Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > Medicine Shelf > Flashcards

Medicine Shelf Flashcards

1
Q

Coombs test uses

A

1) blood types in transfusion 2) pregnancy 3) cause of hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common head and neck cancer type

A

squamous cell carc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

causes of folic acid deficiency

A

1) diet/nutrition and alcoholism 2) drugs: anti-epileptics (phenytoin, phenobarb, primidone) disrupt absorption and TMP and methotrexate impair production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lab values indicative of RBC destruction

A

incr LDH and bilirubin, decr haptoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 common signs of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

1) hemolytic anemia 2) pancytopenia 3) venous thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TTP findings

A

FATRN: fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal, neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatment for TTP

A

plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment for DIC

A

cryoprecipitate which incl coag factors, fibrinogen, and vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

best first test for palpable head or neck lymph node

A

panendoscopy looks at esoph, bronchi, and larynx for primary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pica often indicative of

A

iron defic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

smudge cells seen in

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

starry sky cells

A

Burkitt lymphoma (assoc with EBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Auer rods

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

imatinib treats

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what should ppl diag’d with ITP be tested for

A

HIV and HepC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

causes of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

warm (IgG): drugs (penicillin), viral infec, SLE, immunodefic, lymphoprolif (CLL); cold (IgM): mycoplasma, mono, lymphoprolif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

gold std test for HIT

A

serotonin release assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

manifestations of HIT

A

Plt reduction >50%, thromboses, necrotic skin lesions at injection site, anaphylactic rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what causes risk of bleeding when first starting warfarin?

A

sharp decr in prot C (anticoag) before decr in clotting factors. Risk of clots when you lose anticoags and still have clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

migratory superficial thrombophlebitis

A

Trousseau’s syndrome that often indicates occult malignancy, most commonly pancreatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

major manifestations of waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

hyperviscosity, neuropathy, hepatosplenomeg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

monoclonal ab in waldenstrom, MM, and MGUS

A

IgM in wald, IgG and IgA in MM and MGUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cells seen on BM biopsy in MM

A

> 10% clonal plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cells seen on BM biop in Waldenstrom

A

> 10% clonal B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what’s the mutation in factor V leiden?

A

mutation in factor 5 that makes it nonresponsive to activated prot C. Prot C is anticoag that usually binds and inactivates factor 5 so excess factor 5 leads to hypercoag state. Most common hereditary thrombophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes antithrombin deficiency?

A

not usually inherited; usually from DIC, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does periumbilical bluish discoloration indicate?

A

pancreatitis (Cullen sign of hemoperitoneum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What’s another sign of pancreatitis?

A

reddish-brown around flanks –> retroperitoneal bleed (Grey-Turner)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

erysipelas features

A

warm, tender, erythem rash with raised demarcated borders, assoc with systemic sx’s and lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What tiss layers are affected by cellulitis?

A

deep dermis and subQ fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What tiss layers are affected by erysipelas

A

superficial dermis and lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cellulitis features

A

flat edges with poor demarcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What organisms cause erysipelas?

A

S pyog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What orgs cause cellulitis?

A

S aureus, enterococcus, H flu, PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

type of bias that can result from pts crossing over in treatment arms in studies

A

selection bias - susceptibility is confounding by indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cortisol, ACTH, and aldo changes in central adrenal insuffic (pituitary or hypothal dysfunc)

A

Low cort and ACTH, normal aldo (aldo controlled by renin system not pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cortisol, ACTH, and aldo changes in primary AI

A

low cort, high ACTH, low aldo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

presenting sx’s of cardiac tamponade

A

Beck’s triad: hypotension, jug venous distention, muffled heart sounds + pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pulsus parvus et tardus (delayed and diminished carotid pulse) is sign of

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

signs of aortic dissection

A

abrupt onset chest pain radiating to back and widened mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

early dias murmur heard at L and R sternal border

A

L side is A regurg from valve dz, R side is aortic root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

meds that improve survival in L ventric systolic dysfunc

A

1) ACE/ARB, 2) BB, 3) mineralocorticoid recep blocker (spironolac or eplernone) 4) hydral and nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

mitral regurg murmur

A

holosystolic best heard at apex with axillary radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HOCM murmur: what positions make it louder or quieter

A

Valsalva makes it louder and squatting makes it quieter. Valsalva = less venous return and lower preload so obstruction is worse (mitral valve sits close to enlarged interventric septum and impedes outflow). With squatting, there’s incr venous return which helps relieve obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

electrical alternans on EKG

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

prolonged PR interval

A

1st degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

F waves in EKG

A

A-flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

delta wave on EKG

A

upslope prior to QRS signifying accessory pathway like in Wolff-Park-White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

widened pulse pressure seen in what type of valvular disorder

A

aortic regurge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

major drugs given for angina

A

beta-block (decr contractility and HR, lowering O2 demand), Ca blockers (sim mech as BB). nitrates (dilation decr preload)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

contraindications to NSAID use

A

peptic ulcers and kidney dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

acetaminophen OD affects which organ

A

liver toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 EKG findings in WPW

A

short PR, delta wave, QRS widening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

first line treat for bradycardia

A

IV atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mobitz type I vs II

A

progressive prolong of PR in 1 with eventual dropped beat; constant PR in 2 and sudden beat drop. 1 is usually benign; 2 can progress to 3rd degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Afib on EKG

A

irregularly irreg rhythm and no P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

most common cause of sudden cardiac death in immediate post-MI

A

reentrant vent arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

tricuspid regurge sounds

A

holosystolic that incr in intensity with inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

treatment for uremic pericarditits

A

hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

sound of MS murmur

A

opening snap after S2 with diastolic rumble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

types of lung cancer that are located peripherally

A

adeno and large cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

presentation of AAT defic

A

COPD and liver dz (hepatitis, hepatocell carc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

phys exam findings for interstitial lung dz

A

crackles during mid-late inspiration and digital clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CT in interstitial lung dz

