Abd bruit.

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76
Q

causes of esophagitis in HIV (painful swallowing, substernal burning)

A

candida, HSV (ovoid ulcers, vesicles), CMV (deep, linear ulcers), idiopathic

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77
Q

CMV mononucleosis

A

looks like mono, smells like mono, but heterophile AB negative and atypical lymphocytes w/ vacuolated appearance. Usually no pharyngitis or lymphadenopathy.

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78
Q

CLL pathology?

A

smudge cells and mature appearing small lymphocytes

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79
Q

Light’s criteria for exudative pleural effusion

A

protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio >0.6
Pleural LDH > 2/3 of upper limit of normal for serum LDh

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80
Q

Causes of exudative effusion

A

infection, malignancy, PE, connective tissue disease, iatrogenic. Occurs 2/2 inflammation and increased capillary and pleural membrane pemeability or impaired lymph drainage of pleural space

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81
Q

Transudative pleural effusion

A

hypoalbuminemia and CHF, typically bilaterall/symmetrical and w/ few red or WBC.

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82
Q

acid base disturbance in PE?

A

respiratory alkalosis – hyperventilation as patient tries to overcome hypoxia and V/Q mismatch.

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83
Q

inflammatory, symmetric arthritis, quick resolution

A

viral arthritis, 2/2 parvo, hep, HIV, Mmumps and rubella etc. Can get positive RF and ANA.

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84
Q

Septic and crystalline arthritis sxs

A

monoarticular, usually the knee. use joint aspiration to differentiate

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85
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

symmetric, inflammatory. Chronic, doesn’t resolve quickly

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86
Q

SLE arthritis

A

symmetric, inflammatory

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87
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

noninflammatory, no fever.

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88
Q

Sarcoid arthritis

A

polyarthritis, usually ankles/knees

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89
Q

Rubella sxs

A

Fever, conjunctivitis, coryza, cervical lymphadenopathy, FAST cephalocaudal spread of blanching erythematous maculopapular rash that spares hands/feet. Young women get arthralgias too. Dx w/ PCR and rubella seriology IgM IgG. Tx is supportive

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90
Q

rash of secondary syphilis

A

involves trunk and extremities, including palms and soles (not like rubella)

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91
Q

treatment of acne (comedonal, inflammatory, and nodular)

A

comedonal: topical retinoids, salicylic acid
inflammatory: topical retinoids, benzoyl perox, abx like erythro and clinda, severe oral abx
nodular: topical retinoid, benzoyl, oral abx if severe. if unresponsive severe, oral isotertinoin

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92
Q

gout prevention

A

lower alcohol is a big one, lower BMI, low fat diet, decrease seafood/red meat intake, vegie protein is good, avoid organ rich foods like liver, avoid beer and diuretics if possible. quit smoking

only use urate lowering meds for those w/ recurrence.

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93
Q

Causes of ILD

A

sarcoid, amyloid, alveolar proteinosis, vasculitis (eg wegeners), infx, occupational (silicon), connective tissue dz (SLE, scleroderma), idiopathic

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94
Q

PFT findings in ILD

A

Normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased CO diffusion, decreased lung capacity, decreased residual volume. V/Q mismatch (restrictive lung pattern)

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95
Q

A-a gradient

A

difference between alveolar concentration of oxygen and arterial concentration. AA mismtch can happen in pulmonary fibrosis, but resting arterial blood gas may be normal or only mildly hypoxic

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96
Q

ILD pathophys

A

excessive collagen deposition in peri-alveolar tissue leading to decreased lung volume w/ preserved or increased FEV1/FVC ratio.

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97
Q

Calcium phosphate kidney stone

A

primary hyperparathyroid and RTA

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98
Q

Uric acid stone

A

dehydration, acidic urine

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99
Q

Cysteine stones

A

due to IEMs 2/2 increased cysteine excretion

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100
Q

struvite

A

proteus/klebs high ph urine w/ recurrent UTI

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101
Q

features and tx of 2ndary raynauds

A

2/2 connective tissue disease/occlusive vascular condition, hyperviscosity. Usually men >40, tissue injury/digital ulcers. Treat with CCB (nifedipine and amlodipine) and aspirin and treat underlying disorder.

send ANA and RF, ESR and complement levels

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102
Q

primary raynauds

A

no underlying cause, usually young women, negative ANA and ESR. CB for persisting sxs

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103
Q

antibodies in systemic sclerosis

A

ANA and antitopoisomerase-1

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104
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

aka thromboangitis obliterans, vasculitis that affects small and medium sized arteries of young smokers. P/w distal extremity ischemia, ulcers, gangrene. Usually diagnosed as exclusion after systemic dz have been ruled out.

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105
Q

type of cancer in distal esophagus?

A

adenocarcinoma, arises from Barrett. Risk factors include reflux, obesity. Sxs are CP, weight loss, dysphagia

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106
Q

Type of cancer anywhere in esophagus?

A

squamous cell carcinoma. RF include smoking alcohol and caustic injury.

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107
Q

ABG in COPD exacerbation?

A

resiratory acidosis and hypoxia. You’d be holding on to C2.

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108
Q

Bath salts

A

synthetic cathinones that are amphetamine analogs. Can cause people to go cray cray via inhibition of reuptake of NE dop and 5HT. Severe tgitation, combative, psychosis, delirium, myoclonus, seizures. Long duration. Do not show up on routine toxicology

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109
Q

severe MDMA intox

A

significant hyperthermia

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110
Q

PCP intox

A

psychomotor agitation, combative, low pain perception, hallucination, HTN tachy and nystagmus. Included in utox.

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111
Q

What’s a VIPoma?

A

rare tumor of pancreas, produces vasoacive intestinal peptide. Binds to intestinal epithelial cells to increase fluid/electrolyte secretion

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112
Q

Sxs of VIPoma

A

water diarrhea, low acid secretion, flushing, N/V, muscle cramps/weakness, hypokalemia!!!! hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, abd CT shows pancreatic tail tumor. Lots of water loss = volume depletion

Can have hyperparathyroidism concurrently as part of multiple endcorine neoplasia (MEN)

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113
Q

VIPoma tx

A

IV volume repletion, octreotide to decrease diarrhea, possible hepatic resection in pts w/ mets

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114
Q

Carcinoid syndrome?

A

causes flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm. Nearly 80% of carcinoid tumors occur in small intestine

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115
Q

Gastrinoma?

A

Can occur in a few places including pancreas. Cause increased gastrin release w/ multiple gastric ulcers and dyspepsia (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome).

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116
Q

med tx for diabetic neuropathy?

A

amytriptyline, gabapentin, NSAIDS (if kidney fnx in tact)

TCAs can worsen urinary sxs and cause orthostasis

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117
Q

Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease

A

hypertension, palpable masses, microhematturia. Intracranial berry aneurysms are common complications. Other complications include hepatic cysts, valvular heart disease, diverticula, hernias.

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118
Q

Cervical spondylosis

A

General term for degenerative changes in the neck. Causes chronic neck pain, limited rotation due to osteoarthritis and musce spasm. From osteophytes. Can cause hypertrophic vertebral bodies.

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119
Q

meds implicated in crystal induced kidney injury (tubular obstruction)

A

acyclovir, sulfonadmides, methotrexate, ethylene glycol, protease inhibitors (ex: HIV meds like ritonavir).

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120
Q

clinical fts of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) and some associated meds that cause it

A

beta lactams, PPIs. Usually 7-10 days after exposure. Causes skin rash, eosinophilia, eosinophiliuria, pyrua

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121
Q

Addison’s disease

A

autoimmune destruction of adrenals. Low mineralcorticoids, leading to low aldo–> low Na2+ and thus retention of potassium leading to hyperK. Weight loss, N/V, abd pain, diarrhea, hyperpigmentation, low BP, vitiligo. In most cases hyperk is accompanied by mild hyperchloremic acidosis.

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122
Q

Etiology of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

autoimmune, infx like TB, HIV, fungal, hemorrhagic infarction, mets

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123
Q

clinical presentation of acute adrenal insufficiency

A

shock, abd tenderness, unexplained fever, N/V, weight loss, anorexia, hypoNa, hyperK, hyperCa, eosinophilia

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124
Q

clinical presentation of chronic adrenal insufficiency

A

fatigue, weakness, anorexia, GI, weight loss, hyperpigmentation or vitiligo, hypotension, hypona, hyperk, hyperca, anemia, eosinophilia.

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125
Q

low cortisol, high ACTH

A

primary adrenal insufficiency

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126
Q

extrapulmonary sites for TB

A

liver, spleen, kidney, bone, adrenal gland

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127
Q

causes of elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

ketoacidosis (etoh, dm, starv), intox (methanol, salicylate, eth glycol, isoniazid, metformin) tissue hypoxia, renal failure

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128
Q

in hypoaldo, why do you get metabolic acidosis?

A

sodium losses while simultaneous retention of potassium/H+

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129
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn

A

can develop in tx of syphilis. When tx w/ penicillin, spirochetees die rapidly leading to release of antigen/ab complex in blood and consequent immunologic rxn which seems ike accute syphillis flar.

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130
Q

Two major side effects of isoniazid

A

peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis

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131
Q

diagnostic step in signs/sxs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

cosyntropin stimulation test w/ cortisol and ACTH levels. Can tell you primary vs secondary or tertiary.

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132
Q

what is cosyntropin?

A

ACTH synthetic analogue for pdiagnostic purposes in adrenal insufficiency

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133
Q

most important risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

psmoking

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134
Q

Positive predictive value:

A

proportion of subjects w/ positive test who actually have the disease.
PPV = TP/TP+FP
NPV= TN/TN+FN

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135
Q

Sxs of hyperthyroid

A

proximal muscle weakness, can cause myopathy. Fatigue, anxiety, tremor, weight loss, tachycardia.

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136
Q

medication for raising HDL and lowering triglycerides

A

niacin (nicotinic acid)

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137
Q

Echinococcosis

A

parasitic dz caused by tapeworm. Can cause liver cysts w/ daughter cysts. Majority associated w sheeps.

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138
Q

cause of Kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV8, . Brown macules found in HIV+ pts

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139
Q

dermatofibroma

A

dimple sign

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140
Q

cause of pyogenic spinal osteomyelitis

A

usually s. aureus, can also be G- bacilli. Can spread from UTI.

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141
Q

anion gap formula

A

sodium - bicarb - chloride

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142
Q

on mech ventilation, pO2 and pCO2 mostly affected by?

A

pO2: FiO2 and PEEP.
pCO2: RR and TV

Goal is maintain PO2 > 60. Early goals of ventilation are to decrease FiO2 to nontoxic levels

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143
Q

tx of echinococcus liver cyst

A

unlike E histolytica, these can be aspirated + albendazole.

E histolytica is metronidazole only.

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144
Q

Human monocyte ehrlichiosis

A

south east US, flu like illness w/ confusion
“RMSF w/out spots”

leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs. dx w/ intracytoplasmic morulae in monocytes. give DOXYCYCLINE

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145
Q

medication that treats neurologic and cardiac Lyme

A

ceftriaxone

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146
Q

osteomalacia causes

A

malabsorption, intestinal bypass, celiac, liver and kidney disease

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147
Q

dx of osteomalacia

A

high alk phos and pth
slow calcium and phos, low urinary calcium
low vitamind D

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148
Q

paget’s disease

A

accelerated focal bone remodeling. normal ca/phos/pth, but markers of bone resorption high like c and n telopeptide, alk phos.

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149
Q

prolactinoma therapy

A

cabergoline or bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

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150
Q

tx for hyperthyroid afib

A

beta blocker until you can control the hyperthyroidism

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151
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome

A

“migratory superficial thrombophlebitis”. Hypercoagulable disorder w/ unexplained superficial venous thrombi at unsual sites (arm, chest). Often accompanies an occult visceral malignancy. Often associated w/ pancreas cancer.

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152
Q

phenytoin deficiency*

A

folate. megaloblastic anemia!!

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153
Q

pancoast tumor?

A

usually non small cell lung cancer in superior pulmonary sulcus, can cause horners and compress the brachial plexu.