A

honeycombing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

empyema

A

pleural effusion with pus or bacterial in pleural space (often complication of pneum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Light’s criteria

A

Exudative if pleural prot/serum prot>0.5, pleu LDH/serum LDH>0.6 and pleural LDH>2/3 upper limit of normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

pulm art hypertension lung exam

A

right-vent heave due to RV enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

CREST syndrome sx’s

A

calcinosis cutis, raynaud, esoph dysmotility, sclerodactyly (thickening and tightening of skin on hands and fingers), telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CREST syndrome assoc with

A

systemic sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what part of the lung is affected by AAT COPD

A

lower lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what part of lungs is affected by smoking-induced COPD

A

upper lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is cor pulmonale

A

R heart failure due to pulm HTN (not due to L side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

most common cause of cor pulm

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

signs of R heart fail

A

JVD, loud P2, R ventric heave, hepatomeg, edema, ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

organs affected by Goodpasture’s

A

lungs (cough, dysp, hemoptysis), kidney (nephritic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

most common cause of euvolemic hyponat and treatment

A

SIADH; treat with fluid restrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what effect do glucocorticoids have on WBCs?

A

leukocytosis due to mobilization of marginated neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

clinical manifestations of granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Resp sx’s: saddle nose, pulm cavitary lesions; glomerulonephritis; livedo reticularis and ulcers on skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

complications of pos pressure ventilation

A

alveolar damage, pneumothorax, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

symptoms/signs of renal cell carc

A

classic triad of flank pain, hematuria, and mass. Also unreducible scrotal varicoceles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

which diabetic drug should not be used in pts with kidney dz?

A

metformin b/c it can cause lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

indications for urgent dialysis

A

aeiou: acidosis, electr abnorm (esp hyperK), intox, overload, uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

causes of asterixis

A

hep enceph, uremic enceph, hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what type of drugs in OD may necessitate dialysis?

A

salicylate, alchohol, lithium, valproate, carbamaz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

effect of aldo on Na, K, H+

A

saves Na (to raise BP), secretes K and H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

WBC casts in urine

A

AIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

glom nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

drugs that can cause AIN

A

Abx: TMP-SMX, PCN, ceph, rifampin; NSAIDs; diuretics; allopurinol; PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

clinical assoc with FSGS

A

Af Am and Hispanic, HIV, heroin, obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

type of nephrotic syndrome often seen after URI

A

IgA nephrop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

ions lost with vomiting

A

H, K, Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what type of med can be used to prevent nephrolithiasis?

A

thiazide diuretics: vol depletion causes reab of Na and passive reab of Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

bad SE of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

meds that can cause hyperK

A

nonselect beta block (p-z names), ACE, ARB, K+ spare diuretic (triamterene, amiloride), digoxin (cardiac glycoside), NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what heart sounds is associated with AS?

A

soft, single S2 b/c aortic valve has less mobility and doesn’t close quickly, making a quieter sound and delaying closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

ecg post-MI with ST elevation and q waves

A

ventric aneurysm (late complication a week-months after)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

mass in atrium

A

cardiac myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

HOCM murmurs sounds (w/o movement)

A

cres-decres systolic along left sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

bronchoscopic biopsy showing granulomas with budding yeast

A

histo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

breath sounds and tactile fremitus in pneum: incr or decr?

A

incr b/c sound travels faster in solid than air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

pts with ascites and hepatojugular reflux commonly have

A

R-sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

SEs of amio

A

thyroid probs, hepatotox, bradycard, heart block, pneumonitis, neuro sx’s, vision disturb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what causes isolated systolic HTN

A

increased stiffness of arteries which is why it’s common in elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

pleural plaques on imaging diagnostic for

A

asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

clinical presentation of asbestosis

A

dyspnea, clubbing, basilar crackles, pleural plaques on imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

cause of CAP, arthralgias, and erythema nodosum

A

coccidiomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

where’s coccidio endemic?

A

Amer SW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

prophy for pneumocystis

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

pts most likely to develop mucormycosis have what dz

A

diabetes (poorly controlled, esp with ketoacidotic episodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

ludwig angina

A

cellulitis of submandibular and sublingual spaces, often d/t infected molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

who should get PPSV23 vaccine alone?

A

<65 with another chronic condition (lung, heart dz, diabetes, smoking, renal fail)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

AIDS pts with systemic sx’s, splenomegaly and high alk phos

A

Myco avium complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

prophy against MAC

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

dangerous complications of mono

A

splenic rupture, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethazone, plus leucovorin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

prophy for toxo

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

pts with asplenia are at highest risk for what infections

A

Strep pneumo, H flu, Neiss meningitidis (encap’d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

chondrocalcinosis in joint with inflammatory arthritis is usually caused by

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals (pseudogout)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

nontender subcutaneous nodules assoc with joint stiffness

A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

biggest risk factor for antiphospholipid syndrome

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

clinical presentation of antiphospho syndrome

A

venous/art thrombus, adverse pregnancy outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and erythematous rash

A

dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

young male with polyarthritis

A

reactive arthritis: classic triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

long term management of hemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

tenderness at tibial tubercle

A

osgood-schlatter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

back pain is improved with activity in which disorder

A

ankylosing splondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

atrial tachy with AV block can be caused by which drug

A

digitalis causes increased ectopy and incr vagal tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

common cause of conductive hearing loss in women in 20s/30s

A

otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

dd for erythema nodosum

A

infectious (strep, TB), autoimmune (sarcoidosis, Behcet), inflammatory (IBD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

hereditary spherocytosis presentation (triad)

A

hemolytic anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

drug for supraventricular tachy

A

adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

treatment for severe thalassemia

A

monthly transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

treatment for iron overload (can get from transfusions for thal)

A

deferoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

levels of LDH, haptoglobin, and bili in hemolytic anemia

A

incr LDH and bili, decr hapto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

treatment for occlusive crisis of sickle cell

A

IVF, oxygen, pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

treatment for long term control of sickle cell

A

hyrdoxyurea which promotes HbF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what do you see on smear for G6PD defic?

A

bite cells and heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what can precipitate hemolytic anemia in G6PD defic person?

A

oxidant stress from drugs: dapsone, TMP-SMX (test those with HIV for G6PD since these drugs used for toxo and PCP), nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

best test for hereditary spherocystosis

A

osmotic fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

what does Coombs test look for

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

cold hemolytic anemia: causes and treatment

A

IgM expansion, Caused by mycoplasma, mono, avoid cold since anemia in extremities is precip’d by it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

warm hemolytic anemia, causes and treatment

A

IgG expansion, caused by autoimm and cancer, treat with steroid, rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

antibody mediated plt activation leading to thrombosis is characteristic of what condition

A

HIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

antithyroid peroxidase antibody can be found in

A

autoimmune thyroid conditions incl Hashimoto’s and Graves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

thyrotropin receptor autoAbs can be found in

A

Graves: stim thyroid hormone pdtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

MEN1

A

parathyroid, pituitary, pancreatic/GI (gastrinoma–>ZE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

MEN2A

A

Parathyroid, pheo, medullary thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

MEN2B

A

Medullary thyroid, pheo, mucosal neuroma, marfanoid body habitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

signs of hyperandrogenism

A

acne, hirsutism, male pattern hair loss (alopecia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

extraintestinal UC manifestations

A

arthritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, PSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

pellagra due to and sx’s

A

d/t niacin (B3) defic and sx of dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Rifaximin used to treat

A

traveler’s diarrhea, IBS, hepatic enceph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Wilson dz affects which systems

A

liver (liver fail, hepatitis, cirrhosis), neuro (parkinson, gait issues, dysarthria), psych (depr, personality changes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

manifestations of hemochromatosis

A

liver dz, diabetes, hyperpigment, arthritis, cardiac enlarge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

use of octreotide

A

diarrhea (often from tumors), bleeding esoph varices, to prevent growth hormone release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

use of lactulose

A

constipation, hepatic enceph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

diarrhea with PAS-positive material in small intest

A

Whipple’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

sx’s of Whipple’s disease

A

diarrhea, arthralgias, heart involve–>CHF or regure, cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

how to eval ascites for trans vs exudative

A

serum to ascites albumin gradient. When >1.1 indicates portal HTN, when less indicates non-portal cause (malignancy, pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

A1-AT deficiency pts have

A

COPD and cirrhosis (A1-AT gets stuck in liver–>cirr and can’t get to lung where it normally stops elastase from breaking down too much tiss–>COPD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What ducts are affected in PSC? PBC?

A

Extrahepatic in PSC (males are not subtle), intrahepatic in PBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is imaging of PSC, PBC?

A

PSC is beads on a string and onion skin fibrosis, PBC is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is most common cause of sick sinus syndrome?

A

Degen of SA node and replacement with fibrous tiss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What age most often affected by sick sinus?

A

elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is clinical presentation of sick sinus?

A

bradycardia that can lead to dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, syncope or brady-tachy with Afib and palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

systolic murmur at right sternal border

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

how does murmur of AS differ from HOCM?

A

HOCM best heard at lower left sternal border; AS at upper R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

which murmur radiates to carotids?

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

which murmur radiates to axilla?

A

MR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

defibrillator is used for what types of arrhythmias

A

v-fib or pulseless v-tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

synchronized cardioversion is used for what types of arrhythmias

A

QRS complex tachy: Afib, a-flutter, v-tach with pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

treatment for persistent symptomatic premature atrial contract

A

beta block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

fibrosis of thyroid gland is also known as

A

Riedel thyroiditis (hard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

thyroiditis after respiratory infection

A

de Quervain (painful)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

suppurative thyroiditis caused by

A

gram positive, most often S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

hand joint findings of OA

A

heberden (distal) and bouchard (prox) nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

most specific antibody for mixed connective tiss dz (which has symptoms of SLE, sys sclerosis, and polymyo)

A

anti-U1 ribonucleoprot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

levels of Ca and phos in Paget dz of bone

A

usually normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

triad of disseminated gonococcal infec

A

arthritis, tenosynovitis, vesiculopustular skin lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

polymyalgia rheum assoc with

A

giant cell/temporal arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

contraind for treatment with MTX

A

renal insuff, liver dz, excess alcohol, pregnancy, hep B&C, TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

toradol and tramadol drug classes

A

tor is NSAID, tram is opioid (when you go on tor, you sing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

cancer types that metas to bone

A

BLT with kosher pickle: breast, lung, thyroid, kidney, prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

positive straight leg test indicates what type of injury

A

herniated disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what helps, what hurts in spinal stenosis: flexion and extension

A

flexion helps, extension hurts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

anti-topoisomerase assoc with what condition

A

systemic sclerosis

188
Q

Takayasu arteritis presentation

A

young Asian women with claudication (from occlusion), BP discreps, pulse deficits

189
Q

cause of back pain that’s relieved with activity

A

ankylosing splondylitis

190
Q

MRI finding in ankylosing splon

A

bamboo spine

191
Q

best marker for resolution of DKA or HHS

A

serum anion gap and beta-hydroxybutyrate levels

192
Q

what can you look for to determine whether hyperthyroid is endogen vs exogenous?