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154
Q

ring shaped lesions w/ scaly patches

A

tinea corporis, often trichophyton rubrun

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155
Q

salmon colored patches, silvery scale, peeling on extensor surfaces

A

psoriasis

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156
Q

secondary syphilis skin lesions?

A

maculopapulor, usually palms and soles

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157
Q

TCA overdose seizure tx

A

GABA agonist like benzo

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158
Q

tx for delerium 2/2 anticholinergics (ie atropine, diphenhydramine)?

A

physostigmine.

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159
Q

why are people hypercoagulable w/ nephrotic syndrome?

A

possible loss of antithrombin III in urine. Usually affects renal veins.

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160
Q

MI causes what kind of “immediate” arrhythmia most frequently? What kind of delayed?

A

immediate: ventricular reentry
delayed: abnormal automaticity

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161
Q

asystole?

A

complete absense of electrical or cardiac activity

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162
Q

pancreatic cancer sxs

A

painless jaundice, double duct sign on imaging. Causes back up of bile. Most pancreatic cancers in the head of the pancreas. Cancers in the body or tail present w/ pain but no jaundice.

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163
Q

causes of acute pancreatitis

A
I GET SMASHED
Idiopathic, 
gall stones, 
ethanol, 
tumors, 
scorpion, 
microbiological, 
autoimmine (sle, polyarteritis nodosa, crohns)
surgery or trauma
hypertriglyceridemia
emboli or ischemia
drugs (azathioprine, abx, valproate, others)

tx w/ lots of fluids!!!

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164
Q

cardiac cath complications

A

livedo reticularis, AKI, pancreatitis, mesenteric ischemia

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165
Q

muddy brown casts

A

ATN

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166
Q

broad and waxy casts in urine

A

chronic renal failure 2/2 dilated tubules of enlarged nephrons

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167
Q

RBC casts

A

glomerularnephritis orr vasculitis

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168
Q

WBC casts

A

interstitial nephritis and pyelo

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169
Q

fatty casts in urine

A

nephrotic syndrome.

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170
Q

hyaline casts in urine

A

protein passing unchanged along UT, may be in in asymptomatic people w/ prerenal azotemia.

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171
Q

sxs of ASA overdose

A

respiratory alkalosis, then anion gap met acidosis. GI pain, tinnitus, fever, tachypnea, GI irritation

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172
Q

Winter’s formula

A

tells you if you have appropriate acid/base compesation, helps determine if there’s one process going on or multiple processes.

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173
Q

tx for tylenol overdose

A

ore than 7.5 grams, less than four hours, give charcoal and check levels. Any evidence of liver injury give N-acetylcystein and monitor for liver injury.

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174
Q

G6P dehydrogenase deficiency causes

A

bite cells w/ heinz bodies, hemolysis, sxs include pallor, jaundice or dark urine, abd pain

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175
Q

Holt Oram syndrome

A

upper limb defects (radius, carpal bones) and atrial septal defect. Means “hand-heart). Often w/ atrial septal defect can hear wide, fixed splitting of S2.

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176
Q

clinical findings of aortic dissection

A

can cause aortic regurge and diastolic murmur.

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177
Q

tx for graves

A

radioactive iodine therapy. contraindications are pregnancy and severe opthalmopathy

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178
Q

ulcerated pearly nodule w/ rolled border

A

basal cell carcinoma. most common in US.

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179
Q

four causes of diarrhea in AIDS patients

A
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180
Q

Lambert Eaton

A

paraneoplastic syndrome: proximal muscle weakness, autonomic dysfunction, CN involvement and diminished DTRs 2/2 cancer, usually lung cancer

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181
Q

dermatomyositis

A

can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, causes muscle fiber injury. Skin findings, esophageal dysmotility, symmetrical/proximal muscle weakness, ILD

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182
Q

3 paraneoplastic syndromes associated w/ lung cancer

A

dermatomyositis/polymyositis (muscle fiber)
Lambert eaton (presynaptic membrane calcium channels)
Myasthenia (acetylcholine receptor in postsynaptic membrane)

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183
Q

w/out a spleen, what’s impaired in the immune system?

A

phagocytosis (dendritic cells in the white pulp of spleen)

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184
Q

what’s impaired in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

x linked recessive, defect in NADPH oxidase

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185
Q

impairment in SCID?

A

number of circulating lymphocytes, usually AR defect in adenosine deaminase

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186
Q

BPH tx and their MOA

A

finasteride - five alpha reductase

tamulosin - alpha 1 blocker

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187
Q

COPD features

A

increased pulmonary complailnce due to loss of elastic tissue
airflow limitation w/ reduced inspiratory and expir. flow rates
hyperinflation leads to increased thoracic wall recoil and diaphragm flattening.
flat diaphragm causes increased WOB

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188
Q

narcolepsy treatment

A

methylphenidate

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189
Q

diverticulosis highly associated with?

A

constipation! Give them fiber.

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190
Q

what is prevalence?

A

incidence x time. You can have stable incidence w/ rising prevalence.

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191
Q

Ramsay Hunt syndrome

A

form of herpes zoster infx that causes bells palsy, vesicles seen on outer ear

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192
Q

do what if patient has likely DVT?

A

compression ultrasonography. If not, then do d dimer.

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193
Q

5 common viruses implicated in viral myocarditis?

A

coxsackie B, parvo, HHV6, adeno, entero

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194
Q

concentric cardiac hypertrophy caused by?

A

chronic pressure overload, like aortic stenosis or untreated HTN

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195
Q

eccentric cardiac hypertrophy due to?

A

chronic volume overload like valvular regurgitation.

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196
Q

cor pulmonale?

A

Copyright (c) UWorld, Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

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197
Q

signs/sxs of mixed essential cryoglobulinemia?

A

palpable purura, proteinuria, hematuria, arthralgias, hepatosplenomegaly, low complement. Related to HCV

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198
Q

SLE antibodies:

A

ANA, anti-DNA and Anti-Sm

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199
Q

microscopic polyangitis:

A

abd pain, hematuria, urinary sedient, purpura. Serology usually negative except ANCA, comlement normal

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200
Q

restrictive lung disease

A

low FEV1 but preserved ratio. This includes obesity and COPD. FVC is decreased below 80%

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201
Q

obstructive lung disease

A

asthma. Shows reversibility w/ broncho dilators (COPD does not show complete reversibility) DLCO in asthma is usually normal but increased in COPD. decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

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202
Q

colonoscopy frequency?

A

10 years unless polyps, then 3-5

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203
Q

DEXA screening?

A

women over sixty five, maybe younger if other risk factors for osteoporosis

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204
Q

Sjogren syndrome

A

autoimmune, women in their 5th/6th decade. Clinical findings include dry eyes and dry mouth, dental caries, dysphagia (lack normal amounts of saliva).

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205
Q

milk-alkali syndrome

A

caused by taking calcium supplements and alkalnic things like antacids. Copyright (c) UWorld, Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

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206
Q

symptoms of hypercalcemia

A

polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, vomiting, constipation.

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207
Q

2ndar and Tertiary hyperparathyroid

A

pts w/ CKD have decreased renal Vitamin D production leading to low calcium, hyperphos, and compensatory PTH rise (secondary HPTH). Some will develop parathyroid hyperplasia w/ autonomus PTH production and resulting hypercalciemia (tertiary).

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208
Q

how can sarcoid cause hypercalcemia?

A

increases conversation of 25 vitamin D to 1, 25 in granulomatous tissue. Lymphoma can do this too. You’d see higher levels of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D

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209
Q

lupus nephritis sxs/signs

A

photosensitive skin, thrombocytopenia, glomerulonephritis w/ erythrocyte casts, proteinuria, HTN with low complement. Can also affect CNS, cause strokes/seizures, headaches.

positive ANA, anti-dsDNA, anti-sm. Immune inflammatory reaction activates complement system causing them to decrease.

Can also get nephrotic syndrome w/ out low complement.

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210
Q

signs of drug induced interstitial nephritis

A

WBC casts and eosinophiliuria. Fever, rash eosinophilia.

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211
Q

Granulomatosis w/ angiitis

A

commonly involves ear, nose, throag, pulm, can present sometimes w/ renal involvement and nephritic syndrome. Normal complement

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212
Q

hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

usually after infection w/ shigella or e coli. Present w/ schistocytes, low platelets, frenal failure, usually from thrombotic angiopathy. R

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213
Q

poststrep glomerulonephritis

A

HTN, acute renal failure, RBC casts in urine, low C3.

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214
Q

which hormone prevents endometrial hyperplasia

A

progestin

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215
Q

first line tx for PCOS

A

OCPs

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216
Q

first line tx for ovulation induction in PCOS

A

clomiphene citrate

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217
Q

when do we use spirinolactone in PCOS?

A

since it can cause low androgens in developing fetus, it shouldn’t be used in women of chilbearing age unless they have an OC contraindication.

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218
Q

how can you tell between exogenous vs endogenous insulin?

A

endogenous requires cleavage of peptide, so if someone is giving themselves insulin you won’t see any c peptide in the blood

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219
Q

clinical features of amyloidosis

A

Epidemiology: arhthritis (ex: RA), chronic infx like TB, osteo, bronciectasis), IBD (crohns), malignancy, vasculitis.
Clinical: nephrotic syndrome, cardiomyopathy, hepatomegaly, peripheral neurop, organ enlargement, bleeding diathesis, waxy thickening of skin. Dx w/ fat pad bx

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220
Q

treatment of amyloidosis (AA)

A

colchicine ( and underlying condition)

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221
Q

polycystic kidney disease present w/:

A

flank pain, hematuria, renal failure, HTN, large kidneys

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222
Q

MI vs PE can cause what on ekg?

A

MI: left BBB
PE: RBBB

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223
Q

what kinds of cancer do you see pericardial effusion?

A

mostly lung and lymphoma. Can cause tamponade

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224
Q

baker cyst

A

develop as a result of excessive fluid production by inflamed synovium, seen in RA, osteoarthritis, and cartilage tears. can be seen in popliteal bursa

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225
Q

digitalis toxicity causes what arrhythmia?

A

atrial tachycardia w/ AV block. Will also see inverted T waves.

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226
Q

first enzyme activated in aute pancreatitis

A

trypsin

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227
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

alcohol and gallstones!`

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228
Q

periumbilical and flank hemorrhage?

A

think acute pancreatitis

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229
Q

reason for amylase to stay elevated after pancreatitis?

A

pancreatic pseudocyst

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230
Q

pancreatic adenocarcinoma risk factors

A

smoking, chronic pancreatitis. disease of the elderly.

can cause secondary diabetes if in tail/body.
also migratory thrombophlebitis
ca-19 9 is marker in blood

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231
Q

side effect of cholestyromine

A

cholesterol stones in GB - radiolucent

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232
Q

cholecystitis radiates where?

A

right scapula

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233
Q

what is porcelain gallbladder

A

appears on Xray as chronic cholescystitis

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234
Q

imaging of chronic pancreatitis

A

dystrophic calcification

increased risk for pancreatic carcinoma

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235
Q

ascending cholangitis usually caused by?

A

gram negative enteric bacteria

increased incidence w/ choledocholithiasis

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236
Q

gallbladder carcinoma

A

p/w cholecystitis in ELDERLY woman – poor prognosis. They usually get cholecystitis when younger so if they’re super old suspect cancer

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237
Q

extravascular hemolysis increases risk of what stones?

A

pigmented gallstones.

you’ll see lots of urobilinogen in DARK URINE

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238
Q

dubin johnson syndrome

A

conjugated bilirubin builds up in cell, deficiency of bilirubin canalicular trasnport. LIVER IS VERY DARK.

rotor syndrome similar, but liver not dark

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239
Q

obstructive jaundice sxs

A

dark urine (bilirubinuria), pale stool, pruritis (from bile acids building up), will also see hypercholesterolemia and xanthomas, steatorrhea w/ malabsorption of fat soluble vitamins.

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240
Q

viral hepatitis

A

inflammation of hepatocytes, increase in both direct and indirect bilirubin. Dark urin due to conjucated bilirubinemia. Urine urobilinogen will actually be normal or decreased.