A

thyroglobulin: low in exogenous (when ppl take it to lose weight)

193
Q

hyperthyroidism post viral infect

A

Subacute/deQuervain thyroiditis

194
Q

presentation of suppurative thyroiditis

A

infectious: high fever, pain, euthyroid

195
Q

endocrine effect of CKD

A

hyperparathyroidism: CKD leads to low Ca and high phos leading to incr PTH

196
Q

why should you not test thyroid levels in person who is acutely ill?

A

euthyroid sick syndrome: there can be low total and free T3 levels but person isn’t actually hypothyr

197
Q

how does pH affect calcium levels?

A

in acidotic state, excess H2 binds to albumin displacing Ca so ionized Ca incr (acid–>hypercalc); alkalotic, H2 dissociates allowing Ca to bind to albumin, lowering ionized Ca (alk–>hypocalc)

198
Q

sx’s hypocalcemia

A

tetany, carpopedal spasm, paresthesia, Chvostek sign (face), Trousseau sign (blood press cuff), seizure

199
Q

sx’s hypercalcemia

A

bones, stones, groans, psych overtones

200
Q

osteomalacia pathophys

A

defective mineralization of osteoid matrix, often from vit D defic

201
Q

estrogen effect on thyroid hormones

A

estrogen incr T4-binding globulin (TBG) so body makes more T4 to maintain same amount free T4

202
Q

meds to treat prolactinoma

A

dopaminergic agonists: bromocriptine, cabergoline

203
Q

painful oral and genital ulcers

A

Behcet

204
Q

proximal muscle weakness diag

A

polymyositis

205
Q

shoulder, hip, neck stiffness diag

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

206
Q

hydroxychloroquine can be used to treat what? and what’s bad side effect?

A

treats SLE; side effect of retinopathy

207
Q

MTX toxicity

A

hepatotox, BM suppression (cytopenia), oral ulcers (stomatitis), pulm

208
Q

neutropenia and splenomegaly in someone with longstanding RA

A

felty syndrome

209
Q

virus that often causes viral arthritis in adults

A

parvovirus (slapped cheek in kids)

210
Q

psoriatic arthritis presentation

A

DIP joints involved, sausage fingers (dactylitis), nail issues (onycholysis)

211
Q

chondrocalcinosis seen in

A

pseudogout–calcification of articular cartilage

212
Q

what markers are elevated in polymyositis?

A

musc enzymes like creatine kinase, autoAbs (ANA, anti-Jo)

213
Q

what markers are elevated in polymyalgia rheum?

A

ESR and CRP

214
Q

polymyositis presentation: what activities are limited

A

difficulty climbing stairs, getting into/out of car/chair, arms overhead like combing hair

215
Q

reactive arthritis follows what types of conditions

A

GI infecs with salmonella, yersinia; GU infecs with chlamydia

216
Q

what kind of arrhythmias is digoxin good for?

A

supravent: a-fib, flutter, tachy

217
Q

when do you use defibrillation (unsynchronized shock)?

A

pulseless v-tach, v-fib

218
Q

most common form of paroxysmal supraventricular tachy

A

AV nodal reentrant tachy

219
Q

lab test for CHF

A

BNP: reflects stretch of ventricles due to incr filling press

220
Q

heart sounds in pulm HTN

A

tricuspid regurge (pansystolic murmur at lower sternal border that incr with inspiration), split S2 with loud P2

221
Q

what antiarrhythmic is good for ppl with LV dysfunction who are prone to ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

amiodarone

222
Q

what are first line drugs for A-fib?

A

beta block and CCBs

223
Q

where is pulmonic stenosis murmur heard?

A

L 2nd intercostal space

224
Q

what other murmur is heard at L 2nd intercostal space?

A

ASD

225
Q

difference between pulm stenosis and ASD murmurs?

A

pulm stenosis splitting widens with inspiration; ASD has fixed splitting

226
Q

electrical alternans (beat to beat variation in QRS axis and amplitude) is pathognomonic for?

A

pericardial effusion

227
Q

most common cause for bright red blood in adult stool

A

diverticulosis (painless)

228
Q

most common cause of iron defic anemia in elderly

A

GI bleed

229
Q

positive urine urobilinogen is from buildup of what type of bilirubin

A

unconjugated (not water soluble)

230
Q

positive urine bilirubin is from buildup of what type of bili

A

conjugated (conj is water soluble)

231
Q

most common cause of ascites

A

cirrhosis

232
Q

most common cause of cirrhosis

A

alcohol and hep C

233
Q

what other electrolyte abnormality can lead to refractory hypokal?

A

hypomag

234
Q

what med should be given to diabetics with microalbuminuria?

A

ACEIs

235
Q

what is best step to prevent progression of diabetic nephropathy?

A

intensive BP control - use ACE or ARB

236
Q

best test for diabetic nephrop

A

albumin to creatinine ratio

237
Q

what med can cause edema as side effect?

A

dihydro CCBs like amlodipine

238
Q

target cells seen in

A

hemoglobinopathies like thal or liver dz

239
Q

type of HF that can follow viral infection in otherwise healthy person

A

dilated cardiomyopathy with diffuse hypokinesia

240
Q

what is hematology lab finding with antiphos syndrome?

A

prolonged PTT that doesn’t correct with mixing

241
Q

first line treatment for cocaine intox

A

benzos

242
Q

antiarrhythmic that widens QRS

A

class Ic: flecainide and propafenone; exhibit use dependence with greater efficacy at faster HRs

243
Q

how to differentiate b/w chlamydial and gonococcal urethritis

A

gonoc grows on gram stain but chlamydia doesn’t

244
Q

how does superior vena cava syndrome present?

A

with swelling of head, neck, and arms, dyspnea, venous congestion

245
Q

what’s the most common cause of sup vena cava syndrome?

A

malignancy

246
Q

initial therapy for aortic dissections

A

beta block

247
Q

pink morbilliform widespread rash

A

drug reaction

248
Q

what are causes of erythema multiforme?

A

HSV, mycoplasma, drugs (sulfa)

249
Q

infant with fever that develops rash

A

staph aureus scalded skin syndrome

250
Q

pruritic rash with scaly border and central clearing

A

tinea corporis (ring worm)

251
Q

illicit substance with long duration of effect

A

bath salts (amphetamine analogues) and effect can last a week

252
Q

empiric monotherapy for ppl with febrile neutropenia

A

they are at risk for PSA so use broad spec with pseud coverage: piptazo, cefepime, meropenem

253
Q

malignant otitis externa often caused by

A

pseudomonas

254
Q

what is usual onset for delirium tremens?

A

48-96 hrs post last drink

255
Q

what are cardiac sx’s of lyme disease?

A

conduction abnormalities like AV block

256
Q

viral myocarditis can lead to what in young adults

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

257
Q

pruritic rash on wrist, fingers, and finger webs

A

scabies

258
Q

first line treatment for carpal tunnel

A

wrist splint

259
Q

acanthosis nigricans seen in pts with

A

insulin resistance (DM, PCOS), GI malignancy

260
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis assoc with

A

celiac

261
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum assoc with

A

IBD

262
Q

skin findings in diabetes

A

acanthosis nigricans and skin tags

263
Q

most common cause of necrotizing otitis externa and treatment

A

PSA, treat with cipro

264
Q

first line treatment for extreme hyperK

A

IV calcium to stabilize cardiac membrane

265
Q

treatment for COPD exac

A

O2, systemic steroids, inhaled bronchodilators +/- Abx

266
Q

worst SE of antithyroid meds

A

PTU and methimazole can cause agranulocytosis

267
Q

PTU can be toxic to which organ

A

liver

268
Q

lead toxicity presentation

A

GI: constipation Neuropsych: sensorimotor neurop and memory loss Heme: microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling (LEAD: lead line, enceph, erythrocyte basophil stippling, ab colic and anemia, drops wrist and foot)

269
Q

NNT equation

A

NNT = 1/ARR

270
Q

study type that compares dz incidence

A

cohort (start with risk factors and then determine outcome)

271
Q

study type that compares risk factor freq

A

case control (start with outcome, then look back to find risk factors)

272
Q

study type that compares dz prevalence

A

cross sectional (looks at exposure and outcome at single time point)

273
Q

how to differentiate primary from central adrenal insuff

A

in primary, there’s hyperpigment (cosecretion of melanocyte-stim hormone and ACTH) and hyperK from low aldo

274
Q

cause of aplastic anemia

A

acquired defic of pluripotent stem cells resulting in pancytopenia

275
Q

treatment for symptomatic sarcoidosis

A

glucocorticoids

276
Q

treatment for pericarditis

A

NSAID + colchicine

277
Q

muddy brown casts

A

ATN

278
Q

RBC casts

A

glomerulonephritis

279
Q

WBC casts

A

AIN, pyelo

280
Q

fatty casts

A

nephrotic syndrome

281
Q

broad and waxy casts

A

chronic renal fail

282
Q

pts who have organ transplant are at risk for which impt opportunistic infections and how do they present

A

CMV (multiorgan-pneum, hepatits, gastroenteritis), PCP (pulm sxs)

283
Q

ecthyma gangrenosum assoc with

A

pseudomonas. They start as painless macules that quickly become gangrenous ulcers

284
Q

what’s best method to decr mortality in those with COPD

A

smoking cessation

285
Q

features of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu)

A

telangiectasia (macules that blanch), epistaxis, AVMs

286
Q

short periods of substernal chest pain in young person assoc with ST changes

A

vasospastic angina (Prinzmetal)

287
Q

treatment for vasospastic angina

A

CCBs

288
Q

types of lesions that can progress to squamous cell carc

A

actinic keratosis (ACT on it before it becomes cancer)

289
Q

lesions with stuck on appearance

A

seborrheic keratosis (stuck on benign)

290
Q

triggers for G6PD

A

meds (dapsone, TMP-SMX, primaquine), infection, food (fava beans)

291
Q

type of metal that can cause type iv hypersens

A

nickel

292
Q

vit B and folate participate in what conversion rxn

A

homocysteine to methionine (defic of either results in elev homocys)

293
Q

when does ain occur in relation to offending drugs?

A

7-10 days after drug exposure

294
Q

bone disorder that can lead to hearing loss

A

Pagets

295
Q

bone dz with malabsorption of calc and vit D

A

osteomalacia

296
Q

effect of acetaminophen and NSAIDs on warfarin

A

cyp inhibs that incr warf conc leading to incr bleeding risk

297
Q

effect of OCPs on warfarin

A

cyp inducer that decr warf conc leading to risk of thrombosis

298
Q

presentation of arsenic poisoning

A

stocking-glove neuropathy, skin changes, burning hypersens, pancytopenia, hepatitis

299
Q

examples of thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics, K-sparing

A

thiazide: hydrochlori, chlorthalidone; loop: furosemide; K-sparing: spirono, epleronine, triamterene, amiloride

300
Q

SEs of thiazides

A

hyperglycemia, incr LDL and triglyc, hyperuricemia

301
Q

most common cause of B12 defic

A

pernicious anemia

302
Q

cancer assoc with pernicious anemia

A

gastric cancer

303
Q

nonenhancing brain lesions on MRI in person with AIDS

A

progressive multifocal leukoencephalop (caused by reactivation of JC virus)

304
Q

what does imaging of cerebral toxoplasmosis look like?