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241
Q

viral hepatitis causes

A

Hep, EBV, CMV

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242
Q

acute hepatitis

A

jaundice (mixed CB and UCB) w/ dark urine (too much CB), fever, malaise, anusea.
Elevated ALT>AST,

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243
Q

chronic hepatitis

A

> 6 months

inflammation involves portal tracts. not much in the lobules.

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244
Q

Hep E/A

A

fecal oral, both acute, not chronic.
IgM - active. HEV in pregnant woman is associated w/ fmulminant hepatitis and liver failure. HEV commonly from water/seafood undercooked.

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245
Q

HBV

A

only 20% go on to be chronic
HbsAG key marker of infection. First marker to rise. If present for >6 months, defines chronic. IgM against core is high during acute phase. During window face, only IgM. Then IgG picks up. IgG surface antibody - protective. Envelope antigen –> can trasmit to other peol

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246
Q

Hep C

A

hep c RNA is marker of infection

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247
Q

hep D

A

requires HBV for infection.

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248
Q

Cirrhosis caused by what process

A

fibrosis mediated by stellate cell secreting TGF beta. Lie beneath endothelial cells that line sinusoids.

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249
Q

portal HTN causes

A

ascites, congestive splenomegaly/hypersplenism (can consume red cells and platelets), portosystemic shunts (caput medusae, for example), hepatorenal syndrome

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250
Q

decreased detox in hepatitis

A

AMS, asterixis, coma,
gynecomastia, spider angiomata and palmar erythema due to excess esttrogen
jaundice

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251
Q

Use which to follow coagulopathy

A

PT shows effect of cirrhosis

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252
Q

Alcohol related liver disease

A

damage of hepatic parenchuyma:

1) fatty liver (reversible!)
2) alcoholic hepatitis, chemical injury to hepatocytes seen w/ binge drinking (acetaldehyde). MALLORY BODIES. damaged IF in the hepatocytes.

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253
Q

Presentation of alcoholic hep

A

AST>ALT. Painful hepatomegaly, mitochondria causes AST elevation.

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254
Q

NAFLD

A

obesity, ALT>AST. Diagnosis of exclusion to make sure alcohol not involved.

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255
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

excess iron deposition in organs, hemosiderosis –> damage is called hemochromatosis. Damage mediated by generation of free radicals. Primary or secondary, mutations in HFE gene, C282Y.

In secondary - transfusion

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256
Q

presentation of hemochromatosis

A

cirrhosis, DM, bronze skin, cardiac arrhtyhmia, gonadal dysfunction

high ferritin, low TBC, high iron, high percent saturation

biopsy: brown pigment in hepatocytes. Use prussian blue stain, turns iron blue but won’t touch lipofuchsin
tx: phlebotomy

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257
Q

Wilson disease

A

can’t put copper into ceruloplasmin. Copper builds out in hepatocytes – leaks and goes into tissues. Presents in kids w/ cirrhosis, neurological manifestations like chorea, KF rings, tx w/ D penicillamine

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258
Q

labs of wilson disease

A

high urine copper

low serum ceruloplasmin

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259
Q

PBC

A

autoimmune. granulomatous destruction of intrahepatic bile duct, avg age forty
mostly in women
antimitochondrial antibody
obstrctive jaundice, cirrhosis

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260
Q

PSC

A

inflammation and fibrosis of intranepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts
periductal fibrosis/onion skin
p-ANCA positive, associated with ulcerative colitis.

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261
Q

presentation of PSC

A

obsrucive jaundice

cirrhosis, increased risk for cholangiocarcionma

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262
Q

Reye syndrome

A

fulminant liver failure and encephalopathy in kids w/ viral illness who take aspirin, causes mitochondrial damage of hepatocytes

hypoglycemia high liver enzymes, NV, may progress to coma/death.

HOWEVER you SHOULD give aspirin in Kawasaki’s!

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263
Q

Hepatic adenoma

A

Benign hepatocyte, associated w/ OCP use, resolves if you stop. Risk of rupture and intraperitoneal hemmorage expecially during pregnancy

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264
Q

risk factors for HCC

A

chronic hep, cirrhosis, aflatoxins derived from aspergillus. induce p53 mutation.

increased risk for budd-chiari syndrome. Thrombosis of hepatic vein, leads to necrotic damage of the liver

serum tumor marker: alpha fetoprotein

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265
Q

mets to liver

A

colon, pancreas, lung, breast. Multiple nodules in liver, hepatomegaly w nodular free edge.

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266
Q

Pituitary adenoma

A

functional if produces hormones,
bitemporal hemianopsia, hypopituitarism if nonfunctional bcaus it presses on it, headache.

functional: most common is

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267
Q

prolactinoma

A

prolactinoma. low libido, HA, milk, inhibits GNRH so you don’t get LH/FSH so you get amenorrhea in women. Bros don’t get milk but they get gynecomastia.

treat w/ dopamin agonist. like bromocriptine.or surgery

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268
Q

GH adenoma

A

giganitism in kids, acromegaly in adults. secondary diabetes is often present . Growth of tongue and heart. can die from cardiac problems.

Dx: elevated GH and IGF-1. Oral glucose does not suppress GH release

Tx: octreotide. somatostatin analog, blocks response of AP to GHRH

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269
Q

cause of hypopituitary

A

apoplexy - bleeding into pituitary.
crangiopharyngioma in kids.
sheehan -

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270
Q

sheehan

A

pregnancy ; gland doubles and is susceptible to infarction if lose too much blood.
poor lactation and loss of pubic hair - sheehan

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271
Q

empty sella

A

leakage of CSF into the sella is one mechanism, causing pressure on the pituitary sitting in there and damages it.

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272
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in lymphoma?

A

Minimal change disease

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273
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in most malignancies?

A

Membranous nephropathy

Also NSAIDs SLE and hep b

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274
Q

Crescentic glomerular disease

A

AlKI hematuria hypertension

Associated with autoimmune disease

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275
Q

A few Causes of hypoK

A

Increased aldosterone activity
Beta agonists
Low blood pH
Insulin

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276
Q

pH of normal pleural fluid vs transudative vs exudative

A

normal: 7.6
trans: 7.4-7.55
exud: 7.3-7.45

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277
Q

signs of massive PE

A

JVD, hhypotension, RBBB

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278
Q

Leukocyte alkaline phosphate score

A

Differentiates between CML and leukemoid reaction. Will be low in CML because neutrophils are abnormal

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279
Q

Obstructive lung disease characteristics

A

low FEV1/FVC
if increased FEV1 after bronchodilators, it’s asthma. If no change it’s COPD
will also see elevated residual volume in COPD

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280
Q

Elevated in thalassemia?

A

HbA2

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281
Q

signs of marijuana intox

A

dry mouth, red eyes, increased appetite, tachy

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282
Q

signs of massive PE

A

JVD, hhypotension, RBBB

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283
Q

clinical features of scleroderma

A

fatigue, joint pain/stiffness
skin: telangiectasia, digital ulcers, raynaud
GI: dysphagia, gi bleed, dyspepsia, loss of smooth muscle to fibrosis
Pulm: Pulm fibrosis, arterial hypertension
renal crisis
thrombocytopenia
cardiac: myocarditis, pericarditis

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284
Q

Obstructive lung disease characteristics

A

low FEV1/FVC

if increased FEV1 after bronchodilators, it’s asthma. If no change it’s COPD

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285
Q

GI probs in HIV patients

A

cryptosporidium, MAC (in CD4

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286
Q

signs of cocaine intox

A

dilated pupils, tachy, euophoria, alertness, vigilance. Cocaine w/drawal associated w/ increased appetite

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287
Q

clinical features of scleroderma

A

fatigue, joint pain/stiffness
skin: telangiectasia, digital ulcers, raynaud
GI: dysphagia, gi bleed, dyspepsia, loss of smooth muscle to fibrosis
Pulm: Pulm fibrosis, arterial hypertension
renal crisis
thrombocytopenia
cardiac: myocarditis, pericarditis

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288
Q

achalasia:

A

dysphagia and regurtitation of undigested food due to aperistalsis in the distal esophagus.

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289
Q

GI probs in HIV patients

A

cryptosporidium, MAC (in CD4

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290
Q

sxs of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

pigmented skin, low BP, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia.
hyperchloremic acidosis
- elevated ACTH stimulates melanocytes causing hyperpigmentation

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291
Q

staph aureus food poisoning?

A

dairy, salad, meat, eggs. N/V, diarrhea,abd pain. Due to preformed toxin so it’s quick after ingestion

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292
Q

sleep disorder characterized by inability to stay awake in the evening (after like 7 pm)

A

advanced sleep phase disorder

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293
Q

de quervain tenosynovitis

A

classically affects no meothers holding their infants with the thumb outstretched, causes inflammation to APL and EPB tendons as they pass through radial styloid process

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294
Q

sxs of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

pigmented skin, low BP, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia.
hyperchloremic acidosis
- elevated ACTH stimulates melanocytes causing hyperpigmentation

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295
Q

four complications of acute pancreatitis

A

pleural effusion
ileus
ARDS
pancreatic pseudocyst/abscess

they get some relief when they lean forwards

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296
Q

formula for anion gap

A

sodium - bicarb - chloride

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297
Q

presbycusis

A

sensorineural hearing loss of old age

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298
Q

signs of tmponade

A

JVD, low voltage QRS, enlarged cardiac silhouette, hypotension

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299
Q

otosclerosis

A

chronic conducive hearing loss associated w/ bony overgrowth of the stapes

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300
Q

cause of leukemoid rxn

A

severe infection. Causes leuks>50K, metamyelocytes>myelocytes (more mature), no absolute basophiolia.

CML has way higher leuks, low LAP score, and more metamyelocytes than myelocytes (less mature). Also has absolute basophilia, whereas leukemoid does not.

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301
Q

signs of tmponade

A

JVD, low voltage QRS, enlarged cardiac silhouette, hypotension

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302
Q

LH/FSH levels in prolactinoma?

A

low! They get suppressed, so then you get low too.

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303
Q

cause of leukemoid rxn

A

severe infection. Causes leuks>50K, metamyelocytes>myelocytes (more mature), no absolute basophiolia.

CML has way higher leuks, low LAP score, and more metamyelocytes than myelocytes (less mature). Also has absolute basophilia, whereas leukemoid does not.

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304
Q

what are LATE neutrophil precursors?

A

bands, metamyelocytes.

Myelocytes and promyelocytes are younger/less mature.

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305
Q

cells involved in severe drug rxn?

A

often basophils and mast cells

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306
Q

main substrates for gluconeogenesis?

A

amino acids, lactate, glycerol 3-phosphate (from fat). Alanine is major gluconeogenic aa in the liver and is converted to pyruvate.

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307
Q

hemobilia

A

bleeding in the biliary tree, uncommon cause of GI hemorrhage. Usually after abd trauma or surgery

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308
Q

holosystolic murmur at apex w/ radiation to axilla?

A

mitral regurge

common clinical features include exertional dyspnea, fatigue, a fib, and heart failure signs

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309
Q

main substrates for gluconeogenesis?

A

amino acids, lactate, glycerol 3-phosphate (from fat). Alanine is major gluconeogenic aa in the liver and is converted to pyruvate.

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310
Q

treatment for anorexia in cancer

A

progesterone analogues like megestrol acetate.

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311
Q

holosystolic murmur at apex w/ radiation to axilla?

A

mitral regurge

common clinical features include exertional dyspnea, fatigue, a fib, and heart failure signs

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312
Q

dyspepsia?

A

fullness or discomfort after eating, often associated w/ nausea and sxs of GERD like heartburn. Definitive dx often requires endoscopy but should be saved for patients w/ alarm symmptoms (weigh tloss, bleeding, anemia, vomiting, early satiety). most can get tested for H pylori and given PPI

313
Q

intermittent cramping RUQ ain

A

gallstones/biliary disease. dx w/ ultrasound

314
Q

hepatic adenoma

A

women on long term OCP

315
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma

A

systemic sxs, chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, elevated alfa fetoprotein

316
Q

gout crystals

A

negatively birefringent

common complication of myeloproliferative disorders due 2 excessive turnover or purines that result in more uric acid production

317
Q

sxs of polycythemia vera

A

pruritis after hot baths, headaches, hepatoslenomegaly, can also cause gout (up to 40%).