A

ring-enhancing lesions with surrounding edema

305
Q

cause of bloody diarrhea in AIDS pt

A

cytomegalovirus

306
Q

first line therapy for BPH

A

alpha antags: tamsulosin

307
Q

for whom <65 is PPSV23 rec’d for

A

chronic conditions that incr chance of pneumococcal dz like heart and lung disease, diabetes, smoking, liver dz

308
Q

what’s assoc with incr risk of AAA rupture?

A

size, growth rate, and smoking

309
Q

who should get AAA screening and how often?

A

one time screening for men 65-75 who have ever smoked

310
Q

who should get screened for lung cancer and how often?

A

yearly for anyone age 55-80 who has smoked 30+ pack-years

311
Q

sx’s of cholinergic excess vs antichol excess

A

antichol: hot as hare, dry as bone, blind as bat, red as beet, mad as hatter, bloated as toad (retention), heart runs alone (tachy). Chol: bradycardia, miosis, salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, musc fasciculations

312
Q

antidote for chol and antichol excess

A

atropine for chol excess; physostigmine for antichol excess

313
Q

what anticoags can be used in ppl with renal insuff?

A

unfractionated (but not LMW) heparin, warfarin

314
Q

pharm treatment for Raynaud

A

CCB (similar path to vasospastic angina)

315
Q

med with side effect of tendon rupture

A

fluoroquinolone

316
Q

urease producers that can cause UTI

A

Proteus and klebsiella

317
Q

drug that treats PBC

A

ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)

318
Q

what’s often present in urine when there’s blood on UA but few RBCs?

A

myoglobin

319
Q

lifestyle modifications that result in BP reduction in HTN from most to least effective

A

1) weight loss 2) DASH diet 3) exercise 4) dietary salt 5) alcohol

320
Q

what androgen is made by adrenals but not by ovaries?

A

DHEAS

321
Q

murmur in ppl with infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve prolapse plus mitral regurge

322
Q

signs that indicate primary over central adrenal insuff

A

primary has hyperpigment (from incr ACTH) and hyperkalemia, hypotension (from low aldo)

323
Q

what type of neurons are lost in Huntington’s

A

GABA

324
Q

loss of acetylcholine seen in what disorder

A

Alzheimers

325
Q

what type of neurons are lost in Parkinson’s

A

dopamine

326
Q

pneumococcal vaccines in ppl with HIV

A

PCV13 once, then PPSV23 in 8 weeks, 5 years, and at 65

327
Q

most common risk factor for aortic dissection in ppl>60

A

HTN

328
Q

seborrheic dermatitis features

A

pruritic, erythematous plaques with greasy scales on eyebrows, nasolabial, ear, dandruff

329
Q

anesthetic hypopigmented lesions with nerve involvement charac of what disorder

A

leprosy

330
Q

hearing loss assoc with which BP med

A

loop diuretics like furosemide

331
Q

Lynch syndrome neoplasms

A

colorectal, endometrial, ovarian

332
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis neoplasms

A

colorectal, osteomas, brain

333
Q

vHL neoplasms

A

clear cell renal, pheo, hemangioblastoma

334
Q

acute MI has which abnormal heart sound

A

S4

335
Q

effect of estrogen on thyroid

A

estrogen increases TBG so ppl with hypothyroid will need to incr meds to keep up with incr binding sites

336
Q

what’s most common anatomic origin of Afib

A

pulm veins

337
Q

anatomic origin of a-flutter

A

reentrant circuit around tricuspid annulus

338
Q

drug to treat opioid OD

A

naloxone

339
Q

positive PPD for regular person w/ no risk factors

A

> 15mm

340
Q

positive PPD for HIV or immunosuppressed

A

> 5mm

341
Q

positive PPD for recent immigrant

A

> 10mm

342
Q

separation of epidermis by light friction

A

pemphigus vulgaris

343
Q

SJS vs TEN

A

<10% = SJS; >30%=TEN

344
Q

drugs that can cause SJS/TEN

A

abx (sulfonamides), NSAIDs, anticonvulsant, allopurinol, sulfasalazine

345
Q

elevated hemoglobin in someone with OSA caused by

A

incr erythropoietin pdtion

346
Q

ppl with porphyria cutanea tarda (fragile, photosensitive skin that develops vesicles with trauma or exposure) should be tested for

A

Hep C

347
Q

CHADS-VASc score

A

CHF, HTN, Age>75, diabetes, stroke/TIA, vasc dz, age 65-74, sex

348
Q

what happens to pulse in septic shock?

A

bounding periph pulses from incr pulse pressure

349
Q

in what condition do you see equalization of heart chamber pressures?

A

cardiac tamponade

350
Q

treatment for painless thyroiditis (variant of Hashimoto)

A

propanolol for symptomatic management

351
Q

type of bias with poor retention of study subjects

A

selection

352
Q

Chagas disease causes (2 big ones)

A

megacolon and cardiac disease

353
Q

parasites that can cause traveler’s diarrhea

A

cryptosporidium, giardia

354
Q

paraneoplastic presentation of squamous cell carc of lung

A

hypercalcemia from pdtion of PTHrP (sCA++mous)

355
Q

paraneoplastic presentation of small cell carc on lung

A

ACTH pdtion and SIADH

356
Q

hyper and hypocalc effect on QT interval

A

hyper: shortened hypo: prolonged

357
Q

antibody present in granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

c-ANCA (and less freq p-ANCA)

358
Q

what conditions are assoc with p-ANCA

A

vasculitidies like microscopic polyangiitis and eosinophilic granulomatosis

359
Q

presentation of polycythemia vera

A

incr viscosity leads to HTN, transient visual disturb, erythromelalgia (burning cyanosis in hands and feet), aquagenic pruritis, gouty arthritis due to incr RBC turnover

360
Q

phys exam findings for PV

A

ruddy cyanosis/facial plethora, splenomeg

361
Q

treatment for PV

A

phlebotomy +/- hydroxyurea

362
Q

colonoscopy findings in laxative abuse

A

melanosis coli: dark brown discolorations

363
Q

periorbital edema, myositis, and eosinophilia is triad found in

A

trichinellosis

364
Q

complication of influenza in pt who develops worsening fever or pulm sx’s

A

secondary bacterial pneum often Strep pneumo or S aureus

365
Q

cause of metab alkalosis with low urine chloride

A

loss of gastric secretions thru vomiting and NG suctioning

366
Q

cause of metab alkalosis with high urine chloride

A

excess aldo that leads to K and H loss in urine

367
Q

first step for treating acetaminophen OD

A

activated charcoal

368
Q

what med can be used to treat acetaminophen toxicity?

A

N-acetylcysteine

369
Q

mechanism of change in stress test that allows you to see areas of ischemia

A

augmentation of blood flow in nonobstructed vessels

370
Q

presentations of pernicious anemia

A

vit B12 defic–>macro anemia, glossitis, vitiligo, hypothyroid, neuro abnormalities

371
Q

AIDS pt with watery diarrhea and low grade fever

A

cryptosporidium

372
Q

AIDS pt with watery diarrhea and high fever

A

MAC

373
Q

AIDS pt with diarrhea and hematochezia

A

cytomegalovirus

374
Q

most common cause of healthcare-assoc infective endocarditis

A

staph

375
Q

most common cause of community-acquired IE

A

strep

376
Q

what causes IE after dental procedures?

A

viridans strep

377
Q

prophy treatment for cirrhotic pts with nonbleeding varices

A

nonselec beta block (prop, nadolol)

378
Q

cyclosporine toxicity

A

nephrotox, neurotox (tremors) hyperK, HTN (same as tacro) + gum growth and hirsutism

379
Q

tacrolimus tox

A

nephrotox, neurotox (tremors) hyperK, HTN (no hirsut or gum)

380
Q

azathioprine tox

A

diarrhea, leukopenia, hepatotox

381
Q

mycophenolate tox

A

bone marrow suppress

382
Q

polyuria with low serum Na

A

primary polydipsia

383
Q

polyuria with normal or high serum Na

A

diabetes insipidus

384
Q

treatment for HHS

A

saline, insulin, K

385
Q

nephrotic syndrome assoc with HIV

A

FSGS

386
Q

how does lead cause microcytic anemia (what’s the mech)

A

disrupts heme synth

387
Q

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is elevated in what condition

A

leukemoid reaction to infection

388
Q

markers for SLE

A

ANA (sensitive so checked first), anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith (specific so checked second)

389
Q

post-transplant pts should be on which prophy abx

A

tmp-smx to cover for PCP and cytomegalo

390
Q

vitamin defic in carcinoid syndrom

A

niacin leads to pellagra

391
Q

incr or decr of preload in 1) septic 2) hypovolemic 3) cardiogenic shock

A

1) decr 2) decr 3) incr

392
Q

incr or decr of afterload in 1) septic 2) hypovol 3) cardio shock

A

1) decr 2) incr 3) incr

393
Q

incr or decr of cardiac index (func) in 1) septic 2) hypovol 3) cardio shock

A

1) incr 2) decr 3) decr

394
Q

impt drug interactions to consider with PDE-5 inhibitors like sildenafil

A

not good to take with nitrates and careful when taking with alpha blockers (tamsulosin) due to risk of hypotension

395
Q

what should you test for in pt with HTN and hypokalemia

A

hyperaldo

396
Q

digoxin toxicity sx’s

A

GI: anorexia, N/V, pain Neuro: color vision changes, weakness, fatigue, confusion

397
Q

diabetes meds that can cause weight loss

A

metformin and GLP-1 agonists (exenatide)

398
Q

condition with lots of blistering often in someone with hep C

A

porphyria cutanea tarda

399
Q

how do you test for PCP

A

must use microscopy so sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage

400
Q

chemo agents that are cardiotoxic

A

doxorubicin, trastuzumab

401
Q

treatment for torsades

A

IV mag or defib if hemodynamically unstable

402
Q

cause of IE after urinary tract infect/proceufre

A

enterococci

403
Q

which cells responsible for transplant rejection in acute rejection vs graft v host dz

A

host T cells in acute reject and donor T cells in GVHD

404
Q

Sjogren’s sx’s

A

dry eyes and mouth, dysphagia, dental caries, thrush, raynaud, vasculitis, arthritis

405
Q

Abs in Sjogren’s

A

SSA (Ro) and SSB (La)

406
Q

what RPI is used to determine probs with RBC pdtion vs destruction

A

> 2 is hemolytic anemia <2 is underpdtion anemia

407
Q

4 conditions with anemia and thrombocytopenia

A

HELLP, DIC, TTP, HUS

408
Q

aspirin intox causes what acid-base disturbance

A

mixed pic: resp alkalosis from incr resp drive and metab acidosis from incr organic acids

409
Q

cause of neurocysticercosis

A

Taenia solium eggs from undercooked pork

410
Q

person with tricuspid endocarditis is at risk for what

A

septic emboli, most often Staph aureus in IVDU

411
Q

how to treat pulseless electrical activity

A

chest compressions and epi (vasopressor) No role for shock

412
Q

treatment for acute decomp heart fail

A

LMNOP: lasix, morphine, nitrates, o2, position

413
Q

what causes hearing difficulty in meniere

A

incr volume and pressure of endolymph

414
Q

elevated mean corpuscular hemoglobin conc in what condition

A

hereditary spherocytosis

415
Q

intestinal angina caused by

A

mesenteric ischemia

416
Q

urate crystal tumors

A

tophi (in gout)

417
Q

painful genital ulcer with lymphadenopathy

A

chancroid from haemophilus ducreyi

418
Q

what’s the ulcer of syphilis?