318
Q

pseudogout

A

Usually affects large joints like knee. Crystals are positively birefringent.

chondrocalcinosis and calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition often 2/2 hyperPTH. Can also be caused by hemochromatosis

319
Q

paget’s disease

A

can cause bone probs

elevated alk phos

320
Q

androgen produced predominantly by the adrenal?

A

DHEA-S

321
Q

serum PTH, calcium, and phosphorus in osteomalacia

A

low Ca, low Phos, elevated PTH
due to decreased intestinal calcium and phos absorption –> secondary hyperparathyroidism
due to low 25-OH vitamin D.

322
Q

paget’s disease

A

can cause

elevated alk phos

323
Q

triggers for bronchoconstriction in pts w/ asthma?

A

beta blockers and aspirin

324
Q

pulsus paradoxus indicates?

A

tamponade. exaggerated decrease (>10) in arterial BP w/ inspiration

325
Q

systolic ejection murmur that radiates to carotids, decrescendo

A

Aortic stenosis.

palpation of peripheral pulses reveals pulsus parvus et tardus (rises gradually and has delayed peak).

326
Q

triggers for bronchoconstriction in pts w/ asthma?

A

beta blockers and aspirin

327
Q

name three direct thrombin inhibitors

A

dabigatran, bivalirudin, argatroban

328
Q

name 3 factor xa inhibitors

A

rivaroxaban, apixaban, fondaparinux

329
Q

treatment for high triglycerides

A

niacin! side effect causes prostaglandin, flushing and itching. take aspirin like 39 mins before.

330
Q

clinical features of bronchiectasis

A

cough w/ lots of sputum production, rhinosinusitis, dyspnea, hemoptysis, pleurisy, wheezing, clubbing.. Cough often response to abx. But comes back!

331
Q

etiologies of bronchiectasis

A

obstruction (e.g., cancer) of airway, congenital (CF, alpha 1 antitrypsin), immunodeficiency, post infx, rheumatic (RA, sjogren), toxic

dx w/ CT, shows bronchial dilation and wall thickening. then you can analyze sputum and stuff.

332
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A

Type of B lymphocyte derived chronic leukmia. Lymphocytes - on tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) stain, have fine hairy projections. Fibrotic bone marrow.

Tx: Cladribine, toxic to bone marrow

333
Q

non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma regimen

A

CHOP

334
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia regimen

A

Chlorambucil and prednisone.

335
Q

features of narcolepsy

A

poor REM sleep, excessive sleepiness but they also suffer from cataplexy, sleep attacks, hallucinations, and sleep paralysis

336
Q

Pickwickian syndrome

A

obesity hypoventilation syndrome

chronically elevated PaCO2 and low PaO2

337
Q

tinea versicolor

A

caused by malassezia globosa in hot/humid weather
- hypopigmentation, or hyper, or midly red.
- can have fine scale, can have pruritis. Usually on trunk.
Dx: KOH prep shows “spaghetti and meatballs”
Tx: ketoconazole, or selenium sulfide

338
Q

Pityriasis rosea

A

oval, fawn colored plaques, “christmas tree patern”. Herald patch followed by eruption 1-2 weeks later

339
Q

Tinea corporis

A

ringworm, ring shaped lesions w/ scaly border and central clearing

340
Q

Seborrheic dermatitis

A

dry scales w/ underlying erythema. Scalp, central face, presternal, etc commonly involved. No changes in pigmentation

341
Q

Vitiligo

A

total depigmentation around mouth or fingertips

342
Q

Pituitary causes of hypopituitarism

A

adenoma, mass, infiltration (hemochromatosis, lymphocytic hypophysitis), hemorrhage (pituitary apoplexy), infarct (sheehan)

343
Q

signs of ACTH deficiency

A

secondary adrenal insufficiency: postural hypotension, tachy, fatigue, weight loss, hypoglycemia, eosinophilia

344
Q

pts w/ gonnorrhea/chlamydia should also be tested for?

A

HIV, RPR, pap, hep BSAg

345
Q

tzanck smear?

A

diagnose HSV on active genital lesions

346
Q

initial tx for chronic venous disease

A

leg elevation, exercise, compression stockings

347
Q

heart sound heard in most patients during acute phase of MI

A

s4

348
Q

signs of neurogenic claudication

A

posture dependent, lumbar extension worsens pain (downhill), lumbar flexion relieves pain (bend forward), LE numbness, weakness, tingling, low back pain

349
Q

Signs of vascular claudication

A

depends on exertion, relieved w/ rest, not w/ bending forwards, LE cramping/tight, no significant lower E weakness, decreased pulses, cool extremities. Dx w/ ankle brachial index

350
Q

treatment of choice in pts w/ ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT

A

early defibrillation

351
Q

treatment of cardiac arrest w/ PEA?

A

first line is IV epi or vasopressin. Second line is IV lidocaine

352
Q

when do we used synchronized cardioversion?

A

symptomatic or sustained monomorphic VT (unresponsive to antiarrhythmics) and hemodynamically unstable a fib w/ RVR

353
Q

areas of chloroquine resistant P falciparum and 3 tx options

A

sub saharan, southeast asia.

Use atovaquone-proguanil (LFTs)
Doxy (Gi probs, sun sensitivity)
Mefloquine (PREGNANCY! USE THIS) w/ neurospych effects

354
Q

areas w/out p falciparum

A

primaquine

south america, mexico, okorea

primaquine can cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD

355
Q

organism responsible for endocarditis on prosthetic valves, IV catheters, implanted devices, drug users?

A

s aureus

356
Q

organism responsible for IE 2/2 dental and resp tract biopsy?

A

strep viridans

357
Q

organism responsible for endocaritis from valves, pacemakers, etc?

A

coag negative staph

aka staph epidermidis

358
Q

IE organism in IBD?

A

strep bovis

359
Q

coxiella burnetii

A

rickettsia that cause Q fever from livestock,

360
Q

features of post strep GN

A

10-20 days after strep throat or skin infx. Periorbital swelling, hematuria, oliguria. LOW C3 complement.

361
Q

features of drug induced interstitial nephritis

A

Drugs like penicillins, cephalosporins, sulfonamides, rash, arthralgia.
eosinophilia, sterile pyruaia, WBC casts

362
Q

features of IgA nephropathy

A

hematuria after URI, normal complement.

363
Q

features of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

A

uncommon. causes hematuria and low complement.

364
Q

serious complication of warfarin?

A

skin necrosis
sometimes associated w/ Protein C deficiency. Involves breasts, butt thighs abd
bullae and skin necrosis. GIVE VITAMIN K

365
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum

A

ulcerative skin lesion, often “bite like” w/ small papule or pustule. Pain . malaise and arthralgia

366
Q

hypernatremia tx

A

if volume down: normal saline until euvolemic then d5%

if euvolemic, straight to 5% dextrose of FWB

367
Q

kidney SE of lithium?

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (inadquate ADH response)

368
Q

what is a water deprivation test?

A

differentiates between central vs nephrogenic DI.

don’t drink, can use desmopressin to see if they respond (central) or not (nephrogeni)

369
Q

SE of protease inhibitors (HIV) like indinavir

A

crystal induced nephropathy

370
Q

SE of didanosine (HIV tx)

A

pancreatitis

371
Q

abacavir SE

A

hypersensitivity syndrome

372
Q

NRTI (hiv med) SE?

A

lactic acidosis

373
Q

SE of NNRTI ?

A

stevens jonson

374
Q

Nevirapine (hiv med) se?

A

liver failure

375
Q

pericardial effusion EKG signs?

A

electrical alternans (varying size of QRS complex) due to heart swinging back and forth in the fluid

376
Q

antiarrhthmic used in WPW

A

procainamide

377
Q

synchronized direct current cardioversion used for what?

A

a fib, a flutter, stable monomorphic vtach

378
Q

sxs of reactive arthritis

A

1-4 weeks after GI or GU infx with oligoarthritis, conjunctivitis, and oral lesions

379
Q

difference between TEN and SJS?

A

Ten involves >30% of body surface area

380
Q

erythema multiforme

A

target like lesions usually after HSV infx

381
Q

causes of secondary hypertension

A
renal parenchymal disease
renovascular disease
primary aldo
pheo
cushing
hypothyroid
primary hyperparathyroid
coarctation of aorta
382
Q

what cancer is associated w/ ectopic ACTH production

A

small cell lung cancer –> cushings

383
Q

dexamethasone suppression test?

A

helps determine wehter elevated ACTH is pituitary or ectopic

384
Q

primary HIV infection can resemble what?

A

EBC. Rash and diarrhea less common in mono and tonsillar exudates uncommon in primry HIV

385
Q

test for hyperaldo?

A

(PRA/PRC) = aldo/renin activity ratio (comes from cortex)
>20:1 suggests primary hyperaldo
prompts CT of adrenals or MR of abdomen
ADRENAL VEIN SAMPLING
if no adenoma – bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

386
Q

adrenal cortex mnemonic

A

salt-sugar-sex (G-F-R)

387
Q

management for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

A

spironolactone or eplerenone

388
Q

renovascular disease / renal artery stenosis

A
  • fibromuscular dysplasia (young women)
  • also can be 2/2 atherosclerosis
  • dx: doppler of renal arteries or angiography
389
Q

fibromuscular dysplasia

A

renal vascular disease, non atherosclerotic narrowing of renal arteries - in young 30 female patients.

390
Q

drugs that cause hypertension

A

NSAIDs, ephedirne,

391
Q

CXR showing widened mediastinum

A

aortic dissection

392
Q

pulsus paradoxis

A

sign of cardiac tamponade

393
Q

sxs of papillary muscle dysfunction?

A

left sided heart failure due to mitral regurge 2/2 MI

394
Q

triggers for hyperbilirubinemia in gilbers

A

hemolysis, fasting, or fat free diet, physical exertion, fever, stress, fatigue

395
Q

Crigler Najjar type one

A

AR, causing severe jaundice and kernicterus in infants. Liver transplant is only curative option

396
Q

crigler najjar type two

A

milder version than type one, survival into adult hood w/ out kernicteris. giving PHENOBARBITAL reduces serum bili.

397
Q

Rotor syndrome

A

benign, defect of hepatic storange of conjugated bili leading to plasma leakage. LFTs normal, treatment unnecessary

398
Q

Five types of chest pain and their features: CAD, pleurisy, aortic, esophageal, chest wall

A
CAD: exertion, relieved w/ nitro
Pleuritic: pericarditis worse when flat, sharp/stabbing, worse w/ inspiration
Aortic: Sudden, tearing, back
Esoph: Nocturnal
CW: repetive activity, worse w/ movement
399
Q

most common behavioral risk factor for TB?

A

substance abuse!

shows upper lobe cavitatry lesions
mycobacteria!

400
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia

A

subacute fever, dyspnea, cough in patients CD4

401
Q

what do HIV patients have a lower risk for?

A

autoimmune granulomatous diseases like sarcoid

402
Q

hydroxychloroquine side effect

A

retinopathy - ophthalmologic evaluation necessary

TNF and IL1 suppressor

403
Q

two drugs that cause ototoxicity

A

aminoglycosides and platinum chemo

404
Q

features of thyroid storm

A

high fever, tachy, HTN, CHF, arrhythmia, delirium, goiter lid lag, tremor, NV/V, jaundice

405
Q

treatment of thyroid storm

A

propanolol, PTU

glucocorticoids to decrease T4 to T3 conversion

406
Q

causes of thyroid storm

A

surgery, trauma, infx in people with unddiagnosed or inadequately treated hyperthyroid

407
Q

clinical features of malignant hypertension

A

hypercarbia, sinus tachy, muscle rigidity, high CK, hyperkalemia, hyperthermia

408
Q

features of metabolic syndrome

A

HTN, impaired fasting glucose, abdominal obesity, dyslipidemia - insulin resistance plays a significant role

409
Q

6 organ systems effected by sarcoid

A
lungs
skin
eyes (uveitis)
liver
kidney
heart
 - also lymph nodes
especially in young aftrican american women
410
Q

cor pulmonale etiologies

A

COPD (most common), ILD, pulmonary vascular disease, OSH

411
Q

cor pulmonale sxs

A

DOE, fatigue, exertional syncope and angina

on exam: edema, JVP w/ prominent A wave, loud S2, right sided heave, pulsatile liver from congestion, tricuspid regurg

412
Q

Cor pulmonale EKG

A

RBBB, RAD, RVH, RA enlargement

413
Q

what is cor pulmonale?

A

impaired function of the RV caused by pulmonary hypertension from underlying lung disease, vascular disease, or OSH.

note: r sided heart failure 2/2 left is NOT considered cor pulmonale

414
Q

chronic liver disease associated sxs:

A

palmar erythema, spider angiomata, caput medusae, gynecomastia

415
Q

what does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure estimate?

A

left ventricular end diastolic pressure, it’s elevated in people w/ LV systolic or diastolic function. Usually these patients have pulmonary edema

416
Q

signs of right sided heart failure:

A

JVP, S3, tricuspid regurge, hepatomegaly w/ pulsatile liver, LE edema or pleural effusion

echo shows signs of Right heart pressure elevation and right cath will show pulmonary systolic greater than 25

417
Q

“hot potato voice” and uvula deviation

A

peritonsillar abscess, drain it! and IV abx

418
Q

sxs of epiglottitis

A

dysphagia, muffled voice, but unlikely to have uvula deviation w/ unilateral lymphadenopaathy

419
Q

sxs of hypercalcemia

A

fatigue, constipation, calcium kidney stone

420
Q

pseudogout?

A

caused by calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in joint space, common for HPT w/ chronic hypercalcemia. p/w knee pain, with RHOMBOID shaped crystals

421
Q

gout crystals?

A

needle shaped w/ negative birefringence

422
Q

sxs of acute cholangitis

A

fever, jaundice, RUQ pain (charcot triad)
confusion and hypotension (reynolds pentad)
liver failure, AKI

423
Q

Dx of acute cholangitis

A

increased alk phos, biliary dilation on US or CT, GGT, high direct bili

424
Q

tx of acute cholangitis

A

supportive care, abx, biliary drainage.

425
Q

tx for alcohol w/drawal

A

chlordiazepoxide

other benzos

426
Q

prinzmetal’s angina

A

pain wakes you up from sleep. caused by coronary vasopspasm, typically in young females, smoking biggest risk. Tx includes CCB or nitrates like diltiazem. transient ST elevation on ECG

427
Q

tx for thrombolysis in STEMI

A

percutaneous coronary intervention, if not, STREPTOKINASE

428
Q

what is panendoscopy

A

esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy to detect primary HEENT tumors

429
Q

type of cancer in neck?

A

often squamous cell carcinoma, associated w/ smoking and booze

430
Q

type of metastatic breast cancer?

A

usually metastatic adenocarcinoma

431
Q

sxs of SVC syndrome

A

dyspnea, venous congestion, head/neck/arm swelling. Usually from small cell lung cancer or non-hodgkin lymphoma.

432
Q

Beck’s triad

A

JVD, distant heart souds, hypotension = cardiac tamponade

433
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum

A

neutrophilic ulcerative skin disease. Most have underlying systemic disorder like IBD, RA, or heme conditions like AML. Skin biopsy

Tx: systemic corticosteroids

434
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

A

hemorrhagic pustules and nectoric ulcers. Usually from PSEUDOMONAS, in s/o neutropenia

435
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa

A

axilla, groin or scalp lesions, inflammatory nodules/abscesses w/ purulent drainage

436
Q

sporotrichosis

A

fungal skin infx acquired usually from rose bushes or other plans. Small papule usually and or arm, can ulcerate and spread via lymphatics

437
Q

immediate tx for aortic dissection

A

labetalol. lowers BP and heart rate to minimize stress on aortic wall

438
Q

what is a stanford type B aortic dissection?

A

descending aorta only, can usually be managed w/ medical therapy alon

439
Q

hydrlazine and nifedipine can both do what?

A

vasodilate

440
Q

what is streptokinase

A

thrombolytic

441
Q

disruption of tunica albuginea

A

penile fracture

442
Q

how does prevalence influence PPV?

A

higher prevalence leads to greater PPV

lower prevalence leads to leads to higher false positive rates

443
Q

tx for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

low dose prednisone

444
Q

how do FM and polymyalgia rheumatica differ?

A

PR has elevated ESR, FM is not an inflammatory condition

445
Q

FM treatment for patients who don’t improve w/ exercise

A

duloxetine, TCAs

446
Q

colon cancer screening in pts w/ high risk?

A

IBD: 8 yrs post dx, q1-2 years
FAP: age 10-12, every year
Lynch: age 20 q1-2
family hx of CRC or polyps: q3-5 yrs after age 40 or 10 yrs before earliest onset

447
Q

foot stress fracture sxs

A

insidious, focal navicular pain, females w/ eating disorder/athletes

448
Q

plantar fascitis

A

plantar surface of hel

449
Q

morton neuroma

A

common in runners. numbness/ain between 3rd/4th toes, clicking sensation when palpating space between toes while squeezing joints

450
Q

tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

compression of tibial nerve at ankle, burning/numbness/achking of distal plantar surface of toes

451
Q

drugs commonly associated w/ SJS

A

sulfa, NSAIDs, anticonvulsants, allopurinol

452
Q

impetigo

A

caused by staph aureus, red macules/papules w/ honey colored crust

453
Q

what movement improves acute pericarditis pain

A

leaning forward

454
Q

TB skin cutoffs

A

15 w/ no exposures
10 if higher risk
5 if HIV/txplant/known exposure

455
Q

therapy for active pulmonary TB

A

isoniazid, rifampin, ethambultol, pyrazinamide for two months. then follow w/ I/R for another four months

456
Q

kind of drug is pyridamole

A

antiplatelet

457
Q

meds to hold in cardiac stress test

A

Beta blockers, CCB, nitrates, and if vasoldilator stress test hold dipyridamole and caffeine (12 hours only). Can continue ACE I, ARB, digoxin, statin, diuretic

458
Q

antibody test for drug induced lupus?

A

anti-histone; except not for minocycline induced

459
Q

antibody useful in distinguishing RA from SLE in joint symptom predominance?

A

anti-cyclic citrullinated ABs

460
Q

Features of blastomycosis

A
FUNGAL
Lung: pneumo
Skin: warts/violaceous nodules/ulcers
Bone: Osteomyelitis
GU: prostatitis, epididymo orchitis
CNS: meningitis/eidural/brain abscess

disseminated disease can occur in pts w/ out immunosuppression

south/south central, mississippi and ohio, upper midwest, great lakes and canada

461
Q

nocardia infection:

A

GPosR, , weakly acid fast. presents as subacute pneumo, mimics TB. usually immunocompromised

462
Q

Actinomyces

A

GPosR, causes abscesses at head and neck w/ granular yellow pus “sulfur granules”

463
Q

fungal infection in desert southwest and central valley of calfornia?

A

coccidiomycosis

464
Q

mississippi and ohio river valley mycosis?

A

histoplasmosis

usually disseminated papular crusigng skin lesions in immunocompromised

465
Q

fungal infx from central US?

A

blastomycosis.

causes well circumscribed verrucous nodules and plaques tat become microabscesses

466
Q

diagnosis of what type of pleural effusion?

A

thoracocentesis to determine exudative vs transudative.

unless they have obvious heart failure then you don’t

467
Q

wat do you do if thoracocentesis is not diagnostic for a pleural effusion?

A

bronchoscopy but it requires sedation and is more invasive

468
Q

sxs of digoxin toxicity

A

anorexia, N/V, abd pain, LIFE THREATENING ARRHYTHMIA, fatigue, confusion, weakness, color vision alterations

469
Q

tx for systemic cellulitis

A

IV nafcillin. don’t use penicillin G cause it’s probably resistant. Cefazolin is also a tx of choice

470
Q

what do negative birefringent (gout) crystals look like on photo?

A

yellow when parallel, blue when perpendicular

needle shaped

471
Q

neuropathic (charcot) arthropathy?

A

destructive arthritis in patients w/ longstanding diabetes who have peripheral neuropathy and vasculopathy. Ankle involvement more common than knee. no crystals

472
Q

sarcoid arthritis features

A

usually ankles, symmetric. gradual onset, noncaseating granulomas in synovial membrane

473
Q

when you retain bicarb what electrolyte goes down?

A

chloride!

474
Q

pathognomonic finding of crohn’s > UC

A

noncaseating granulomas

also UC always involves rectum, whereas rectum is usually spared in crohns

475
Q

Presentation of acute limb ischemia

A

The 6 Ps: Pain, pallor, poikilothermia (cool extremity), paresthesia, pulselessness, and paralysis. Usually from thromboembolic occlusion 2/2 a fib

476
Q

ankle brachial index

A

often used as screening tool in patients w/ suspected PAD to compare ratio of systolic pressure in ankle to that in the arm

477
Q

four causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia

A

volume depleition (acute blood loss), primary adrenal insufficiency, GI losses, renal losses (ie diuretics)

478
Q

four causes of euvolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH, primary polydipsia, 2ndary adrenal insufficiency, hypothyroid

479
Q

three causes of hypervolemic yponatremia

A

CHF, cirrhosis, CKD or nephrotic syndrome

480
Q

what primarily controls ADH secretion?

A

plasma osmolarity, or significant hypovolemi

481
Q

tx for stable recurrent or refractory wide complex tachycardia?

A

IV amiodorone or procainamide, but don’t use inp atients with hypotesion or hemodynamic instability

482
Q

when do we use unsynchroinzed cardioversion

A

cardiac arrest, pulseless ventricular tachycardia,

483
Q

major side effect of heparin

A

autoimmune disorder, type 2 HIT- heparin induced thrombocytopenia
switch to argatroban or fondaparinux

dx: serotonin release assay

484
Q

features of inferior MI

A

ST elevation in inferior leads, papillary muscle dispplacement leading to MR and pulmonary edema
leads to elevated LV end diastolic pressure or filling pressure

485
Q

what are achalasia and pseudoachalasia

A

achalasia - loss of peristalsis in distal esophagus w/ lack of LES relaxation 2/2 denervation
Pseudoachalasia - narrowing of esophagus due to esophageal cancer (not denervation)

486
Q

when do you use esophageal pH monitoring?

A

to confirm GERD in pts w/ GERD symptoms but who fail PPI therapy.

487
Q

what is laparascopic myomotomy?

A

tx of choice for pts w/ achalasia who are at low surgical risk.

488
Q

dubin johnson syndrome and rotor syndrome

A

conjugated hyperbilirubinemia w/ normal ALT/AST and alk phos

489
Q

rotor syndrome

A

rare, benign hereditary condition w/ chronic conjugated hyperbili due to defect in hepatic secretion of conjugated bilirubin.. No tx needed.

490
Q

elevated unconjugated bilirubin shows up in urine how?

A

urobilinogen

USUALLY no bilirubin is seen on UA, but if there is a plasma buildup of conjugated bili, it can leak into urin and cause + bilirubin assay

491
Q

what does hemolysis do to bilirubin

A

elevated unconjugated with positive urobilinogen assay and negative bilirubin assay

492
Q

tx for giardia

A

metronidazole

cipro for travelers e coli

493
Q

testing to rule out tropical sprue?

A

upper endoscopy w/ small bowel biopsy

494
Q

main effects of thyrotoxicosis

A

T3 increases crdic activity and increses sensitivity to circulating catecholmines. by increasing expression of beta 1 drenergic receptor activity

495
Q

treatment with KOH (lye) poisoning

A

will be neutraolized in stomach so only really worry about the esophagus – do endoscopy and take serial X rays of chest to monitor for perforation.

496
Q

leukoplakia

A

reactive precancerous lesion in the mouth representing squamous epithelial hyperplasia. white granular patch or placque over buccal mucosa. doesn’t scrape

497
Q

aphthous stomatitis

A

canker sores

498
Q

best non medication treatment for HTN

A

weight loss. 5-20 systolic drops per 10kg loss

499
Q

tx for suspected variceal hemorrhage

A

volume
IV octreotide
Abx

if continued bleeding–>urgent endoscopic therapy including baloon tamponade (temporary), TIPs or shunt surgery

500
Q

octreotide

A

somatostatin analogue that inhibits the release of vasodilator hormones, leading to indirectly to splanchnic vasoconstriction and decreased portal flow

can be used in immediate tx of esoph variceal bleed

501
Q

cystinuria

A

impaired amino acid transport of basic amino acids, leads to cystein stones and positive cyanide nitroprusside test

502
Q

hexagon urinary stones

A

cysteine

503
Q

urinary cyanide nitroprusside test

A

cystetine stones

504
Q

acute tx of a fib in pts w/ WPW

A

hemodynamically unstble: cardioversion

stable: procainamide

505
Q

adenosine does what?

A

AV nod blocking.

506
Q

indication for lidocaine in arrhythmi?

A

ventricular arrythmias

507
Q

hyperaldo screening test

A

PAC/PRA ratio (aldo over renin activity). Over twenty suggests primary hyperaldo. Then try w/ drenal suppression testing. Tehn adrenal imagine w/ CT If no mass, then adrenal vein sampling. Surgery for adenoma, medical therapy for hyperplasia

508
Q

lambert eaton syndrome

A

progressively worsening proximal muscle weakness, fatigue, ptosis, autonomic dysfunction. associated w/ lung cancer

509
Q

dx pheo?

A

plasma free metanephrines

510
Q

pericardial knock

A

sound heard in mid diastole associated w/ constrictive pericarditis

511
Q

calcifications on pericardium

A

constrictive pericarditis

512
Q

sxs of constrictive pericarditis

A

R heart failure, progressive edema, ascites, JVD, pericardial knock (middiastolic) and pericardial calcifications on CXR

513
Q

melanosis coli

A

dark discoloration of the colon w/ lymph patches shining through, characteristic of factitious diarrhea 2/2 lax abuse

514
Q

signs of worsening liver failure

A

worsening PT/INR and bilirubin, encephlopathy INR single most important prognostic indicator

515
Q

medical tx for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

beta blockers, CCB like diltiazem is good second line

DONT GIVE nitrates cause they decrease preload which excerbates the problem

516
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

NORMALLY systemic arterial pressure falls

517
Q

left circumflex artery ECG leads

A

V4-V6

518
Q

dual antiplatelet therapy

A

DAPT - aspirin plu P2Y12 receptor blocker (ex: clopidogrel, ticagrelor, prasugrel)

519
Q

PPE-5 inhibitors

A

contraindicated in patients on nitrates for risk of hypotension. Ex: milrinone

520
Q

pneumaturia

A

air in the urine, cna happen 2/2 colovesical fistula

521
Q

malignant otitis externa

A

severe infx in elderly dibeteics mostly 2/2 pseudomonas. Ear pain/drainage, granulation tissue, can lead to osteomyelitis of skull and CN damage. tx cipro

522
Q

rhizopus infection

A

in poorly controlled diaabetics, begin in paranasal sinuses and extend to orbit and brain

523
Q

cyclosporine side effects

A
nephrotoxicity is most serious. rarely HUS
Hypertension (renal vasoconstriction) tx w/ CCB
Neurotox
Glucose intolerance
Infxn
Malignncy (squamous cel carcinoma)
Gingivial hypertrophy
GI manifestations
524
Q

what SE does cyclosporine have that tacro doesnt?

A

hirsuitism and gu hyperlasia

has higher incidence of neurotix and diarrhea

525
Q

MOA of azathioprine

A

purine analog, inhibits purine synth

SE: diarrhea, leukopeni, heypatotox

526
Q

MOA of cyclosporine and tacro

A

calcineurin inhibitors

527
Q

Major toxicity of azothioprine

A

dose related diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotox

528
Q

major side effect of mycophenolate

A

Marrow suppression

prevents purine synthesis

529
Q

rhizopus causes what infx

A

mucormycosis - requires debridement and IV amphotericin

530
Q

best tx for duodenal ulcers

A

abx and PPIs (omeprazole, pantoprazole).

DUs are worse on empty stomach and get better with eating, this is oppositive of gastric

531
Q

when do you do selective vagotomy

A

when hpylori and ppi treatment don’t work for gastric ulcers

532
Q

in aftermath of MI what have ACE I’s been shown to do?

A

limit ventricular remodeling.

533
Q

isosorbide dinitrate

A

long acting nitrate to help with angiinal pain

534
Q

strep mutans

A

viridans group strep, usually highly susceptible to penicillin, can be treated w/ IV Pen G or ceftriaxone.

535
Q

infective endocarditis tx

A

four weeks of iv antibiotics

536
Q

how does demclocycline work?

A

decreases renal responsiveness to ADH at the collecting tubule.

537
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

type I HSR, eosinophils
associated w/ asthma and eczema

NASAL POLYPS seen in repeated rhinitis. If you see kids w/ nasal polyps test them for CF

538
Q

nasal polyps in adults

A

think of Aspirin intolerant asthma

539
Q

nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

epithelial, associated w/ EBV
african children and chinese adults most comon

enlarged cervical LN
bx shows pleomorphic keratin positive epithelial cells in BG of lymphos

540
Q

croup caused by?

A

parainfluenza, barking cough

541
Q

laryngeal papilloma

A

benign papillary tumor of vocal cord, HPV 6 and 11, single in adults and multiple in kids
p/w hoarseness

542
Q

laryngeal carcinoma

A

squamous cell, alcohol and tobacco

p/w hoarse, cough and stridor

543
Q

lobar and bronchopnenumonia

A

usually bacteria

lobar: strep pneumo and klebsiella pneumo

544
Q

interstitial pneumonia aka atypical

A
usually viral, mild sxs
- mycoplasma pneumo - can cause AIHA (IgM), no gram
- chlamydia
RSV, 
CMV - post txplant
545
Q

klebsiella pneumo

A

usually in elderly in nursing homes, alcoholics, diabetics. thick mucoid capsules in gelatinous sputum (currant jelly) often w/ abscess

546
Q

lung stem cell

A

type II pneumocyte

547
Q

causes of broncho pneumonia

A
s. aureus (abscess and empyema)
h flu (COPD)
pseudomonas (esp CF pts)
moraxella (COPD or CAP)
legionella - water source, silver stain intracellular organism
548
Q

coxiella pneumo

A

Q fever (high fever) atypical pneumo in famrers and vets from spores, heat resistant spore, no rash

549
Q

aspiration pneumo

A

alcoholics, comatose, usually anaerobes from oropharynx
bacterioides, fusobacterium, peptococsu
usually RLL and abscess

550
Q

ghon complex

A

calcified subpleural nodules from primary TB

551
Q

TB high yield spread

A

meninges - base of brain
Cervical LN -
Kidney - sterile pyruia
Lumbar vertebrae - pott disease

552
Q

FVC

A

ie how much you would blow out candles on a birthday cake

553
Q

airway obstruction

A

low FVC, lower FEV1, low ratio, increased TLC (air traping)

554
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

productive cough for at least 3 months over a minimum of two years. TONS of mucus. Smoking related.

cyanosis, increased PaCO2 and decreased PaO2

increased risk of cor pulmonale

555
Q

Reid index

A

how much of the lung bronchi are mucinous vs epithelium. is high >50% in chronic bronchitis

556
Q

emphysema

A

destruction of alveolar air sacs a loss of elastic recoil leading to air trapping

caused by imbalance of proteases and antiproteases (alpha 1 antitrypsin)

centriacinar (smokers, upper lobes) vs panacinar (A1AT deficiency, lower lobes)

two causes: 1) smokers
2) alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency PAS+ globules in liver

557
Q

clinical features of emphysema

A

dyspnea w/ minimal sputum. pursed lips “Pink puffer” to create backpressure and keep airway open. Barrel chest
FRC is increased because you lose elastic recoil of lung and chest wall pulls out

558
Q

asthma pathogenesis

A

TH2 cells secrete IL4, IL5, IL10. IgE class switch from Ig4, Il-5 brings in eos. IL 10 induces TH2 activity.

IgE mediated activation of mast cells–>histamine.

charcot-leyden crystals!

559
Q

Aspirin intolerant asthma

A

bronchospasm from aspirin! also get nasal polyps

560
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

permanent dilation of bronchioles 2/2:
CF,
tumor,
necrotizing infx,
kartagener syndrome (cilia dyenin arm - situs inversus),
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis –> seen in asthmatics and patients w/ CF

loss of airway tone –> air trapping
(ex: breathing through a straw versus out of a tube the size of your face)

561
Q

kartagener syndrome

A

dynein problems leading to situs inversus and cilia probs

562
Q

restrictive lung disease

A

problem with FILLING the lung
decreased total lung capacity
decreased FVC, decreased FEV 1
FEV/FVC is increased >80%

563
Q

types of restrictive lung disease

A
usually interstitial
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
pneumoconioses
sarcoidoses
hypersensitivity pneumonitis
564
Q

types of obstructive lung disease

A

problem EMPTYING the lung

emphysema, asthma, chronic bornchitis, bronchiectasis

565
Q

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

thick fibrosed interstitium, cyclical lung injury. 2/2 TGF beta from injured pneumocytes

must first exclude drug causes 2/2 drugs like bleomycin and amiodarone

566
Q

IPF

A

fibrosis on lung CT, subpleural initially,

tx lung translant

567
Q

pneumoconioses

A
lung interstitial fibrosis 2/2 occupational exposure small particles , macrophage mediated
coal workers
silicosis
berylliosis
asbestosis
568
Q

Caplan syndrome

A

black lung plus rheumatoid arthritis

569
Q

anthrocosis

A

buildup of coal within the macrophages

570
Q

silica in macrophages causes

A

SILCOSIS! impairs formation of phagolysosome

only one that increases your risk of TB

571
Q

beryilliosis

A

noncaseating granulomas in the lung, hilar ln, and systemic organs. Looks just like sarcoidosis. If they work at NASA or something

572
Q

asbestosis

A

asbestos bodies long rod shaped particles, beading of iron. these peope much more likely to get lung cancer than mesothelioma but know bout them

573
Q

sarcoidosis

A

noncaseating in multiple organs, classically in African american females
epithelioid histiocytes
*asteroid body looks like a little fluffy cloud.
leads to restricive lung disease

also involves uvea, skin, salivary/lacrimal glands (mimicrs sjogren)

elevated serum ACE, hypercalcemia (because granulomas can activate vitamin D),

574
Q

hyersensitivity pneumonitis

A

granulomatous rxn in lung, often associated w/ birds

eosinophils

575
Q

BMPR2 inactivating mutation

A

familial pulmonary hypertension

576
Q

causes of secondary pulmonary TN

A

hypoxemia, recurrent pulmonary embolism

577
Q

ARDS

A

damage to alveolar capilary interface, protein rich fluid then leaks into and forms a hyaline membrane. Thickened diffusion barrier –> hypoxemia/cyanosis. Lung collapsing!

DIC, infection, shock, trauma.
ACTIVATING OF NEUTROPHILS type one and two pneumocytes damage
tx: address underlying cause, ventilation w/ PEEP

578
Q

midwest coin lesion?

A

histoplasma vs cancer

579
Q

bronchial hamartoma

A

lung tissue and cartilage, calcified on imagine - benign

580
Q

non small cell tx

A
doesn't respond well to chemo, surgical resection is better
- adenocarcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
large cell carcinoma
carcinoid tumor
581
Q

small cell carcinoma

A

poorly differentiated, male smokers, SIADH, eaton lambert, , ACTH

582
Q

squamous cell carcinoma lung

A

associated with PTHrP

583
Q

lung adenocarcinoma

A

most common in non smokers and in female smokers. peripheral location in lung

584
Q

large cell carcinoma

A

smoking, central or peripheral, poor porgnosis

585
Q

bronchioloalveolar carcinoma

A

columnar cells, preexisting small airways, arises from clara scells, peripheral.. looks like pneumonia consolidation on imaging, excellent prognosis

586
Q

carcinoid tumor fo lung

A

well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor. chromogranin positive, neuroendocrine. low grade malignancy. POLYP LIKE MASS IN BRONCHUS.

can rarely cause carcinoid syndrome

587
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A

Copyright (c) UWorld, Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

usually from intestine can be from lung

588
Q

most common sources of metastasis to lungs

A

breast and colon. more common than primary

589
Q

lung likes to mets to what weird site?

A

adrenals

590
Q

4 local complications of lung cancer

A
  • pleural involvement -adeno
  • SVC syndrome
  • recurrent laryngeal or phrenic nerve compression
  • pancoast tumor - horners
591
Q

tension pneumothorax

A

air can go in but not out -put in chest tube

592
Q

mesothelioma

A

presents w/ recurren pleural effusions, dyspnea, chest pain, tumor encases the lung

593
Q

stable angina

A

reversible chest pain, only on exertion or w/ emotional distress (not at rest). represents reversible injury to myocytes >70 % stenosis

594
Q

ekg changes in stable (and unstable) angina?

A

ST depression

relieved by rest or nitroglycerin

595
Q

unstable angina

A

chest pain that occurs at risk, incomplete occlusion of coronary artery. due to atherosclerotic rupture then thrombosis.

596
Q

tx for prinzmetal angina

A

CCB or nitroglycerin

EKG shows ST elevation

597
Q

MI

A

necrosis of cardiac myocytes, complete occlusion of coronary artery, can happen from vasculitis, vasosasm, clots, emboli

598
Q

LAD coronary artery

A

most common involved in MI

599
Q

troponin timing

A

rises 2-4 hours, peaks at 24, back to normal by 7-10 days

600
Q

CK-MB timing

A

rises 4-6 hours after, peaks at 24, returns to normal by 72 hours

useful because we know if it’s a second infarction

601
Q

tx for MI

A

asa/heparin
O2
nitrates - dilate veins, decrease preload
beta blocker - arrhytmia is feared comlication
ACE I - decrease afterload, prevent increase in blood volume

602
Q

2 post-MI complications

A

re perfusion of heart after MI can cause contraction band necrosis, contraction when you’re putting Ca back

Reerfusion injury - oxygen caused free radicals and caused increase of troponins

603
Q

papillary muscle fed by which artery?

A

right coronoary

appens day four to day seven if it ruptures

604
Q

rupture of ventricular free wall 2/2 MI leads to:

A

cardiac tamponade

605
Q

rupture of interventricular septum 2/2 MI leads to

A

shunt

606
Q

rupture of papillary muscle leads to

A

mitral insufficiency

607
Q

Dressler syndrome

A

inflammation in pericardium can lead to exposure of pericardium to the blood/immune system (was a previously protected antigen) leading to immune reaction to your own pericardium - pericarditis months after MI

608
Q

Roth spots

A

retinal hemorrhages, ocular spots found on IE

609
Q

gold standard dx for IE

A

transesophageal echo

610
Q

second most common valve in IE

A

aortic in ppl w/ bicuspid aorta and stenosis

611
Q

which valve more involved in ppl w/ IV drug use in IE

A

tricuspid regurge

612
Q

pulsus parvus and tardus

A

delayed, slow pulses 2/2 aortic stenosis

613
Q

exam findings of severe AS

A

pulsus parvus and tardus
mid to late peaking systolic murmur
soft S2

614
Q

mid to late diastolic murmur at cardiac apex w/ opening snap

A

mitral stenosis

615
Q

loud first heart sound heard in what valve prob?

A

mitral stenosis

616
Q

antibiotic for human bites?

A

amoxicillin-clavulanate (gram +)

617
Q

clindamycin coverage

A

gram positives and anaerobes. tx lung abscess, female genital tract

618
Q

Cipro coverage

A

bad against anaerobes

619
Q

tx for legionnaire disease

A

erythromycin

also CAP

620
Q

ascending aortic aneurysm associated with what heart sound

A

aortic regurgitation (diastolic murmur)

621
Q

interstitial cystitis

A

painful bladder syndrome, , p/w increased frequency, urgency, bladder pain w/ filling, relief w/ voiding, dyspareunia
tx: none really, amitryptiline, behavior modification

622
Q

stress incontinence

A

involuntary leakage of urine w/ exertion, sneezing, etc

623
Q

SE of loop diuretics?

A

low K and low Mg

624
Q

tx of lyme for those who can’t take doxy

A

amoxicillin ie pregnant/lactating

w/ neuro involvement that’s when you use cef

625
Q

Anterior MI vessel and leads

A

LAD, some or all of V1-V6

626
Q

Inferior MI vessel and leads

A

RCA or LCX, II, III, VF

627
Q

Posterior MI vessels and leads

A

LCX or RCA
Elevation in leads I and aVL (LCX)
Depressions in leads I and avL (RCA)

628
Q

RCA occlusion leads

A

depression in I and VL

629
Q

LCX posterior leads

A

ST elevation in leads I and aVL

630
Q

right ventricle MI

A

1/2 of inferior MI

RCA –> ST elevation in V4 to V6R

631
Q

Mobitz II AV block

A

second degree 2:1 , two p waves for every QRS. can be seen in RCA infarct which supplies the AV node

632
Q

EKG of acute pericarditis

A

PR depression and diffuse ST segment elevation

633
Q

which artery usually p/w sudden cardiac death?

A

left main coronary artery

634
Q

negative redicive value varies with what?

A

pretest probability of a disease

635
Q

features of systemic sclerosis

A

skin findings of scleroderma, thickening of hands and feet that spreads, fenal involvement/edema, raynaud, serious GERD.
ANA will be present, anti-topoisomerase-1

636
Q

antibodies associated w/ PBC?

A

antimitochondrial

637
Q

antibodies associated w/ wegeners polyangiitis?

A

ani-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies

638
Q

what is systemic sclerosis?

A

scleroderma w/ widespread organ involvement. Gerd, R heart failure, HTN2/2 kidnesy.

ana and anti-topoisomerase I abs

639
Q

what should b offered to patients with molluscum (poxvirus)?

A

HIV testing.

640
Q

cause of kaposi sarcoma?

A

coinfection w/ HIV and HHV8

641
Q

painless genital ulcer w/ lymphadenopathy

A

syphilis

dark field microscopy

642
Q

renal cell carcinoma sxs

A

flank pain, hematuria, palpable abdominal renal mass, scrotal varicoceles (left)

643
Q

paraneoplastic symptoms associated w/ RCC

A

anemia or erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, fever, hypercalcemia, cachexia

644
Q

amikacin

A

treats pyelo, aminoglycoside that can cause acute renal failure, used against mutli drug resistant bugs

645
Q

what do you see in the urine of people with AIN?

A

eosinophils and WBC casts

646
Q

HIV esophagigtis that’s SUPER painful swallowing

A

viral esophagitis w/ CMV or HSV

HSV: circular vesicular lesions in esohagus
CMV: large linear distal ulcers distally

647
Q

cryoglobulinemia features

A

hep C, low serum complement

palpable purpura, arthralgia, membranoproliferative GN

648
Q

polyarteritis nodosa

A

necrotizing vasculitis in small and medium vessles likely 2/2 deposition of circulating antigen/antibody immune comlexes in blood vessel walls, associated w hep B

649
Q

what leukemia associated w/ tartrate resistant acid phosphatase TRAP)

A

hairy cell leukemia

650
Q

angiodysplasia

A

cause of painless GI bleed; associated w/ advanced renal disease, vW disease, and aortic stenosis

651
Q

warm agglutinin AIHA etiologies

A

CLL, viral infx (HIV), autoimmune conditions (SLE), and drugs (penicillin). Usually have normocytic anemia, jaundice, , splenomegaly.

test w/ Coombs, showing usually IgG bound to surface of RBC

652
Q

tx for warm agglutinin

A

high dose prednisone

653
Q

cold agglutinin AIHA

A

cold temperatures! ischemia and peripheral gangrene, direct coombs positive with IGM or anti C3, levido reticularis, gets better w/ warming. etiology is infx (like mycoplasma and EBV) and lymphoproliferative dz

654
Q

hidradenitis suppurativa

A

acne inversa, chronic inflamm occlusion of skin follicles in the areas of the axilla, inguinal, genital perianla, perineum o rhair bearing skin. prurulent and gross, drainage.

655
Q

furunculosis

A

abscess of hair follicle, usually 2/2 s aureus. not chronic

656
Q

tx for pseudogout

A

intra-articular glucocorticoids, nsaids, colchicine.

associated w/ calcified cartilage on imagine.

657
Q

features of reactive arthritis

A

oligoarthritis, nongonoccocal urethritis, and conjunctivitis. Usaully follows acute GU or GI infx (yersinia, salmonella, chlmaymdia)

658
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

usually haloperidol. sdiaphoresis, leevated CK, musle tone, AMS. tx with dantrolene (muscle relaxant) followed by bromocrptine and amantadine

659
Q

pellagra

A

niacin deficiency, p/w photosensitive dermatitis, red tongue, diarrhea, vomiting, neuro sxs

660
Q

acanthosis in older people

A

think GI malignancy

661
Q

nocardia on pathology

A

partially acid fast, gram positive, filamentous branching rods

662
Q

nocardiosis

A

affects immunocompromised hosts, can be confused w/ TB. sysxtemif findings weight loss, fever, night sweats, nodules, brain

663
Q

tx for nocardia

A

trimethoprim sulfamethooxazole. + carbapenems when brain is involved

664
Q

TB on pathology

A

rods, doesn’t gram stain, acid fast

665
Q

tx for actinomyces (filamentous gram positive bacteria)

A

penicillin G.

666
Q

succinylcholine contraindicated for use when?

A

hyperkalemia or patients w/ high risk for it, like crush or burn injuries (risk of rhabdo), guillain barre

667
Q

drug prevention of kidney stones

A

thiazide diuretics helps w/ calcium probs), potassium citrate/ bicarb salt (urine alkalinization) and allopurinol (for hyperuricosuria related stones)

668
Q

common methotrexate adverse effect?

A

macrocytic anemia
can also develop pancytopenia. do peripheral blood counts for these pts every three months.
nausea, stomatitis, rash, hepato, ILD, alopecia, fever are other SE
it interferes w/ folate metab

669
Q

SE of hydroxychloroquine

A

med for RA. GI distress, visual probs, and hemolysis in those with G6PD

670
Q

cirrhosis sxs related to hyperestrinism

A
spider angiomata
gynecomastia
loss of pubic hair
testicular atrophy
palmar erythema
671
Q

cirrhosis sxs related to portal htn

A

varices, splenomegaly, ascites, caput medusa, hemorrhoids

672
Q

initial tx of toxic adenoma

A

beta blocker and thionamide, the second decreases thyroid hormone secretion.

673
Q

untreated thyroid adenoma causes what?

A

bone loss and osteoporsosis

also tachyarrhythmias

674
Q

which has a greater risk of malignancy, hot or cold thyroid nodules?

A

cold

675
Q

aortic dissection on chest radiograph

A

mediastinal widening

676
Q

type A aortic dissection

A

involving ascending, can rapidly progress to cardiac tamponade and cardiogenic shock

dx: TEE

677
Q

when is pericardiocentesis indicated

A

patients w/ pericardial effusion and tamponade w/ hemodyamic instability or cardiogenic schocke

678
Q

leprosy

A

chronic granulomatous disease,
peripheral nerves and skin
acid fast mycobacterium leprae

679
Q

pathology on diabetic nephropathy

A

increased EC matrix, BM thickening, mesangial expansion, fibrosis

680
Q

four common drugs w/ photosensitivy rxn

A

tetracyclines (doxy)
antipscyhotics (chlorpromazin)
diuretics (furosemide, HCTZ)
amiodarone, promethazine

681
Q

diphenhydramine

A

antihistamine w/ anticholinergic properties (benadryl).

682
Q

anticholinergic effects

A
dry mouth "dry as a bone"
blurry vision "blind as a bat"
Hyperthermia "hot as a hare"
Urinary retension "full as a flask)
decreased bowel sounds
683
Q

salicylate intox

A

tinnitus, N/V, fever, acid base abnormalities (met acid resp alk combo)

684
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

overdose of MAOIS mixed w/ other drugs like SSRI
- autonomic hyperactivity (tachy, hyperthermia, bowel sonds, HTN), AMS, dilated pupils, neuromuscular findings like clonus

685
Q

theophylline tox

A

seizures, hyperthermia, cardiac tachy ypotension

686
Q

physostigmine

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

687
Q

clinical features of cholesterol crystal embolism

A

livedo reticularis, bluee toes, acute or subacute kidney injury, CNS (stroke/amarusosi), eye involvement, GI (intestinal ischemia, pancreatitis)

risks includ erecent cardiac cath and hyperpcholesterolemia

688
Q

lab findings of cholesteral crystal embolism

A

creatinine, eosinophilia, low complement, eosinopihliuria

689
Q

urinalysis in contrast induced kidney injury

A

muddy brown granular and epithelial casts. usually resolves in 3-5 days

690
Q

hyperoxaluria RF

A

ppl w/ crohns or small intestine disorder leading to fat malabs

691
Q

clinical signs of multiple myeloma

A

hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia, renal insufficiency, protein ga >4.

692
Q

rouleaux formation (stacking of RBCs) indicates:

A

elevated serum protein

693
Q

urins osmolality in polydipsia?

A

low

694
Q

two causes of euvolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH, polydipsia

695
Q

three causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

CHF, hepatic failure, nephrotic syndrome

696
Q

diagnostic criteria for SIADH

A
serum osms  S osms
UNa >20
absence of hypovolemia
normal renal/adrenal and thyroid fnx
absence of other causes of hyponatremia
697
Q

Tx for MALT lymphoma

A

omeprazole, clarithromycin, amoxicillin

if ieradicating h pylori fails to regress the lymphoma, then chemo like CHOP can be involved

698
Q

CHOP?

A

cyclophosamide, adriamycin, vincristine, prednisone

699
Q

nonseminomatous germ cell tumor secretion

A

AFP and HCG

700
Q

choriocarcinoma secretes

A

beta-HCG, usually in s/o molar pregnancy

701
Q

black liver on pathology, elevated direct bilirubin

A

Dubin Johnson
benign condition
confirm w/ coproporphyrin levels

702
Q

sxs of CO poisoning

A

bright cherry lips
elevated carboxyhemoglobin
headache, Nausea, dyspnea, malaise, AMS, dizzy, coma

703
Q

aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD0

A

associated w/ nasal polyps, asthma, chronic rhionosinustis, and bronchospasm after NSAID use

704
Q

when do you give vaccines for splenectomy person

A

either fourteen days before or after surgery

705
Q

TIPS procedure

A

treatmet for those w/ cirrhosis who have failed thoracentesis, salt restricted diet and diuretics; this if for patients who have hepatic hydrothorax, transudative pleural effusions.

706
Q

sxs of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

A

signs of cholestasis! itching, fatigue, elevated alk phos, hyperlipidemia. Often associated w/ autoimmune diseases like hypothyroidism.

Test: Anti-mitochondrial antibody titers

707
Q

autoimmune hepatitis associated with

A

ANA and anti-smooth. fluctuating hepatocellular injury

give stoeroids

708
Q

sxs of hereditary spherocytosis

A

increased MCV, hemolytic anemia, coombs negative, jaundice, splenomegaly, pigment gallstones

many pts require splenectomy

709
Q

tx for torsades de points

A

iv mag for conscious/stable

immediate defibb for pts who are stable

710
Q

use of adenosine?

A

paroxysmal SVT

711
Q

sxs of toxic megacolon

A

AMS, peritonitis, electrolyte abnormalities, fever, abd distension, leukocytosis

712
Q

sxs of ureteral stones

A

can’t sit still, writhing, referred pain to lower abdomen

713
Q

follicular carcinoma thyroid

A

invades tumor capsule and blood vessels, has early hematological spread to lung, brain bone

LN involvement rare

714
Q

which kind of thyroid cancer secretes calcitonin

A

medullary thyroid cancer

715
Q

whare are hurthle cells?

A

seen in both follicular and papillary cancers (thyroid)

716
Q

most common thyroid malignancy

A

papillary thyroid cancer, slow spread to regional LN. large cells w/ ground glass cytoplasm ad pale nuclei
no capsule

717
Q

signs of alcoholic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

heart failure w/ elevated LFT, high platelets, macrocytosis

718
Q

most common cause of death in acromegaly

A

CHF

- also stroke is increased,

719
Q

charcot joint associated conditions

A

B12 deficiency, DM, peripheral nerve damage, spine cord injury, tabes dorasalis, syringlmyelia

720
Q

what is a charcot joint

A

neurogenic arthropathy 2/2 underlyin condtion : deformed, loss of neurlolgic input, mild pain, degenerative joint disease. Patients unknowingly traumatize their joint as they lose sensation

tx underlying condition, B12, DM, syphilis.

721
Q

lab findings in hemophilia A/B

A

prolonged PTT

normal platelets, bleding time, prothrombin time

722
Q

`post influenza bacteria to cause pneumonia

A

usually staph aureus

723
Q

tx for klebsiella pneumonia

A

aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin) and cephalosporins
theyre resistant to ampicillin, has a beta lactamase

724
Q

pneumocystis jiroveci

A

pneumo in HIV patients

725
Q

lung abscess cause in patients who aspirate/poor dentition?

A

anaerobes

726
Q

valgus stress test

A

for MCL injury

727
Q

Varus stress test

A

for LCL injury

728
Q

apley test

A

meniscal tear

729
Q

boerhaave syndrome

A

transmural esophageal tear, caused by forceful retching. esophageal air/fluid leakage into nearby area like pleura
cxr can show pleural effusion, widened mediastinum
dx w/ gastrografin
pleural effusion shows high amylase exudate

730
Q

pneumonoconioses

A

occupational lung diseases 2/2 inhalation of things like asbestosis and silicosis.

731
Q

trypanosoma cruzi

A

chagas, south america

megacolon, megaesophagus, cardiac disease / systolic and diastolic heart failure

732
Q

mutation associated w/ polycythemia vera

A

JAK2 V617F

EPO is low

733
Q

chronic myeloid leukemia fusion protein?

A

BRC-ABL

734
Q

tx for mild persistent asthma

A

albuterol and inhaled corticosteroids

735
Q

tx for moderate persistent asthma

A

albuterol, inhaled corticosteroids, LAA

736
Q

cause of bleeding in ppl w/ kidney disease

A

uremic coagulopathy causes platelets that don’t really work.

737
Q

tx for uremic coagulopathy

A

DDAVP, cryo

738
Q

polymyositis

A

proximal weakness, raynaud’s, interstitial lung disease

739
Q

causes of high protein ascites

A

CHF, constrictive pericarditis, carcinomatosis of peritoneum, TB, budd chiari, fungal

740
Q

causes of low protein ascites

A

cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

741
Q

serum to ascites albumin gradient

A

≥1.1 = portal htn 2/2 cardiac ascites, cirrhosis, budd chiari syndrome

742
Q

cause of anemia in alcoholics

A

folate deficiency

743
Q

hepatolenticular degeneration

A

aka wilson’s disease
“lenticular = basal ganglia”

low ceruloplasmin w/ increased urinary copper

744
Q

two copper chelators

A

penicillamine and trientine

also take oral zinc because it prevents copper abs

745
Q

hemochromatosis

A

high iron, liver disease, hyperpigmentation, DM (bronze diabetes) impotence, arthropathy, cardiac enlargement

746
Q

AST:ALT > 2:1

A

alcoholic hepatitis

747
Q

meralgia paresthetica

A

lateral femoral cutaneous nerve compression, causes paresthesias in lateral thigh

748
Q

osteonecrosis type of pain?

A

worse w/ activity but remains w/ rest and night pain, decreased ROM
usually have some disorder that disrupts microciruclation

749
Q

vW disease causes which clotting numbers to be abnormal?

A

increased bleeding time and PTT

normal PT

750
Q

most common cause of acute epiditymitis (non STD)

A

e coli
also pseudomonas

in young people it’s usually chlamydia/gonnorrhea

751
Q

mitral stenosis can increase risk for

A

a fib 2/2 L atrial dilattion

752
Q

feared side effect of propylthiouruacil (used in graves)

A

agranulocytosis, immune destruction of granulocytes.
stop once they get feversore throat, measure WBC. unless it’s more than 1500

especially tx for pseudomonas

753
Q

indications for urgent dialysis

A

AEIOU:
Acidosis
Electrolte (symptomatic hyperK)
Ingestion (methanol, ethylene glycol, ASA, lithium, valproate carbamedzpime)
Overload
Uremia (symptomatic, pericarditis, encephalopathy, bleeding)

754
Q

hydatin cyst

A

in liver, 2/2 echinococcus granulosus. Get it from dogs tapeworm. Usually unilocular, can occur in any organ. smaller daughter cysts may be present.

eggshell calcification of the cyst

755
Q

signs of av block

A

aka wenckebach

prolonged QRS, prolonged PR. can be intermittent and cause syncope

756
Q

Mobitz type I (2nd degree heart block)

A

AV node, prolonged PR leads to noncunductive P wave “group beating”
narrow QRS, exercise improves, vagal maneuvers worsen
low risk of complete heart block

757
Q

Mobitz type II (2nd degree heart bock)

A

blocked in bundle of His (below AV), PR intervals consistent w/ intermittent nonconducted P waves
narrow or wide, exercise worsens, vagal improves, indication for pacemaker

758
Q

first degree heart block

A

delayed transmission so long PR but no dropped beats

759
Q

third degree heart block

A

complete failure of impulse conduction. p waves entirely disconnected from qrs

760
Q

Behcet disease

A

young adults, recurrent painful oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, eye lesions (uveitis), skin lesions (erythema nodosum), thrombosis
biopsy shows nonspecific high risk of vasculities. vasculitis of different sized vessels

761
Q

pathergy

A

exaggerated ulcerating skin response following minor injuries, seen in Behcet disease

762
Q

oral estrogen does what to thyroid

A

decreased clearance of thyroid binding globulin, leading to elevated TBG and need for more thyroid hormone

763
Q

tx of pulmonary htn

A

loop diuretics and ACE I, often w/ beta blockers and sometimes aldo antagonists

764
Q

when to leukoreduce blood

A

chronically transfused
CMV negative
potential transplant recips
previous febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn

765
Q

febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn timeline

A

1-6 hours; small amounts of plasma/leukocyte debris that let out cytokines that can caause fevers/chills/malaise but no hemolysis

766
Q

what to do when transfusing patients w/ IgA deficiency?

A

wash RBC to get rid of as much plasma as possible - we worry about antibodies to IgA

767
Q

indications for washing RBC before transfusion

A

IgA deficiency, complement dependent autoimune hemolytic anemi

768
Q

when to irradiate RBC before transfusion

A

BMT recips
acquired or congenital cellular immunodeficiency
blood commponents donated by first or second degree relatives

769
Q

what do you give to prevent severe hypocalcemia following blood transfusion

A

calcium gluconate infusion

770
Q

pleural fluid w/ low glucose

A

empyema and complicated pleural effusion

they will need ddrainage and antibiotics

771
Q

in what kind of arrhythmias can you use lidocaine

A

ventricular

772
Q

tx for a fib with RVR

A

beta blockers or calcium channel blockers

cardioversion if HD unstable

773
Q

crypt abscesses in the colon

A

UC

774
Q

intestinal villous atrophy

A

celiac disease

775
Q

hepatorenal syndrome

A

decreased GFR in absence of shock, proteinuria, or other clear cause of renal dysfunction, failure to resond to 1.5 NS bolus.

2/2 renal vasoconstriction in resonse to decreased total renal blood flow and vasodilatory substances

776
Q

type one and two hepatorenal syndrome

A
  1. rapidly progressive, die in 10 weeks w/out tx

2. progresses more slowly, avg survival of 306 months

777
Q

Tx of as cites fluid

A
  1. Na and h2o restriction
  2. Spirinolactone
  3. Furosemide
    4 tap that
778
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

A

Remove clothing
Give atropine
NOT physostigmine, which would make it worse (ach Esterase inhibitor)