A

painless chancre

419
Q

causes of central vertigo

A

stuff in the brain: stroke, tumor, bleed, MS, cerebellar infarct. Also migraine

420
Q

causes of peripheral vertigo

A

Meniere, vestib neuritis, BPPV, acoustic neuroma

421
Q

how do you improve oxygenation in mech ventilated pt? (2 ways)

A

1) PEEP (good for ARDS b/c opens up more alveloi) 2) incr FiO2

422
Q

medication for gastroparesis

A

metoclopramide

423
Q

livedo reticularis (mottled, bluish discoloration that blanches) and blue toe syndrome are characteristic of what

A

chol emboli (often precipitated by vasc procedures)

424
Q

nodular regions with surround ground-glass opacity on in lung

A

halo sign charac of aspergillosis

425
Q

what test is used to screen for AAA?

A

ultrasound

426
Q

Abx for CAP

A

beta-lactam + macrolide (cef + azithro), or fluoroquin like moxiflox

427
Q

causes of interstitial lung dz

A

inhalation of asbestos, bery, silicone, drug tox, conn tiss dz, radiation

428
Q

first line drugs for erectile dysfunc

A

pde-5 inhibs: sildenafil

429
Q

nerve injured by tight belts and area it affects (also what is this called?)

A

lat fem cutaneous, lateral thigh, meralgia paresthetica

430
Q

Kussmaul sign (incr or lack of dec of JVP on inspiration) is most commonly assoc w/ which condition

A

constrictive pericarditis

431
Q

probability that dz is present when test result is positive

A

pos predictive value

432
Q

probability that test result corresponds to whether dz is there or not

A

sens and spec

433
Q

in DKA, what type of fluid should be used for hydration

A

normal saline

434
Q

organisms that cause IE in ppl with prosthetic valves or implanted devices

A

S aureus and epidermidis

435
Q

what is assoc w/ IE caused by strep gallolyticus (bovis)

A

colon cancer and IBD

436
Q

post-MI complication with persistent ST elevation

A

ventricular aneurysm

437
Q

what meds improve long-term survival of pts with LV systolic dysfunc

A

ACE, ARB, beta, mineralocorticoid

438
Q

tests to check for PAD vs venous insuff

A

ankle brachial for PAD, doppler for venous

439
Q

high or low for best management of ARDS: tidal vol, PEEP, FiO2

A

low TV, high PEEP, FiO2 <60% for extended ventilation to prevent O2 toxicity

440
Q

pulsus paradoxus seen in (3)

A

cardiac tamponade, COPD, asthma

441
Q

intermittent asthma daytime sx’s and nighttime awakenings

A

day: <=2/wk; night: ,<=2/month

442
Q

what are pts w/ asbestos exposure at highest risk for?

A

bronchogenic carc (also mesothel but less common)

443
Q

most common cause of AR in developed world? Developing world?

A

bicuspid aortic valve in developed and rheumatic fever in developing

444
Q

pt with signs and sx’s of mono and negative heterophile test

A

CMV instead of EBV

445
Q

passage of stool improves which GI condition

A

IBS

446
Q

prophylaxis for varices in cirrhotic pts

A

beta blocker: causes unopposed alpha vasoconstriction which lessens blood flow

447
Q

rapidly acting agents to treat hyperK

A

insulin and glucose, beta-2 agonists, sodium bicarb

448
Q

slow-acting treatment for hyperK

A

dialysis, diuresis

449
Q

metabolic derangements following vomiting

A

low Cl,K,H–>hypochloremic, hypoK metab alk

450
Q

recurrent headache and HTN in young woman

A

fibromusc dysplasia

451
Q

in mech ventilation, what 2 things influence PaO2? PaCO2?

A

O2: FiO2 and PEEP CO2: RR and TV

452
Q

atrial tachy with AV block assoc with toxicity of what drug

A

digitalis

453
Q

what is body’s response to decr cardiac output?

A

neurohormonal activation (renin, norepi, ADH) that incr SVR

454
Q

anterior mediastinal mass differential

A

4 Ts: thymoma, thyroid neoplasm, teratoma (and other germ cell tumors), terrible lymphoma

455
Q

drug that helps prevent ventricular remodeling after MI

A

ACE inhib

456
Q

causes of anion gap metab acidosis

A

MUDPILES: methanol, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis, paracetamol/tyl, inh and iron, lactic acidosis, ethylene glycal, salicylate

457
Q

treatment for myasthenia gravis crisis

A

plasmapharesis or IVIG

458
Q

treatment for complete AV block

A

pacemaker

459
Q

reversible causes of complete AV block

A

MI, incr vagal tone, metab abnorms (hyperK), AV node blocking agents

460
Q

what tumor marker is elevated in about 50% of cases of HCC?

A

AFP (also yolk sac marker)

461
Q

clinical features of IgA defic

A

recurrent sinopulm and GI infecs, autoimmune; atopy, anaphylaxis during blood transfusion

462
Q

test to look for cancer of head of pancreas? body/tail?

A

ultrasound for head (pt presents with jaundice), CT for others

463
Q

musc atrophy and weakness without pain (painless myopathy)

A

glucocorticoid myopathy. Often from exogenous but can also be from Cushing

464
Q

treatment for polymyalgia rheum

A

glucocorticoids (inflamm condition)

465
Q

which veins are most common source of DVTs that become PEs

A

proximal thigh like fem, iliac, popliteal

Medicine (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions