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Medicine PACES Flashcards

1
Q

List the cardiac causes of clubbing.

A

Infective endocarditis
Congenital cyanotic heart disease
Atrial myxoma

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2
Q

What causes the four heart sounds?

A

S1: mitral valve closure
S2: aortic valve closure
S3: rapid ventricular filling of dilated left ventricle
S4: atrial contraction against stiff ventricle

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3
Q

What murmur is caused by aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right 2nd ICS heart best when sitting forward and in end expiration
Radiates to the carotids
Soft S2 and presence of S4 indicates severity

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4
Q

How does aortic sclerosis differ from aortic stenosis on examination?

A

No radiation to the carotids
Normal pulse character

NOTE: HOCM is another differential for an ejection systolic murmur

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5
Q

List some causes of aortic stenosis.

A

Senile calcification
Bicuspid aortic valve (2% of population)
Rheumatic heart disease

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6
Q

What are the main symptoms of severe aortic stenosis?

A

Syncope
Angina
Dyspnoea (this carries worst prognosis)

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7
Q

List the echocardiogram features of severe aortic stenosis.

A

Pressure gradient > 40 mm Hg
Valve area < 1 cm^2
Jet velocity > 4 m/s

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8
Q

Outline the management of aortic stenosis.

A

General: MDT, optimise cardiovascular risk, monitor with regular follow-up/echos, treat angina (BB) and heart failure (ACEi + BB)
Surgical valve replacement
TAVI (effective in older/frail patients who are not fit for open repair)
Balloon valvuloplasty is an alternative to TAVI (NOTE: effect reduces after 1 year)

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9
Q

What are the benefits of TAVI compared to open repair?

A

(CSP)
Cosmetic: Avoids large thoracotomy scar
Systemic:Less strain on body (so better for frail patients)
Procedural: Heart does not need to be stopped and heart-lung bypass is not necessary

NOTE: it is associated with a higher risk of stroke

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10
Q

What murmur is caused by mitral regurgitation?

A

Pansystolic murmur heard loudest at the apex in the left lateral position at end-expiration
Radiates to the axilla

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11
Q

What are some clinical signs of mitral regurgitation?

A 
Displaced apex 
Apical thrill 
Quiet S1
Pansystolic murmur radiating to the axilla 
S3 (rapid ventricular filling) 
Look for valvulotomy scar
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12
Q

List some causes of mitral regurgitation.

A

LV dilatation (e.g. hypertension, connective tissue disorders)
Annular calcification
Rheumatic heart disease
Mitral valve prolapse

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13
Q

What are some echocardiogram features of severe mitral regurgitation?

A

Regurgitant volume > 60 mL

Systolic pulmonary flow reversal

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14
Q

Outline the management of mitral regurgitation.

A

General: MDT, risk factor modification
AF - rate control and anticoagulation
Reduce afterload (ACEi, BB, diuretics)
Valve replacement (if symptomatic)

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15
Q

What murmur is caused by aortic regurgitation?

A

High-pitched early diastolic murmur loudest at the lower left sternal edge when sitting forward in end-expiration

NOTE: can cause Austin-Flint murmur (rumbling mid-diastolic murmur due to regurgitant blood hitting the mitral valve)

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16
Q

List some causes of aortic regurgitation.

A 
Congenital: Bicuspid aortic valve 
Infectious: Rheumatic heart disease 
Inflammatory: Ankylosing spondylitis  AND Rheumatoid arthritis 
Connective tissue disease (Marfan's, Ehlers-Danlos) 
Infective endocarditis 
Type A aortic dissection
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17
Q

Outline the management of aortic regurgitation.

A

(Similar to MR)```
General: MDT, risk factor modification
Reduce afterload (ACEi, BB, diuretics)
Surgical valve replacement (if symptomatic or LV dysfunction)
~~~

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18
Q

What murmur does mitral stenosis cause?

A 
Loud S1 (opening snap) and rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard loudest at the apex in the left lateral position in end-expiration with the bell
Radiates to the axilla
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19
Q

What are some signs of mitral stenosis?

A

Malar flush (severe)
AF
Tapping apex beat (palpable first heart sound)
NON-displaced apex beat
Right ventricular heave
Blowing mid-diastolic murmur with presystolic accentuation (if not in AF)

NOTE: tends to be middle-aged women who had rheumatic fever in childhood

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20
Q

List some causes of mitral stenosis.

A

Rheumatic heart disease (MOST COMMON)
Senile degeneration
Endocarditis
Congenital

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21
Q

Outline the management of mitral stenosis.

A

Consider rheumatic fever prophylaxis (pen V)
AF rate control and anticoagulation
Surgical: percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty (FIRST LINE provided valve mobile and not calcified)
Alternative: valvotomy or replacement

NOTE a TOE to check for a left atrial mural thrombus should be performed before intervention

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22
Q

What is the Duckett-Jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease?

A 
MAJOR (CASES)
- joints (arthritis)
- carditis 
- nodules subcutaneous 
- erythema marginatum 
- Sydenham's chorea 
MINOR (FRAPP)
- Fever 
- High ESR or CRP 
- Arthalgia
- Prolonged PR interval 
- Previous rheumatic fever

Rheumatic heart disease if 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor

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23
Q

Outline the management of rheumatic fever.

A 
Bed rest 
Ben pen 1.2 mg IM for 10 days 
Analgesia for carditis/arthritis: aspirin/NSAIDs 
Consider oral prednisolone if CCF 
Consider diazepam for chorea
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24
Q

Outline the secondary prevention of rheumatic fever.

A

900 mg Benzathine benzylpenicillin every 3-4 weeks IM for 10 years

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25
Q

What is the difference between acute and subacute endocarditis?

A

Acute: normal valves –> caused by S. aureus and S. epidermidis –> RF: IVDU, skin wounds, immunosuppression
Subacute: abnormal valves –> caused by S. viridans, S. bovis, HACEK –> RF: prosthetic valves, damages valves

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26
Q

List some clinical features of infective endocarditis.

A 
Petechiae (common)
Splenomegaly (common)
Clubbing 
Splinter haemorrhages 
Janeway lesions 
Osler's nodes 
Fever 
Roth spots 
Haematuria
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27
Q

Which murmurs are most commonly associated with infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral regurgitation

Aortic regurgitation

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28
Q

Outline the Duke criteria for infective endocarditis.

A

MAJOR
- +ve blood culture (typical organism in 2 cultures or persistently positive cultures)
- endocardial involvement (positive echo (e.g. vegetation), new valvular regurgitation)
MINOR
- predisposition (cardiac lesion, IVDU)
- fever
- emboli (e.g. Janeway lesions)
- immune phenomena (e.g. Osler’s nodes)
- +ve blood culture not meeting major criteria

For diagnosis: 2 major OR 1 major + 3 minor OR 5 minor

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29
Q

Outline the management of infective endocarditis.

A

Acute Severe: flucloxacillin/vancomycin + gentamicin IV

Subacute: benzylpenicillin + gentamicin IV

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30
Q

What might you see on general inspection of a patient with a valve replacement?

A 
Audible valve click
Bruising (anticoagulation)
Warfarin alert bracelet 
Anaemia 
Midline sternotomy (CABG, open valve replacement) +/- saphenous vein sampling
Neck scars from line insertion 
Femoral/radial scars from angiography
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31
Q

Name three different types of prosthetic valve.

A

Starr-Edwards - 3 artificial sounds
Tilting disc (Bjork-Shiley) or bileaflet (St. Jude) - 1 artificial sound
Bioprosthetic - normal heart sounds

NOTE: bileaflet valves are most commonly used

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32
Q

How might mitral valve replacements sound different from aortic valve replacements?

A

Aortic: Lub-Click (systolic flow murmur)
Mitral: Click-Dub (diastolic flow murmur)

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33
Q

What might a lateral thoracotomy scar be due to?

A

Mitral valve replacement
Mitral valvotomy
Coarctation repair
Blalock-Taussig shunt

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34
Q

What might leave a subclavicular scar in cardiology?

A

Pacemaker

ICD

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35
Q

What is a scar in the antecubital fossa of a cardiology patient suggestive of?

A

Angoigraphy

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36
Q

Which cardiothoracic procedures may be done through a midline sternotomy?

A

CABG
Aortic valve replacement
Mitral valve replacement

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37
Q

Outline the factors considered when deciding on a type of valve replacement.

A

METAL: durable, needs lifelong warfarin, better for young patients or patients who are already on warfarin (e.g. for AF)
PORCINE: less durable (10 years), no need for warfarin, better for elderly/at risk of haemorrhage

NOTE: porcine also known as Carpentier-Edwards valves

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38
Q

List some complications of valve replacement.

A

Thromboembolus
Bleeding (due to warfarin)
Bioprosthetic dysfunction and LVF (usually within 10 years but can be treated percutaneously by valve in valve)
Haemolysis
Infective endocarditis (S. viridans, S. epidermidis)
Atrial fibrillation (particularly mitral valve replacement)

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39
Q

How can any murmur be made louder in a patient?

A

Make them exercise

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40
Q

List some causes of atrial fibrillation.

A 
Ischaemic heart disease 
Valvular pathology (mainly mitral)
Rheumatic heart disease 
Thyrotoxicosis 
Pneumonia
PE 
Post-op
Electrolytes (e.g. hypokalaemia) 
Alcohol
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41
Q

Which investigations are useful for identifying a cause of AF?

A 
FBC (infection)
U&E (K+)
TFTs (hyperthyroid) 
Troponin 
D-dimer
CXR (pulmonary oedema, pneumonia, calcified mitral valve)
Echo (valve pathology, LV function)

NOTE: important differential is multiple ventricular ectopics

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42
Q

How can ventricular ectopics be clinically distinguished from AF?

A

Exercise the patient
AF: pulse remains irregularly irregular
VE: as heart rate increases, pulse becomes regular (closes the window for ventricular ectopics)

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43
Q

What is the difference between paroxysmal, persistent and permanent AF?

A

Paroxysmal: < 7 days and self-terminates
Persistent: > 7 days and requires cardioversion
Permanent: > 1 year or when no further attempts to rhythm control are made

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44
Q

What CHADS-Vasc score requires warfarinisation?

A

1 or more

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45
Q

How should a patient with acute AF presenting < 48 hours of onset be managed?

A

1st line: rhythm control (DC cardioversion or chemical cardioversion (flecainide or amiodarone))
Start LMWH
Rate control (BB, CCB, digoxin)

NOTE: rhythm control is first line in younger patients, first episode AF and when there is an obvious precipitant to the AF

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46
Q

Which medications should be used in the management of paroxysmal AF?

A

Prevention: bisoprolol or sotalol

Pill in the pocket: flecainide or amiodarone

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47
Q

How should patients presenting more than 48 hours after the onset of AF be managed?

A

3 weeks of warfarin (and rate control) before cardioversion

Can be done earlier if a TOE excludes a mural thrombus

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48
Q

List some contraindications of warfarin.

A 
Bleeding tendency 
Compliance issues (dosing/monitoring) 
Risk of falls 
Peptic ulcer disease
Pregnancy
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49
Q

List some complications of warfarin.

A

Bleeding

Osteoporosis

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50
Q

List some indications for permanent pacing.

A 
Complete AV block 
Mobitz type 2 
Symptomatic bradycardia 
Drug-resistant tachyarrhythmias 
Biventricular pacing in chronic heart failure
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51
Q

What do the three letters in naming pacemakers mean?

A

(PacedSensedAction - PSA)
1st: chamber paced (A, V, D)
2nd: chamber sensed (A, V, D)
3rd: action/response (inhibited, triggered, dual)

E.g. VVI: paces the ventricle but also senses intrinsic ventricular activity which would inhibit a pacing output

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52
Q

What are biventricular pacemakers used for?

A

Leads to both ventricles
Used for cardiac resynchronisation therapy in heart failure

NOTE: this aims to maximise the pumping action of the heart

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53
Q

List some complications of pacemakers.

A 
Insertion:
- Bleeding 
- Arrhythmia
Post-Insertion:
- Erosion
- Lead migration 
- Pocket infection 
- Malfunction
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54
Q

List some causes of heart failure.

A

LEFT: ischaemic heart disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, hypertension, mitral and aortic valve disease
RIGHT: LVF, cor pulmonale, tricuspid and pulmonary valve disease

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55
Q

Which main investigations are used in heart failure?

A

Bedside: BP, ECG - rhythm, ischaemia, LVH ```
Bloods: BNP, FBC, U&E, glucose, urine, Lipid
Imaging: CXR - heart size, lung fields ; Echo - valves, ventricular function

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56
Q

Outline the management of chronic heart failure.

A 
Risk factor modification 
1st line: Beta-blocker + ACE inhibitor + loop diuretics (e.g. frusemide) 
2nd line: add spironolactone 
3rd line: consider digoxin
4th line: consider CRT

Final line: heart transplant

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57
Q

What cardiovascular signs should you check for in a patient with COPD?

A 
Cor pulmonale 
Raised JVP 
Left parasternal heavy (RVH)
Tricuspid regurgitation 
Ascites and pulsatile hepatomegaly 
Peripheral oedema
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58
Q

What spirometry results would you expect to see in COPD?

A

Reduced FEV1
Low FEV1/FVC ratio (< 0.7)
Increased total lung capacity and residual volume

NOTE: bronchiectasis also gives an obstructive pattern

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59
Q

Which treatments can be offered to help people with COPD to stop smoking?

A

Specialist nurse and support programme
Nicotine replacement programme
Varenicline (partial nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonist) and bupropion (noradrenaline-doparmine reuptake inhibitor)

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60
Q

List some causes of interstitial lung disease.

A 
UPPER (PETS)
- aspergillosis
- pneumoconiosis
- extrinsic allergic alveolitis
- TB
LOWER (STAIR)
- sarcoidosis
- toxins (amiodarone, nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, sulfasalazine, bleomycine)
- asbestosis 
- idiopathic 
- rheumatological (RA, SLE, systemic sclerosis)
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61
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for interstitial lung disease?

A

High resolution CT

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62
Q

What spirometry results would you expect to see in a patient with pulmonary fibrosis?

A

FEV1: FVC ratio > 0.8
Low TLC
Low RV
Low FEV1 and FVC

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63
Q

What would you expect to hear on auscultation of the chest in a patient with bronchiectasis?

A

Coarse, wet crackles which may change once the patient coughs
May also hear a wheeze
Coughing may clear the wheeze if it is due to a mucus plug

ALSO: clubbing, copious sputum, features of cor pulmonale (raised JVP, loud P2)

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64
Q

List some causes of bronchiectasis.

A

Acquired vs Congental
~~~
ACQUIRED
Idiopathic (50%)
Post-infectious (pertussis, TB, measles)
Obstruction (tumour, foreign body)
Associated (RA, IBD, ABPA)
CONGENITAL
Cystic fibrosis
Kartagener’s syndrome
Young’s syndrome
Hypogammaglobulinaemia (CVIS, Bruton’s X-linked)
~~~

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65
Q

What are some causes of a transudative pleural effusion?

A 
Congestive cardiac failure 
Renal failure 
Liver failure (hypoalbuminaemia)
Hypothyroidism 
Meig syndrome
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66
Q

What are some causes of an exudative pleural effusion?

A 
Infection (e.g. pneumonia)
Cancer 
Inflammation (RA, SLE)
Infarction (e.g. PE) 
Trauma
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67
Q

What are Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Effusion: serum protein ratio > 0.5
Effusion: serum LDH ratio > 0.6
Effusion LDH is 0.6 x ULN

Effusion protein < 25 g/L = transudate
Effusion protein > 35 g/L = exudate
Between

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68
Q

What are some complications of Pancoast tumours?

A

Horner’s syndrome
Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Clawing of the hand and wasting of interossei (due to brachial plexus injury (T1))

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69
Q

List some indications for lobectomy or pneumonectomy.

A

Non-disseminated bronchial carcinoma (90%)
Bronchiectasis
COPD
TB

NOTE: they both have a relatively high mortality

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70
Q

What are the main types of lung cancer and which is most common?

A

Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (80%)
- SCC (35%) - smoking, central, PTHrP
- Adenocarcinoma (25%) - peripheral, less associated with smoking
- Large cell
Small Cell Lung Cancer (20%)
- highly related to smoking, central, ADH/ACTH

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71
Q

Which dermatological conditions are associated with lung cancer?

A 
Acanthosis nigricans 
Trousseau syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis)
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72
Q

Aside from imaging, what other important test needs to be done before a patient is surgically treated for lung cancer?

A

Pulmonary function tests to assess fitness for surgery

Pneumonectomy is contraindicated if FEV1 < 1.2 L

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73
Q

Which organisms most commonly cause community-acquired, hospital-acquired and aspiration pneumonia?

A

CAP: pneumococcus, mycoplasma, haemophilus (COPD), chlamydia pneumophila, viruses
HAP: pseudomonas, staph aureus, Gram negative enterobacteriaceae (Klebsiella)
Aspiration: anaerobes

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74
Q

What is a thoracoplasty?

A

Old treatment for TB which involved surgically removing a rib in order to collapse the part of the lung affected by TB

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75
Q

List the main side-effects of medical TB treatment.

A

Rifampicin: orange urine, enzyme induction (reduced COCP efficacy), hepatitis
Isoniazid: peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide: hepatitis, arthralgia
Ethambutol: optic neuritis (loss of colour vision)

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76
Q

Describe the different X-ray features of primary TB.

A

Ghon Focus: primary subpleural lesion
Ghon Complex: hilar lymphadenopathy + lung lesion
Ranke Complex: fibrosis and calcification of Ghon complex

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77
Q

Which investigations are used to diagnose TB?

A

Latent TB: IGRA assay, tuberculin skin test
CXR
3 x sputum samples (one in morning) - microscopy (Ziehl-Neelsen) and culture on Lowenstein-Jensen
PCR (identify rifampicin resistance)

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78
Q

What are the components of a liver screen?

A

FBC and LFTs (alcohol, macrocytic anaemia)
Hepatitis serology
Lipids (NASH)
Autoantibodies (ASMA, AMA, pANCA, ANA)
Immunoglobulins (high IgG in autoimmune hepatitis; high IgM in PBC)
Caeruloplasmin, ferritin, A1AT
Cancer (AFP, CA19-9)

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79
Q

What should patients with chronic liver failure be screened for?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma: US + AFP

Varices: OGD

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80
Q

What grading system is used for Cirrhosis and what factors does it take into account?

A 
Child-Pugh Grading System
Albumin
Bilirubin
Clotting 
Distension (ascites) 
Encephalopathy
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81
Q

How can the complications of chronic liver disease be managed?

A

Ascites: daily wt, fluid and Na restrict, diuretics, tap
Coagulopathy: Vit K, FFP, platelets
Encephalopathy: avoid sedatives, lactulose, rifaximin
Sepsis / SBP: tazocin or cefotaxime
Hypoglycaemia: dextrose
Hepatorenal syndrome: IV albumin + terlipressin

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82
Q

How might hepatic encephalopathy manifest?

A 
Asterixis 
Ataxia
Confusion 
Dysarthria 
Constructional apraxia 
Seizures

NOTE: plasma ammonia will be high

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83
Q

How should hepatic encephalopathy be treated?

A

Lactulose (reduces nitrogen-forming bowel bacteria)

Rifaximin (kills intestinal microflora)

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84
Q

Outline the treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

A

Cefotaxime or tazocin (until sensitivities known)
Long-term ciprofloxacin and beta-blocker (propranolol)

NOTE: diagnosed if > 250 PMN/mm^3 in ascitic fluid. Usual organisms are E. coli, Klebsiella and Streptococci

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85
Q

Outline how SAAG is used to differentiate causes of ascites.

A 
SAAG > 11 g/L 
- Cirrhosis
- congestive cardiac failure 
SAAG < 11 g/L
- neoplasia
- inflammation 
- infection (e.g. TB peritonitis)
- nephrotic syndrome

NOTE: portal hypertension = pressure > 10 mm Hg

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86
Q

Outline the management of ascites.

A

Conservative: alcohol abstinence, daily weight, fluid restrict (< 1.5 L), low sodium diet
Medical: DIURETICS: spironolactone, add frusemide if poor response
Surgical: Therapeutic paracentesis with albumin infusion
Refractory ascites: TIPSS, transplant
Prophylactic ciprofloxacin for SBP prevention

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87
Q

List some signs of immunosuppressant use.

A 
Cushingoid (steroids) 
Skin tumours (e.g. actinic keratosis, SCC, BCC)
Gingival hypertrophy (ciclosporin)
Hypertension (ciclosporin, tacrolimus) 
Fine tremor (tacrolimus)
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88
Q

What are the main indications for a liver transplant?

A

Cirrhosis
Acute liver failure (e.g. hepatitis A/B, paracetamol overdose)
Malignancy

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89
Q

Which stains should be used on a liver biopsy of a patient with cirrhosis?

A 
Pearl's stain (iron)
Rhodamine stain (copper)
PAS stain (A1AT)
Apple-green birefringence with Congo Red (amyloidosis)
Check for granulomata
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90
Q

List some differentials for splenomegaly.

A

Infection: EBV
Haematological: CLL, lymphoma, CML, myelofibrosis, splenic sequestration crisis
Infiltrative: amyloidosis, Gaucher’s disease
Other: malaria, leishmaniasis, portal hypertension, RA, SLE

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91
Q

List some causes of hyposplenism.

A

Splenectomy
Coeliac disease
Inflammatory bowel disease
Sickle cell disease

NOTE: hyposplenism is managed with immunisations (pneumovax, Hib, men C, annual flu) and daily antibiotics (Pan V or erythromycin)

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92
Q

List some complications of splenectomy.

A

Redistributive thrombocytosis (leads to VTE)
Gastric dilatation (transient ileus)
Left lower lobe atelectasis
Pancreatitis
Increased susceptibility to infection (encapsulated)

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93
Q

List some differentials for enlarged kidneys.

A 
BILATERAL
- ADPKD 
- bilateral RCC 
- bilateral cysts (von Hippel Lindau)
- amyloidosis 
UNILATERAL
- simple renal cyst 
- renal cell carcinoma 
- compensatory hypertrophy
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94
Q

What blood test results would you expect to see in a patient with renal failure?

A

Anaemia
Deranged U&E
Hypocalcaemia, high phosphate, high PTH (secondary hyper PTH)

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95
Q

Which gene most often causes polycystic kidney disease?

A

PKD1 gene on chromosome 16 (85%)
Remainder caused by PKD2 gene on chromosome 4

NOTE: patients with ADPKD should be screened for Berry Aneurysms with an MRA

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96
Q

List some causes of renal cysts.

A

Simple renal cysts (present in 1/3 over 60 yrs)
Dialysis-associated renal cysts (increased risk of RCC)
Tuberous sclerosis

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97
Q

Which paraneoplastic phenomenon can result from RCC?

A 
EPO --> polycythaemia 
PTHrP --> hypercalcaemia 
Renin --> hypertension 
ACTH --> Cushing's syndrome 
Amyloidosis
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98
Q

What are the most common indications for renal transplant?

A

Diabetic nephropathy
Glomerulonephritis
Polycystic kidney disease
Hypertensive nephropathy

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99
Q

Which assessments need to be carried out before renal transplantation?

A 
Virology
Co-morbidities (anaesthetic fitness) 
ABO 
Anti-HLA antibodies 
Haplotype (DR > B > A) 
Pre-implantation cross-match
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100
Q

List some complications of renal transplantation.

A

Bleeding
Graft thrombosis or dysfunction
Infection secondary to immunosuppression (PCP, CMV)
Increased risk of other pathology (skin cancer, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease, cardiovascular disease)
Recurrence of original disease
Urinary leaks

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101
Q

What are the three main types of graft rejection and how are they different?

A

Hyperacute: within minutes, ABO incompatibility, thrombosis and SIRS
Acute Rejection: < 6 months, cell-mediated, fever and graft pain, reduced urine output, increased creatinine, responsive to immunosuppression
Chronic Rejection: > 6 months, gradual increase in Cr and proteinuria, interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy, not responsive to immunosuppression

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102
Q

What are the main side effects of ciclosporin?

A

Nephrotoxic
Gingival hypertrophy
Hypertrichosis
Hepatic dysfunction

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103
Q

What are the main side effects of tacrolimus?

A

Nephrotoxic (less than ciclosporin)
Diabetogenic
Cardiomyopathy
Neurotoxic (peripheral neuropathy)

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104
Q

List some complications of dialysis.

A

Cardiovascular disease
Malnutrition
Infection (uraemic –> granulocyte dysfunction –> sepsis)
Amyloidosis (b2 microglobulin accumulation)
Renal cysts –> RCC
Issues with fluid balance (e.g. hypotension, pulmonary oedema)
Electrolyte imbalance

NOTE: specific complications of peritoneal dialysis include peritonitis, exit site infection, catheter malfunction, obesity (glucose in dialysate)

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105
Q

What is an AV fistula and how are they made?

A

Surgically created connection between an artery and a vein

  • Radio-cephalic at wrist (Cimino-Brescia)
  • Brachio-cephalic at elbow
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106
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of AV fistulas?

A

ADVANTAGES: high flow, low infection rate, low chance of stenosis
DISADVANTAGES: takes 6 weeks to arterialise, body image, must take care around area (e.g. shaving)

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107
Q

List some complications of AV fistulas.

A 
Thrombosis and stenosis 
Infection 
Bleeding 
Aneurysm
Steal syndrome (reduced pulses, pallor, necrosis)
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108
Q

List some causes of chronic renal failure.

A

Infection: pyelonephritis
Inflammation: Glomerulonephritis,Connective tissue disease (SLE, SS, RA),
Malignancy: Multiple myeloma
Metabolic: Diabetes, hypertension, RAS (due to atherosclerosis)
Drugs
Genetic: ADPKD
~~~
~~~

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109
Q

What are the components of a renal screen?

A

Fasting blood glucose/HbA1c
ESR
Immune: ANA, complement, anti-GBM, ANCA, viral serology
Serum protein electrophoresis

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110
Q

List some complications of chronic renal failure.

A 
Cardiovascular disease 
Renal osteodystrophy (osteomalacia, osteporosis)
Fluid overload 
Hypertension 
Electrolyte imbalance (hyperkalaemia, acidosis) 
Anaemia
Restless legs 
Sensory neuropathy
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111
Q

Describe the type of tremor seen in the early stage of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Asymmetrical resting tremor (5 Hz)

Exacerbated by counting backwards

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112
Q

Aside from inspecting and assessing tone in the arms, what else should be done when assessing a patient with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Check eye movements (nystagmus, vertical gaze palsy, saccades)
Glabellar tap
Gait
Write a sentence (micrographia)
Lying-standing BP (autonomic dysfunction)

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113
Q

What are the four main Parkinson’s plus syndromes?

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy
Multiple system atrophy
Dementia with Lewy bodies
Corticobasilar degeneration

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114
Q

Which type of scan is used to diagnose Parkinson’s disease?

A

DAT scan

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115
Q

Outline the management of Parkinson’s disease.

A 
MDT, assess disability using UPDRS 
Physiotherapy
L-DOPA + carbidopra/benserazide 
Dopamine agonists (e.g. ropinirole, pramipexole) 
MAO-B inhibitors (rasagiline)
COMT inhibitors (tolcapone) 
Amantadine 
Anti-muscarinics (e.g. procyclidine)
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116
Q

What are the main clinical features of Parkinson’s disease?

A 
Resting tremor (4-7 Hz)
Rigidity (lead pipe) 
Akinesia
Postural instability 
Postural hypotension 
Sleep disorders 
Psychosis 
Depression 
Dementia
Shuffling gait 
Synkinesis (increase in tone when distracted with another movement)
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117
Q

List some side-effects of L-DOPA.

A 
Tardive dyskinesia
Acute dystonia 
On-off phenomena 
Psychosis 
Dry mouth 
Daytime sleepiness
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118
Q

What are the main features of multiple system atrophy

A

Autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension)
Parkinsonism
Cerebellar ataxia

NOTE: Shy Drager syndrome is when the autonomic features predominate

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119
Q

What are the main features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Vertical gaze palsy
Pseudobulbar palsy (speech and swallowing problems)
Postural instability
Parkinson’s disease (symmetrical, usually no tremor)

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120
Q

What are the main features of corticobasal degeneration?

A

Unilateral parkinsonism (especially rigidity)
Aphasia
Apraxia
Alien hand syndrome (can’t control one hand)

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121
Q

What are the main features of Lewy Body dementia?

A

Dementia
Visual hallucinations
Fluctuating consciousness
Parkinsonism

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122
Q

What are the main features of vascular parkinsonism?

A

Sudden-onset
Worse in legs than arms
Pyramidal signs
Prominent gait abnormality

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123
Q

List some differentials for a tremor.

A

RIP tremor
Resting: parkinsonism
Intention: cerebellar
Postural (worse when arms outstretched): benign essential tremor, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal,

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124
Q

What are some key features of a benign essential tremor?

A 
Autosomal dominant 
Occurs with movement 
Worse when anxious or with caffeine 
Doesn't occur during sleep 
Better with alcohol
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125
Q

What are the main features of cerebellar pathology?

A 
Dysdiadochokinesia
Ataxia
Nystagmus (and saccades) 
Intention tremor (and dysmetria) 
Staccato speech 
Hypotonia

Other: ocular dysmetria, pendular reflexes (continues to swing after reflex), heel-shin ataxia, truncal ataxia (vermis lesion)

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126
Q

List some causes of cerebellar disease.

A 
Demyelination 
Alcohol abuse 
Infarction
SOL (e.g. schwannoma) 
Inherited (Wilson's, Friedreich ataxia, ataxia telangiectasia, VHL) 
Epilepsy medication (phenytoin)
Multiple system atrophy

NOTE: bilateral signs are likely to be due to more global pathology (e.g. alcohol as opposed to infarction)

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127
Q

What are the key features of a cerebellar vermis lesion?

A

Ataxic trunk and gait

Normal arms

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128
Q

What are the main differences between nystagmus caused by cerebellar pathology and vestibular pathology?

A

(if your going toward lesion= c for central)Cerebellar: fast phase towards lesion , maximal when looking towards lesion
Vestibular: fast phase away (auf viedersehen - goodbye/going away) from lesion, maximal looking away from lesion

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129
Q

What is lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome) caused by?

A

Occlusion of PICA or vertebral artery

NOTE: it is the most common brainstem vascular syndrome

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130
Q

What are the main features of lateral medullary syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral anaesthesia or the face
Contralateral anaesthesia of the body (pain and temp)
Cerebellar signs: dysphagia, ataxia, nystagmus, vertigo

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131
Q

What are the features of cerebellopontine angle syndrome?

A

Unilateral hearing loss
Speech impediments
Disequilibrium (loss of balance)
Tremors

NOTE: this can also be accompanied by classical cerebellar signs, CN 6-8 palsies

Causes: vestibular schwannoma, meningioma, metastases, astrocytoma

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132
Q

What are the main features of von Hippel Lindau syndrome?

A 
Renal cysts
Bilateral renal cell carcinoma 
Haemangioblastoma (often cerebellar)
Phaeochromocytoma 
Islet cell tumours
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133
Q

What is Friedreich ataxia caused by?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of the mitochondria characterised by progressive degeneration of the dorsal columns, spinocerebellar tracts and corticospinal tracts
Onset in teenage years and associated with HOCM and dementia

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134
Q

What are the main features of Friedreich ataxia?

A

INSPECTION: Young adult, wheelchair, Pes cavus
MOTOR: Bilateral cerebellar signs (ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus), Leg wasting, Areflexia but extensor plantars
SENSORY: Loss of vibration and proprioception

Other: high-arched palate, optic atrophy, retinitis pigmentosa, diabetes mellitus, HOCM

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135
Q

What are the main upper motor neurone signs seen on examination?

A 
Increased tone
Pyramidal distribution of weakness (LEG: extensors stronger than flexors; ARMS: flexors stronger than extensors)
Hyperreflexia
Extensor plantars
Weakness
Pronator drift
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136
Q

List some causes of bilateral lower limb spastic paraparesis.

A 
Multiple sclerosis 
Cord compression/trauma
Cerebral palsy 
Aortic dissection 
Syringomyelia
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137
Q

List some causes of mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs.

A

Motor neurone disease (ALS)
Friedreich ataxia
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (B12)

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138
Q

Describe the pattern of UMN/LMN signs in cord compression.

A

LMN at level of lesion
UMN below level of lesion

NOTE: there will also be a sensory level, deep pain/radicular pain and potentially sphincter disturbance

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139
Q

List some causes of cord compression.

A

Trauma (vertebral fracture)
Infection (epidural abscess, TB)
Malignancy
Disc prolapse

NOTE: MRI is the investigation of choice

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140
Q

What are the main features of cauda equina syndrome?

A 
Back pain
Radicular pain down the legs 
Bilateral flaccid, areflexic lower limb weakness 
Saddle anaesthesia 
Urinary/faecal incontinence/retention 
Lax anal tone
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141
Q

What are the cardinal signs of syringomyelia?

A

Dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain/temperature, preserved light touch/vibration) usually affecting upper limbs and chest
Wasting/weakness of hands (may include claw hand)
Loss of upper limb reflexes
Charcot joints (shoulder and elbow)

NOTE: may be caused by blocked CSF circulation in Arnold-Chiari malformation or masses, spina bifida, secondary to trauma

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142
Q

Which classification system is used to identify the part of the cerebral circulation affected by a stroke?

A

Bamford classification

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143
Q

What are the features of a total anterior circulation stroke?

A

Hemiparesis and/or hemisensory deficit
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cortical dysfunction (dominant: aphasia, non-dominant: neglect/apraxia)

NOTE: this affects carotid/MCA and ACA territory

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144
Q

What are the features of a partial anterior circulation stroke?

A

2/3 of the TACS criteria (usually homonymous hemianopia and higher cortical dysfunction)

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145
Q

What are the features of a posterior circulation stroke?

A 
Cerebellar syndrome (DANISH)
Brainstem syndrome (cranial nerves - facial weakness, nystagmus, dysphagia, dysarthria)
Homonymous hemianopia

NOTE: affects the vertebrobasilar territory

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146
Q

How do lacunar infarcts manifest and how does it relate to the part of the brain affected?

A 
Pure motor (posterior limb of internal capsule)
Pure sensory (posterior thalamus) 
Mixed sensorimotor (internal capsule) 
Dysarthria
Ataxia hemiparesis (anterior limb of internal capsule)
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147
Q

List some stroke mimics.

A 
Space-occupying lesion
Head injury
Hyper/hypoglycaemia 
Infection (encephalitis, meningitis)
Drugs (e.g. opiates)
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148
Q

Outline the typical first presentation of multiple sclerosis.

A

Two episodes separated by time and space

TEAM:
Tingling
Eyes (optic neuritis - pain on eye movement and reduced central vision)
Ataxia (and other cerebellar signs)
Motor (usually spastic paraparesis)

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149
Q

Which investigations may be used in suspected multiple sclerosis?

A

MRI (gadolinium-enhanced will show areas of active inflammation)
LP (oligoclonal bands)
Antibodies (anti-MBP)
Visual evoked potentials (optic neuritis)

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150
Q

What is internuclear ophthalmoplegia and what is it caused by?

A

Caused by damage to the medial longitudinal fasciculus which is responsible for allowing communication between the ipsilateral CN3 (adduction) and contralateral CN6 (abduction).
This leads to failure of adduction of the ipsilateral eye. Nystagmus in the abducting eye may be noted.

It is most commonly caused by multiple sclerosis (and stroke in older patients)

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151
Q

What is the difference between bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy?

A

Bulbar: lower motor neurone palsy of CN 9 to 12.
Pseudobulbar: upper motor neurone palsy affecting CN 5, 7, 9-12.

Both cause dysphagia and dysarthria but pseudobulbar palsy will also cause lack of facial expression, difficulty chewing and emotional lability.

NOTE: key difference is that bulbar palsy causes LMN signs (e.g. tongue fasciculations) whereas pseudobulbar causes UMN signs (e.g. exaggerated gag reflex)

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152
Q

What are the different types of motor neuron disease?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (50%) - UMN and LMN signs
Primary lateral sclerosis - mainly UMN signs (spastic leg weakness and pseudobulbar palsy)
Progressive bulbar palsy - only affects CN 9-12
Progressive muscular atrophy - LMN signs only, affects distal to proximal (best prognosis)

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153
Q

List some lower motor neurone signs.

A

Muscle wasting
Fasciculations
Hypotonia
Hyporeflexia

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154
Q

List some causes of LMN signs.

A

DISTAL: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, paraneoplastic, lead poisoning, GBS, botulism
PROXIMAL: muscular dystrophy, myositis, Cushing’s, thyrotoxicosis, diabetic amyotrophy, alcohol
UNILATERAL: polio, mononeuropathy

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155
Q

List some causes of peripheral sensory neuropathy.

A 
Diabetes mellitus 
Alcohol abuse 
B12 deficiency 
Chronic renal failure 
Hypocalcaemia 
Vasculitis 
Drugs (e.g. isoniazid)
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156
Q

What features of diabetic neuropathy can be seen in the lower limbs?

A

Distal sensory loss (gloves and stockings)
Bilateral loss of ankle jerk (due to sensory neuropathy)
Mononeuritis multiplex (foot drop)

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157
Q

List some manifestations of autonomic neuropathy in diabetes mellitus.

A 
Postural hypotension 
Gastroparesis 
Diarrhoea 
Urinary retention 
Erectile dysfunction
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158
Q

List the main features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.

A 
Pes cavus 
Symmetrical distal muscle wasting (claw hand, champagne bottle led) 
Thickened nerves 
High stepping gait 
Weak foot and toe dorsiflexion
Absent ankle jerk 
Variable loss of sensation
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159
Q

List some differentials for bilateral ptosis.

A 
Myasthenia gravis
Myotonic dystrophy
Congenital
Senile 
Bilateral Horner's (RARE)
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160
Q

Describe the typical presentation of Guillain-Barre syndrome.

A

Symmetrical ascending flaccid paralysis and sensory disturbance (paraesthesia)
Can cause autonomic neuropathy (labile BP)

NOTE: Miller-Fisher variant is characterised by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and areflexia

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161
Q

Which muscles are weak in a facial nerve palsy?

A 
Frontalis (raising eyebrows)
Orbicularis oculi (scrunching eyes) 
Orbicularis oris (smiling)

NOTE: UMN lesion spares frontalis and orbicularis oculi - if UMN then it may be due to a stroke so do other neuro exams

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162
Q

List some causes of facial nerve palsy.

A 
Idiopathic (Bell's palsy) - 75%
Vascular (stroke)
Multiple sclerosis 
Space-occupying lesion 
Vestibular schwannoma 
Meningioma
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome 
Parotid tumour 
Sarcoidosis 
Lyme disease

NOTE: patients may complain of hyperacusis due to paralysis of stapedius and aguesia (loss of taste)

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163
Q

What causes Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Reactivation of VZV in the geniculate ganglion of CN7

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164
Q

List some causes of Horner’s syndrome.

A

Multiple sclerosis
Pancoast tumour
Trauma (central line, carotid endarterectomy)
Cavernous sinus thrombosis

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165
Q

What are the main features of oculomotor nerve palsy?

A

Ptosis (LPS)
Eye points down and out (unopposed superior oblique and lateral rectus)
Dilated pupils
May have ophthalmoplegia and diplopia

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166
Q

List some causes of third nerve palsy.

A

MEDICAL: mononeuritis (DM), MS, midbrain infarction, migraine
SURGICAL: raised ICP (transtentorial herniation), cavernous sinus thrombosis, posterior communicating artery aneurysm

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167
Q

What is a Holmes-Adie pupil?

A

Dilated (holmes sounds like homer whos fat or in other words dilated) pupil with no response to light and sluggish response to accommodation
Benign condition, more common in females

Also known as myotonic pupil and usually presents with sudden-onset blurred vision. Aetiology unknown.

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168
Q

What are Argyll-Robertson pupils?

A

(andy robertson has Small constricted, irregular pupils )
Accommodation intact
Reaction to light is lost
Atrophied and depigmented iris

Causes include neurosyphilis and DM (lesion in pretectal lesion)

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169
Q

What is an RAPD (Marcus Gunn pupil)?

A

Minor constriction to direct light

Dilatation when moving light to abnormal light (due to defect in the afferent pathway)

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170
Q

List some causes of RAPD.

A

Optic neuritis (MS)
Ischaemic optic/renal disease (central retinal artery occlusion)
Severe glaucoma
Direct optic nerve damage (trauma, tumour)
Retinal detachment (diagnosed with ultrasound B scan)
Severe macular degeneration
Retinal infection (CMV, herpes)

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171
Q

List some features of optic atrophy.

A 
Reduced visual acuity 
Reduced colour vision 
Central scotoma 
Pale optic disc 
RAPD
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172
Q

Outline the visual pathway.

A 
Retina
Optic nerve 
Optic chiasm (nasal fibres decussate)
Optic tract 
Lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus 
Optic radiation (superior field = temporal; inferior field = parietal)
Visual cortex
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173
Q

A lesion at what point in the visual pathway causes homonymous hemianopia?

A

Contralateral defect beyond the optic chiasm (retrochiasmatic)
A larger defect suggests a larger lesion or it’s closer to the chiasm

NOTE: examine for ipsilateral hemiparesis and cerebellar signs

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174
Q

Which visual defect might you see in a middle cerebral artery stroke?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

NOTE: MCA supplies the optic radiation in the temporal and parietal lobes

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175
Q

Which visual defect might you see in a posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing (branch of MCA supplies the visual cortex)

NOTE: patients will not have hemiparesis but may have cerebellar signs

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176
Q

List some causes of monocular blindness.

A 
Eye problem (e.g. cornea, vitreous, retina)
Optic nerve (optic neuropathy)
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177
Q

List some causes of bitemporal hemianopia.

A

Pituitary tumours

Craniopharyngioma (benign suprasellar tumour from Rathke’s pouch)

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178
Q

What could cause a negative Rinne’s test?

A

Negative = BC > AC
True: conductive deafness
False: complete sensorineural hearing loss

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179
Q

How is Weber’s test interpreted?

A

SNHL: lateralises to normal ear
Conductive: lateralises to abnormal ear

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180
Q

List some causes of conductive hearing loss.

A 
Canal obstruction (wax, foreign body)
Tympanic membrane perforation: trauma, infection 
Ossicle defects: otosclerosis, infection, fluid in middle ear
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181
Q

List some causes of sensorineural hearing loss.

A 
Presbyacusis 
Drugs (gentamicin, vancomycin) 
Infection (meningitis, measles) 
Tumour (vestibular schwannoma)
Alport syndrome (SNHL + haematuria)
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182
Q

Describe how dysphasia can be tested.

A

Nominal dysphasia: name three objects
Receptive dysphasia: three-stage command
Conductive dysphasia: repeat a sentence

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183
Q

What is the difference between dysarthria and dysphasia?

A

Dysarthria: impaired articulation of sound
Dysphasia: impairment of language

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184
Q

List some causes of dysarthria.

A

Mouth lesions
Pseudobulbar palsy
Bulbar palsy
Cerebellar lesion

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185
Q

Describe the different types of dysphasia.

A

Expressive: Broca’s area damage (inferior frontal gyrus) - non-fluent speech but comprehension intact
Receptive: Wernicke’s area damage (superior temporal gyrus) - fluent but meaningless speech, comprehension impaired
Conductive: arcuate fasciculus damage - comprehension intact, unable to repeat words/phrases

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186
Q

Which areas of skin tend to be affected by plaque psoriasis?

A 
Extensors 
Behind the ears 
Scalp 
Umbilicus 
Sites of trauma (Koebner phenomenon) 
Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding at site of scraping)

DDx: fungal infection, lichen planus, Bowen’s disease, dermatitis

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187
Q

List some different subtypes of psoriasis.

A 
Plaque 
Guttate (drop lesions after Strep infection) 
Pustular (generalised or palmo-plantar)
Erythrodermic 
Flexural
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188
Q

What are the five patterns of psoriatic arthritis?

A 
Symmetrical polyarthritis 
Asymmetrical oligoarthritis 
DIP involvement 
Arthritis mutilans 
Psoriatic spondylopathy
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189
Q

List some complications of neurofibromatosis.

A

Epilepsy
Sarcomatous change
Scoliosis
Learning difficulty

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190
Q

List some causes of cafe au lait spots.

A

NF1
Noonan syndrome
McCune Albright syndrome (cafe au lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and endocrinopathy (precocious puberty))

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191
Q

What are the main features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant mutation of STK11 gene on chromosome 19
Leads to multiple mucocutaneous macules (on lips and oral mucosa) and GI hamartomatous polyps (can bleed/intussusception)
They have an increased risk of colorectal cancer

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192
Q

List some causes of erythema multiforme.

A

Infection (HSV, mycoplasma, other (TB, histoplasmosis, Yersinia)
Drugs (sulphonamides, NSAIDs, allopurinol)
Severe form is called Stevens-Johnson syndrome (with mucosal ulceration and liver failure)

DDx: tinea, discoid eczema

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193
Q

List some causes of erythema nodosum.

A

Systemic: sarcoidosis, IBD, Behcet’s disease
Infection: streptococcal, TB
Drugs: sulphonamides, OCP

NOTE: the pain begins before the skin changes

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194
Q

List some extra-articular features of rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Eyes: episcleritis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Heart: pericarditis
Lungs: pulmonary fibrosis
Abdomen: splenomegaly (Felty)
Urine: amyloidosis from chronic inflammation
Skeletal: atlanto-axial subluxation
Skin: rheumatoid nodules

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195
Q

Which surgical procedures might patients with rheumatoid arthritis undergo?

A

Carpal tunnel decompression
Tendon repairs and transfers
Ulna stylectomy
Arthroplasty

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196
Q

What are the main side-effects of methotrexate?

A

Bone marrow suppression
Hepatotoxicity
Pulmonary fibrosis

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197
Q

What is Jaccoud arthropathy ?

A

Chronic non-erosive reversible joint disorder occurring due to repeated bouts of arthritis commonly associated with SLE
Mimics rheumatoid arthritis but is caused by tendon contractures which are reducible on extension

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198
Q

Describe the pattern of symptoms seen in ankylosing spondylitis.

A

Back pain that is worst in the morning and improves with exercise
NOTE: check for extra-articular manifestations as well (e.g. aortic regurgitation, ankylosing spondylitis, Achilles tendinitis, apical fibrosis, amyloidosis)

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199
Q

List some risk factors for gout.

A 
Obesity 
Hypertension 
Drugs (thiazides, cytotoxic) 
Lymphoproliferative disorder 
Chronic renal failure 
Alcoholism 
Diet - purine rich foods
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200
Q

What are the main risks of radioiodine treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

May worsen thyroid eye disease

Patients become hypothyroid

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201
Q

What are the main risks of thyroidectomy?

A

Haematoma
Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Hypothyroidism
Hypoparathyroidism

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202
Q

List some causes of macroglossia.

A

Acromegaly
Amyloidosis
Hypothyroidism
Down syndrome

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203
Q

List some causes of acanthosis nigricans.

A 
Obesity and metabolic syndrome 
Diabetes mellitus 
Cushing syndrome 
Acromegaly 
Gastric cancer 
Pancreatic cancer
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204
Q

Which conditions are associated with acromegaly?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome
Diabetes mellitus
Sleep apnoea
Cardiovascular disease

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205
Q

List some complications of Cushing syndrome.

A 
Osteoporosis 
Hypertension 
Cardiovascular risk 
Diabetes mellitus
Immunosuppression
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206
Q

List some side-effects of steroid use.

A

MSK: proximal myopathy, osteoporosis
ENDO: HPA suppression, obesity, diabetes
METABOLIC: hypokalaemia, hypertension, fluid retention
IMMUNE: increased susceptibility to infection
CNS: depression, psychosis
EYE: cataracts, glaucoma

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207
Q

What is hemiballismus and what causes it?

A

Involuntary flinging movements of the extremities, usually isolated to one side of the body
Caused by damage to subthalamic nucleus (e.g. infarct, MS)

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208
Q

What are the exacerbating and relieving factors for benign essential tremor?

A

Exacerbating: anxiety, caffeine
Relieving: alcohol, sleep

NOTE: it is autosomal dominant

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209
Q

Which investigations may be useful in acute rheumatic fever?

A

Raised ASO titre

Positive throat cultures for group A streptococcus

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210
Q

What CXR features may be seen in long-standing untreated mitral stenosis?

A 
Left atrial enlargement 
Pulmonary haemosiderosis (iron deposition in the lungs due to haemolysis)
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211
Q

List some signs of aortic regurgitation.

A 
Collapsing pulse (DDx: pregnancy, PDA, hyperthyroid)
Wide pulse pressure 
Corrigan's sign (visible neck pulses)
De Musset sign (head bobbing)
Quincke's sign (nail bed pulsation) 
Dynamic apex 
Early diastolic murmur at left sternal edge 
Systolic flow murmur
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212
Q

What is R wave progression on ECG?

A

The R waves get bigger from V1 to V6 which is a feature of a normal ECG
Patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease will NOT have R wave progression

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213
Q

What are some differentials for bundle branch block?

A

Ventricular ectopic
Ventricular tachycardia

NOTE: You cannot interpret ST elevation in patients with BBB

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214
Q

What are the main complications of right coronary artery and left coronary artery infarcts?

A

RIGHT: Heart block - RCA supplies the SA node and AV node
LEFT: Heart failure - most important in maintaining blood pressure

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215
Q

Describe the rhythm seen in the three types of heart block.

A

1st Degree: regular rhythm, fixed prolonged PR interval
2nd Degree type 1: irregular, gradually increasing PR interval
2nd Degree type 2: irregular, fixed PR interval, missed beats
3rd Degree: regular bradycardia

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216
Q

List some complications of MI.

A 
Arrhythmia (VF and death)
Cardiac failure 
Embolism
Aneurysm rupture 
Pericarditis (early in full thickness MI or Dressler syndrome)
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217
Q

What ECG feature would be seen in a patient with a ventricular aneurysm?

A

Persistent ST segment elevation in the left sided leads

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218
Q

List some ECG changes seen in PE.

A

May be normal
Sinus tachycardia
Right ventricular strain
S1Q3T3

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219
Q

List some signs of heart failure.

A 
S3 heart sound (may be the first sign) 
Tachycardia 
Tachypnoea 
Wheeze (cardiac asthma) 
Bilateral crepitations 
Raised JVP 
Ankle/sacral oedema
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220
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment in cardiogenic shock?

A

Dobutamine or dopamine in ITU (this has a stimulant effect on the heart through beta-1 agonism)

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221
Q

What are the key differences between dilation and hypertrophy with regards to the position of the apex beat?

A

Dilation causes displacement (CXR diagnosis)

Hypertrophy does not cause displacement (ECG diagnosis)

222
Q

List some causes of cardiac dilation and hypertrophy.

A

Dilation: ischaemia, heart failure, AR, MR, VSD/ASD
Hypertrophy: pressure overload (AS, hypertension, coarctation)

223
Q

How is cardiac hypertrophy diagnosed by ECG?

A

Deep S waves and tall R waves in V5/6

224
Q

List the main ECG changes seen in MI.

A

ST elevation within the first 4-12 hours (reversible)
Q waves after about 6 hours (irreversible)
T wave inversion as ST segments normalise
Non-Q wave infarct (NSTEMI) = subendocardial infarct

225
Q

What is the first line investigation for stable angina?

A

Exercise ECG

226
Q

Which treatment is often used in ICU for septic shock?

A

Noradrenaline (alpha and beta-1 stimulant) that causes peripheral vasoconstriction

227
Q

List some respiratory causes of clubbing.

A 
Bronchial carcinoma 
Cystic fibrosis 
Bronchiectasis 
Empyema 
Fibrosing alveolitis
228
Q

List some signs of carbon dioxide retention.

A 
Retention flap
Bounding pulse 
Vasodilation (warm hands) 
Papilloedema 
Mental change 
Drowsiness (narcosis)
229
Q

List some clinical features of acute severe asthma.

A 
Not able to speak 
Peak flow < 150 L/min
Cyanosis 
Tachycardia 
Paradox > 20 mm Hg 
Silent chest 
Normal CO2

NOTE: BP paradox is a phenomenon where the patient’s blood pressure rises by more than 20 mm Hg when the patient is blowing out (detected by pumping cuff to a level at which Korotkoff sounds can be heard during expiration but not inspiration)

230
Q

What follow-up is important to arrange in patients with a pneumonia?

A

CXR in 4-6 weeks to check for underlying cause (e.g. tumour)

231
Q

List some signs of obstructive airway disease.

A 
Hyperexpansion 
Hyperresonant 
Barrel chest 
Tracheal tug 
Decreased expansion 
Expiratory wheeze
232
Q

List some signs of chronic liver disease.

A 
Spider naevi (> 5)
Clubbing 
Palmar erythema 
Dupuytren's contracture
Gynaecomastia 
Testicular atrophy
233
Q

List some signs of portal hypertension.

A

Splenomegaly
Ascites
Caput medusae
Haematemesis

234
Q

List some signs of liver cell failure (decompensation).

A 
Jaundice 
Leukonychia (hypoalbuminaemia)
Bruising (clotting/fibrinogen)
Ascites 
Encephalopathy
235
Q

How can inferior vena cava obstruction be distinguished from portal hypertension?

A

IVCO also causes ascites but the dilated veins on the abdomen only flow upwards

NOTE: IVCO is considerably more rare than portal hypertension

236
Q

How can obstructive jaundice be clinically differentiated from other causes of jaundice?

A

Pruritus causing excoriation marks - due to bile salts accumulating in the skin

Other features of cholestasis include: pale stool (PR), dark urine (negative for urobilinogen), jaundice, xanthelasmata

237
Q

How can an enlarged spleen be distinguished from an enlarged kidney?

A

Spleen has a notch
Cannot get above the spleen
Spleen is dull to percussion (whereas the kidney is resonant due to overlying bowel)
Kidney is ballotable
Spleen moves towards the RIF as it grows
Kidney moves downwards as it grows

238
Q

How can you distinguish between cardiogenic, septic and hypovolaemic shock on clinical examination in an unconscious patient?

A

Feel their hands and check their JVP
Cardiogenic = high JVP + cold
Septic = low JVP + warm
Hypovolaemic = low JVP + cold

NOTE: anaphylaxis has a similar pathophysiology to sepsis

239
Q

What is erythema ab igne and what causes it?

A

Brown pigmentary discoloration caused by chronic heat over skin
Usually seen in areas of chronic pain where patients have been applying hot water bottles (also seen on the shins of elderly who sit in front of coal fires)

IMPORTANT: check whether using hot water bottle on the area and why (e.g. back pain, knee pain)

240
Q

What causes migratory necrolytic erythema?

A

Glucagonoma

241
Q

Which electrolytes are driven into cells by insulin?

A

Potassium

Phosphate

242
Q

In which circumstances are insulin sliding scales particularly useful?

A

T2DM patients being fasted for surgery (they are not ketotic so you need to titrate their insulin according to their blood glucose)

NOTE: its use in DKA is controversial, because the main purpose of insulin in DKA is to switch off ketones not to regulate glucose

243
Q

Outline the use of bicarbonate in DKA.

A

This should NOT be given by F1s (it can only be given by specialists)
A small about of dilute (1.26%) bicarbonate may be used by specialists to raise pH to > 7 (because insulin doesn’t work at lower pHs)

NOTE: 8.4% bicarbonate is poisonous and will kill patients

244
Q

What are the stages of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Background: blot haemorrhages, microaneurysms (dots), hard exudates
Pre-proliferative: soft exudates (cotton wool spots), venous beading
Proliferative: new vessels, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment
Maculopathy: hard exudates near the macula, reduced acuity

NOTE: diabetics should have their eyes checked every year

245
Q

What are the grades of hypertensive retinopathy?

NOTE: known as the Keith-Wagener classification

A

SAFE
1: arteriolar narrowing and Silver wiring
2: Av nipping
3: Flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots
4: papilloEdema

246
Q

What is a major cause of retinal artery occlusion?

A

Giant cell arteritis

247
Q

List some causes of central retinal vein occlusion.

A

Hypercoagulable states: cancer, multiple myeloma

248
Q

What is retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Inherited condition that cases slowly worsening blindness and it is incurable
Causes tunnel vision

249
Q

List some features of thyrotoxicosis.

A 
Weight loss 
Increased appetite
Breathlessness 
Palpitations 
Tachycardia
Sweating 
Heat intolerance 
Diarrhoea 
Lid lag

GRAVES: pretibial myxoedema, exophthalmos

250
Q

What are some key things that you should do when examining a patient with acromegaly?

A

Shake the patient’s hand feeling for doughy consistency and excessive sweating
Check blood pressure
Dipstick urine for glycosuria
Visual field testing for bitemporal hemianopia
Look at tongue and teeth
Examine cardiovascular system if time

Key questions: change in ring size, change in shoe size, changes in vision, ask for old photographs

251
Q

How is acromegaly investigated?

A

IGF-1 levels
Glucose tolerance test and measure GH levels (should be undetectable in normal people)
Imaging: lateral skull X-ray, CT, MRI

252
Q

What are the treatments for acromegaly?

A

Transphenoidal hypophysectomy
Pituitary irradiation
Medical (octreotide 100-200 mcg every 8 hours OR lanreotide monthly)

253
Q

What are some key things that you should do when examining a patient with Cushing syndrome?

A

Examine face and skin looking for bruising and thin skin
Check blood pressure
Urine dipstick for glycosuria
Look for proximal myopathy (squat down and stand up) and abdominal striae

254
Q

What are the main causes of Cushing syndrome?

A

Iatrogenic (exogenous steroids) - MOST COMMON
Pituitary adenoma (next most common)
Adrenal adenoma
Ectopic ACTH (small cell lung cancer)

255
Q

Outline the treatment of Paget’s disease.

A

May not need treatment
Simple analgesia
IV pamidronate every 3 months (mainstay)
Regular oral alendronate

256
Q

What are the main differences between the CSF findings of bacterial and viral meningitis?

A

Viral: clear, lymphocytes, normal glucose, normal/high protein
Bacteria: cloudy, neutrophils, low glucose, high protein

257
Q

Which medication reduces vasospasm in subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Nimodipine

258
Q

Describe the difference in the pathogenesis of pupil-sparing and non-pupil sparing 3rd nerve palsy.

A

Pupil-sparing: caused by diabetes mellitus, where damage to the vasa vasorum supplying the main trunk of the 3rd nerve causes ischaemia (but sparing of surrounding parasympathetic fibres)
NON-pupil sparing: caused by space occupying lesions (e.g. posterior communicating artery aneurysm) which put pressure on the parasympathetic fibres and the main trunk causing dilatation

259
Q

Which key examinations should you do in a patient with suspected MS?

A

Fundoscopy - check for optic neuritis
RAPD
Check for UMN signs in other parts of the body
Check for cerebellar signs (cerebellum is often affected)

260
Q

What causes clonus?

A

Hugely increased muscle tone (i.e. UMN sign)

261
Q

List some poor prognostic features of MS.

A

Brainstem or cerebellar disease at onset
Onset over age of 40 years
Primary progressive MS

262
Q

What are the main features of neurofibromatosis type 1?

A 
Multiple (>5) cafe au lait patches
Axillary or inguinal freckling 
Optic glioma 
Lisch nodules (hamartomas on iris)
Other: meningioma, phaeochromocytoma, kyphoscoliosis, renal artery stenosis

NOTE: it is autosomal dominant (Chr17)

263
Q

List some causes of lower motor neurone signs.

A

Motor neurone disease (also causes UMN signs)
Previous polio (destroys anterior horn cells)
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Peripheral nerve lesion (e.g. trauma around fibula causing footdrop)

264
Q

List some causes of upper motor neurone signs.

A

Stroke
Multiple sclerosis
Brain tumour
Damage to spinal cord

265
Q

What is a passive shoulder shrug used for?

A

Loss of swing of an arm is a sign of rigidity

This may be due to Parkinson’s disease or UMN lesion

266
Q

What does a positive Romberg sign suggest?

A

The patient is heavily dependent on vision for balance (sensory ataxia)
i.e. proprioception in the feet is impaired (peripheral neuropathy)

267
Q

What is an easy way of testing L4/5 and S1/2?

A

L4/5 - ask the patient to stand and raise their toes off the ground (like a penguin)

268
Q

What gait abnormality would you expect to see in a patient with an UMN lesion?

A

Drags legs

Circumducts (unilatearl) or scissors (bilateral)

269
Q

What gait abnormality would you expect to see in peripheral motor neuropathy?

A

Foot drop (high step)

270
Q

What gait abnormality would you expect to see in patients with myopathy?

A

Waddling
Difficulty standing/squatting
Trendelenberg sign

271
Q

What gait abnormality would you expect to see in patients with cerebellar disorders?

A

Ataxic - broad-based, variable cadence

272
Q

What would an ataxic gait due to sensory impairment look like?

A

Broad-based
Stamping
Romberg sign positive

273
Q

What gait abnormality would you expect to see in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Reduced arm swing
Stooped, shuffling gait
Freezing
Festination

274
Q

Outline the MRC scale for grading muscle power.

A 
0 - no movement 
1 - flicker in muscle 
2 - moves but not against gravity 
3 - can overcome gravity 
4 - weak but can overcome gravity
5 - normal
275
Q

List the main reflexes tested in a limb neurological exam and the nerve roots involved.

A 
Biceps (C5/6)
Brachioradialis (C6)
Triceps (C7/8)
Knee (L3/4)
Ankle (S1/2)
276
Q

List some niche reflexes that you may be able to elicit in patients with upper motor neurone lesions.

A

Finger jerks
Hoffman reflex
Crossed adductors
Absent abdominal reflexes

277
Q

Which sensory nerve is responsible for sensation at the nipple and belly button?

A

Nipple: C5/6
Belly Button: T10

NOTE: with cord lesions that cause a sensory loss up to a certain level - the level of the sensory loss is the lowest level the cord lesion could be at. Pain is a better sign for localising the lesion.

278
Q

What is the difference in the pattern of neurological symptoms in extrinsic vs intrinsic compression of the spinal cord?

A

Extrinsic (disc prolapse): rising sensory level (hitting the outer most fibres first)
Intrinsic (syringomyelia): descending sensory level and may affect pain (hitting inner most fibres first)

279
Q

At what level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1

Lesions below this will produced LMN signs

280
Q

What are the main aspects of testing the cranial nerves involving the eyes?

A 
Visual acuity 
Visual fields 
Pupillary responses
Fundoscopy 
Eye movements
281
Q

What conclusions can you draw from looking at the shoes of a neurology patient?

A

Laces - likely to be good upper limb function
Shoes are worn - the patient is walking
Shoes worn at the lateral front edges from circumducting legs (likely UMN lesion)
Shoes worn at the front - foot drop
Both shoes worn - bilateral problem

282
Q

List some causes of ascending aorta aneurysms.

A

Aortic stenosis (post-stenotic dilatation)
Hypertension
Marfan syndrome
Syphilis

283
Q

What does obscuring of the right heart border suggest?

A

Right middle lobe pathology

284
Q

What does obscuring of the left heart border suggest?

A

Left upper lobe pathology (lingula)

285
Q

List some causes of lobar collapse.

A

Mucus plugs in bronchiectasis
Tumour blocking the airway
Foreign body inhalation

286
Q

Which cancers have a predilection for spreading to the lungs?

A

Breast
Renal
Thyroid
Choriocarcinoma

287
Q

What is the difference between a mass and a nodule in terms of CXR interpretation?

A

Nodule < 3 cm

Mass > 3 cm

288
Q

What is an important differential to consider in a CXR that looks like a pneumothorax?

A

Giant bulla

DO NOT PUT CHEST DRAIN IN

289
Q

What is the 10-day rule with regards to using ionising radiation in women?

A

In women of child-bearing age, imaging of the abdomen/pelvis using ionising radiation should be restricted to the 10 days following the onset of menstruation (i.e. day 1-10 of the menstrual cycle)

NOTE: this can be overridden if their life is in danger

290
Q

Outline the treatment of acute otitis externa and otitis media.

A

Otitis externa: topical antibiotics (e.g. sofradex)
Otitis media: 7-10 day course of amoxicillin
Mastoiditis: surgical decompression (cortical mastoidectomy)

NOTE: mastoiditis can lead to meningitis, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess and death

291
Q

Outline the treatment of sudden sensorineural hearing loss.

A

Steroids (high dose)
Anti-virals (aciclovir)
Intratympanic steroid injections

292
Q

How is facial nerve palsy treated?

A

High dose oral steroids (40-60 mg prednisolone)

Aciclovir 800 mg 5 per day

293
Q

How is BPPV treated?

A

Epley manoeuvre

NOTE: it is tested for using the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

294
Q

List some causes of vertigo.

A 
Meniere's disease 
Acoustic neuroma 
Trauma 
Migraine 
Central causes (CVA, cerebellar tumour)
295
Q

How is bacterial tonsillitis treated?

A

Penicillin V 500 mg QDS for 10 days

296
Q

List some symptoms of quinsy.

A 
Trismus 
Hot potato voice 
Anorexia 
Spiking fever 
Stiff neck 
Stertor

NOTE: needs drainage

297
Q

What can cause a loud second heart sound?

A

Pulmonary or systemic hypertension

298
Q

How is bronchial breathing different from vesicular breathing?

A

Vesicular: crescendo-decrescendo with no gap, inspiration longer than expiration
Bronchial: expiration same duration as inspiration with a gap in the middle

299
Q

What does a low TLCO or Kco suggest?

A

Damage to lung parenchyma (e.g. fibrosis, emphysema)

NOTE: they are both a measure of the diffusion capacity of the lungs (TLCO is not adjusted for volume, Kco is adjusted for volume)

300
Q

How is HRCT different from volumetric CT?

A 
10-15 mm interspace (fewer slices)
Doesn't cover the whole chest 
No contrast so not very good for mediastinum/vasculature 
Used for ILD/emphysema/bronchiectasis 
Less radiation

NOTE: volumetric CT is used for cancer staging, lymph nodes and pleural space

301
Q

How is asthma defined on the basis of investigation results?

A

Variable airway obstruction (PEF > 20% variability, FEV1 > 12% or 200 mL improvement)
Airway hyper-responsiveness (PC20 - provocation test using either histmaine or metacholine)

NOTE: PC20 means the amount of histamine you need to give a patient to see a 20% drop in FEV1. FeNO is a surrogate marker for airway inflammation if high.

302
Q

List some complications of bronchiectasis.

A 
Pulmonary hypertension
Cachexia
Lobar collapse 
Massive haemoptysis 
Type 2 respiratory failure 
Situs inversus (Kartagener's)
303
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with bronchiectasis?

A 
CXR 
HRCT (dilated thickened airways with evidence of mucus plugging - signet ring sign)
Sputum cultures 
Spirometry (obstructive)
Aspergillus markers 
Immunoglobulins 
CF genetic testing
304
Q

Outline the management of bronchiectasis.

A 
Physiotherapy (mucus clearance, postural drainage)
Prompt treatment of infection with abx
Correct underlying causes 
Prophylactic antibiotics 
Bronchodilators 
Pulmonary rehabilitation 
Smoking cessation
305
Q

Which investigations would you request for a patient with suspected lung cancer?

A

CXR
Volumetric CT
Lung function (assess fitness for surgery)
PET-CT wit 18-FDG (to look for distant metastases)
Biopsy/bronchoscopy/endobronchial ultrasound

306
Q

List some complications of COPD.

A 
Cor pulmonale
Secondary pneumothorax 
Polycythaemia 
Lung cancer 
Steroid therapy complications
307
Q

What are the cardinal signs of hyperinflation in COPD?

A

Reduced crico-sternal distance (normal = 3 fingers)
Loss of cardiac dullness
Displaced liver edge

308
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with suspected COPD?

A

FBC (secondary polycythaemia)
CXR (is there anything else going on? Cancer? Infection?)
Lung function (fixed obstructive with no reversibility)
Blood gas
HRCT (to assess whether volume reduction surgery is feasible)
Echo to check for pulmonary hypertension
A1AT

309
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess how functionally impaired a COPD patient is?

A

mMRC
0 = only breathless with strenuous exercise
1 = short of breath when hurrying or walking slightly uphill
2 = walk slower than the average person of the same age due to breathlessness, have to stop for breaks
3 = stop for breath after walking 100 m or after a few mins
4 = too breathless to leave the house, breathless when dressing

310
Q

What is tested for when a pleural effusion is sampled?

A 
Microscopy and culture 
TB 
Protein 
Glucose 
pH (< 7.2 in empyema)
LDH
Cytology
311
Q

Outline the management of a pleural effusion.

A

Drain (may include video-assisted thorascopic surgery, indwelling pleural catheter)
Treat underlying cause

312
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with suspected interstitial lung disease?

A

CXR
HRCT (ground glass, honeycombing, traction bronchiectasis)
FBC (complement, autoimmune screen)
Lung function including transfer factor (TLCO)
BAL (cell differentials), transbronchial biopsy
Echocardiogram (pulmonary hypertension)
6 min walk
ABG

313
Q

Outline the management of interstitial lung disease.

A 
Physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation 
Ambulatory oxygen 
Anti-tussives 
Smoking cessation 
Pirfenidone/ninetadinib (IPF only)
Immunosuppressives/steroids (especially sarcoid or CTD-associated)
Transplant 
Palliative care
314
Q

Which investigations should be requested in the case of any cardiac valve lesion?

A

Bloods - exclude endocarditis if new (blood cultures, FBC, CRP, U&E)
Clotting - if anticoagulated
Echo - confirm diagnosis, check all valves, assess severity and ventricular function
ECG - for rhythm, LVH and ischaemia
CXR - for associated lung lesions
Other vascular risk factors (e.g. BP, lipids)

315
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with signs of ischaemic heart disease?

A 
Bloods - FBC, U&E, glucose, lipids
ECG 
CXR 
Echo - function and evidence of old MI 
Angiography
Dynamic testing (e.g. stress echo)
Assess rest of vasculature
316
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with a suspected pleural effusion?

A

Bedside: Urine - protein
Bloods - FBC, clotting, U&E, LFT, CRP, TFT, blood cultures, sats
Imaging: CXR - confirm diagnosis and look for cause
US-guided aspiration
CT chest

317
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with suspected liver disease?

A

Bloods - FBC, U&E, LFT, CRP, INR, clotting, AFP, hepatitis serology, autoantibodies
Ultrasound of the abdomen
Endoscopy for varices

318
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with polycystic kidney disease?

A

Imaging :Ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis and echo
Bloods: FBC, U&E, eGFR, LFT, PTH, urine for protein
Bedside: Blood pressure, ECG for LVH

319
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with a transplanted kidney?

A

Bloods - FBC, U&E, eGFR, LFT, lipid profile, immunosuppressant levels
Urine for blood and protein
Ultrasound to confirm and check perfused
Examine for complications (vascular, infectious, cancer)

320
Q

Which investigations would you request in a patient with a suspected cerebrovascular accident?

A

Bloods: FBC, U&E, CRP, glucose, lipids, INR
Bedside: ECG
Imaging: Urgent CT head
Carotid doppler or echo

321
Q

List some causes of peripheral neuropathy.

A 
Diabetes mellitus 
Alcoholism
B12 deficiency 
Hypothyroidism
Autoimmune (RA, SLE, Sjogren)
Amyloidosis
322
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with peripheral neuropathy?

A

Bloods - FBC, U&E, glucose, LFT, TFT, B12 and folate, autoantibodies
CXR - especially if smoker
Nerve conduction studies
May need MRI if there are doubts about the location of the lesion

323
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient with suspected rheumatoid arthritis?

A 
Bloods - FBC, ESR, CRP, RF, anti-CCP, U&E, LFT 
Urine for protein 
X-ray hands and ultrasound joints
ECG 
CXR (lung involvement)
324
Q

What are the components of a confusion screen?

A

B12/folate
TFTs
Glucose
Bone Profile (Calcium)

325
Q

Outline the NICE guidelines on maintenance fluids.

A

25-30 ml/kg/day of water
1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride
50-100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis

GENERAL RULE: 1 salty, 2 sweet

326
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for asthma?

A

FeNO of > 40 parts per billion
Post-bronchodilator improvement in lung function of 200 mL
Post-bronchodilator improvement in FEV1 of > 12%
PEFR variability of > 20%
FEV1/FVC ratio < 70%

327
Q

What are the main differences between spasticity and rigidity?

A

Spasticity
- Weakness present
- More resistance in one direction than another
- Clasp knife spasticity (more resistance in first part of movement)
- Velocity-dependent (spasticity more noticeable with fast movements)
Rigidity
- Same resistance in all directions
- Not velocity-dependent

328
Q

What is the haemoglobin threshold that requires transfusion?

A

Non-ACS: < 70 g/L

ACS: < 80 g/L

329
Q

What triad of features of characteristic of insulinoma?

A

Whipple’s triad

  • symptoms and signs of hypoglycaemia
  • plasma glucose < 2.5 mmol/L
  • reversibility on administration of glucose
330
Q

What are the main features of age-related macular degeneration?

A

Advanced age
Gradual loss of vision
Blurring of small words
Straight lines appearing ‘curvy’

Fundoscopy: neovascularisation (wet), drusen (dry)

331
Q

What are the indications for urgent referral of a patient with dyspepsia?

A

Dysphagia
Upper abdominal mass (stomach cancer?)
Patients > 55 yrs with weight loss AND upper abdominal pain OR reflux OR dyspepsia

332
Q

How should patients with dyspepsia and no red flags be managed?

A

Review medications for possible cause
Lifestyle advice
Trial of full-dose PPI for 1 month OR test and treat approach for H. pylori (using C13 urea breath test/stool antigen/serology)

333
Q

List some causes of unilateral foot drop.

A

Common peroneal nerve injury (MOST COMMON)
L5 radiculopathy
Sciatic nerve injury

NOTE: main dorsiflexor of the foot is tibialis anterior

334
Q

What counts as orthostatic hypotension?

A

Lying/standing blood pressure
Drop by 20 mm Hg systolic
Drop by 10 mm Hg diastolic
Drop below 90 mm Hg systolic (even if drop is less than 20)

335
Q

List some causes of sudden visual loss.

A

Ischaemic/vascular (e.g. central retinal vein/artery occlusion)
Vitreous haemorrhage
Retinal detachment
Retinal migraine

336
Q

What is the target HbA1c for patients with T2DM and when would you consider adding a second drug?

A

Target = 48 mmol/mol
Consider adding 2nd agent = 58 mmol/mol
Target when on more than one drug or on an agent that causes hypoglycaemia = 53 mmol/mol

337
Q

What is the Hoffman reflex?

A

Quick forced flexion of the distal IP joint of the middle finger will cause flexion of the index finger and adduction of the thumb

Associated with UMN diseases: degenerative cervical myelopathy, MS

338
Q

What are the main features of degenerative cervical myelopathy?

A

Pain (neck and limbs)
Loss of motor function (loss of dexterity)
Numbness
Loss of autonomic function (e.g. incontinence, impotence)
Hoffman’s sign

NOTE: DCM results from cervical spondylosis

339
Q

What signs of cardiovascular disease may you see on the face?

A

Malar flush (MS)
Eyes - hyperlipidaemia (xanthelasma, corneal arcus), anaemia (conjunctival pallor)
Mouth - central cyanosis, dry, dental caries, high arched palate

340
Q

What could cause an impalpable apex beat?

A

COPD
Obesity
Pericardial effusion
Dextrocardia

341
Q

What signs of respiratory disease may you see on the face?

A 
Flushed/plethoric - polycythaemia, SVCO, carbon dioxide retention 
Cushingoid 
Conjunctival pallor 
Horner syndrome 
Central cyanosis 
Oral candidiasis (steroid inhaler use)
342
Q

Which signs of abdominal disease may you see on the face?

A

Eyes - conjunctival pallor, scleral icterus, Keiser-Fleischer rings
Mouth - aphthous ulcers, glossitis, gum hypertrophy, fetor hepaticus, pigmented macules, telangiectasia

343
Q

Define ‘upper motor neurone lesion’.

A

The lesion is above the level of the anterior horn cell

NOTE: LMN is a lesion of the anterior horn cell or distal to it

344
Q

What are some clinical features of lesions that affect the brainstem (subcortical)?

A 
Extraocular movement impairments
Diplopia
Dysphagia
Dysarthria
Nystagmus

NOTE: subcortical cerebellar damage can cause DANISH

345
Q

What are some clinical features of cortical brain damage?

A

Dysphasia
Visual/sensory inattention
Neglect

346
Q

What do you look for on inspection of a limb when doing a neurological examination?

A 
Scars 
Wasting 
Involuntary movements 
Fasciculations 
Tremor
347
Q 
Which nerve roots are responsible for the following upper limb movements:
Wrist extension
Wrist flexion
Finger flexion 
Finger abduction 
Thumb abduction
A

Wrist extension - C6 + C7 via radial nerve
Wrist flexion - C6 + C7 via median nerve
Finger flexion - C8 via median nerve
Finger abduction - T1 via ulnar nerve
Thumb abduction - C8 and T1 via median nerve

348
Q 
Which muscles and nerves are tested by the following movements of the lower limb:
Hip flexion 
Hip extension 
Knee flexion 
Knee extension 
Ankle dorsiflexion
Ankle plantarflexion 
Great toe extension
A

Hip flexion - iliopsoas - L1 + L2
Hip extension - gluteus maximus - L4 + L5
Knee extension - quadriceps - L3 + L4
Knee flexion - hamstrings - L5 + S1
Ankle dorsiflexion - anterior compartment - L4 + L5
Ankle plantarflexion - gastrocnemius and soleus - S1 + S2
Great toe extension - extensor hallucis longus - L5

349
Q

List some causes of hepatomegaly.

A 
Hepatitis 
Carcinoma (metastases)
Congestive cardiac failure 
Autoimmune (PSC, PBC, AIH)
Infiltrative (amyloid, myloproliferative)
350
Q

List some causes of palmar erythema.

A 
Cirrhosis 
Hyperthyroidism
Rheumatoid arthritis 
Pregnancy 
Polycythaemia
351
Q

List some causes of gynaecomastia.

A 
Physiological (puberty)
Drugs (spironolactone, digoxin, cimetidine, finasteride)
Cirrhosis 
Testicular tumour/orchidectomy 
Kleinfelter's and Kallman syndrome
352
Q

List some clinical features of haemochromatosis.

A 
Testicular atrophy 
Diabetes mellitus (injection sites)
Congestive cardiac failure 
Arthropathy 
Chronic liver disease
353
Q

What are the main indications for splenectomy?

A

Rupture (trauma)

Haematological (ITP, hereditary spherocytosis, sickle cell disease)

354
Q

How do patients with polycystic kidney disease tend to present?

A 
Hypertension 
Recurrent UTI
Abdominal pain (bleeding into cyst or cyst infection)
Haematuria 
End-stage renal failure

NOTE: may present with extra-renal manifestations such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, mitral valve prolapse and hepatic cysts

355
Q

List some signs of interstitial lung disease.

A 
Clubbing 
Central cyanosis 
Fine end-inspiratory crackles 
Signs of autoimmune disease (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, SS)
Grey skin (amiodarone)
356
Q

List some causes of apical fibrosis.

A 
TB 
Radiation 
Ankylosing spondylitis 
ABPA
Sarcoidosis 
Histoplasmosis 
EAA
357
Q

List some clinical signs of COPD.

A 
Central cyanosis 
Pursed lip breathing 
CO2 retention flap/bounding pulse 
Tar stained fingers 
Expiratory polyphonic wheeze 
Cor pulmonale (raised JVP, ankle oedema, RV heave, loud P2)
358
Q

Outline the management of COPD.

A 
Smoking cessation 
Beta-agonists (salbutamol)
Tiotropium bromide 
Inhaled corticosteroids 
Vaccinations (influenza, pneumococcus) 
Pulmonary rehabilitation 
LTOT
359
Q

List some surgical treatment options for COPD patients.

A

Bullectomy
Endobronchial valve placement
Lung reduction surgery (if heterogenous distribution of emphysema)
Single lung transplant

360
Q

List some differentials for a wheezy chest.

A 
COPD 
Asthma 
Bronchiectasis 
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (obliterative bronchiolitis) 
Rheumatoid arthritis
361
Q

List the criteria for starting long-term oxygne therapy.

A

Non-smoker
PaO2 < 7.3 kPa on air
PaO2 7.3-8 with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or evidence of pulmonary hypertension

362
Q

List some clinical signs of a pleural effusion.

A 
Asymmetrically reduced expansion 
Trachea deviated away from effusion 
Stony dull percussion 
Absence tactile vocal fremitus 
Reduced breath sounds 
Bronchial breathing above fluid level
363
Q

List some complications of lung cancer.

A 
Superior vena cava obstruction 
Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy 
Horner's syndrome 
Wasting of small muscles of hand 
Endocrine (gynaecomastia)
Neurological (Lambert-Eaton)
Dermatomyositis
364
Q

List some differentials for systolic murmurs.

A 
Aortic stenosis 
Aortic sclerosis
Mitral regurgitation 
HOCM 
VSD 
Aortic flow murmur
365
Q

List some clinical signs of aortic stenosis.

A

Slow rising pulse
Narrow pulse pressure
Ejection systolic murmur
Thrill over aortic area

366
Q

What is the EuroSCORE?

A

A risk model that calculates the risk of death after a cardiac operation

367
Q

List some clinical signs of tricuspid regurgitation.

A

Raised JVP (giant V waves)
Pansystolic murmur loudest in tricuspid area
Thrill at left sternal edge
Pulsatile liver, ascites and peripheral oedema
Endocarditis signs (IVDU)
Pulmonary hypertension (loud P2)

368
Q

List some indications for having an ICD.

A

Familial conditions with high risk of sudden cardiac death (long QT, ARVD, brugada, HCM)
Cardiac arrest due to VT/VF
Haemodynamically compromising VT
VT with LVEF < 35%

369
Q

List some clinical signs of constrictive pericarditis.

A

Raised JVP
Right heart failure
Kussmaul sign (paradoxical increase in JVP on inspiration)
Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mm Hg drop in SBP on inspiration)
Hepatomegaly, ascites and peripheral oedema

370
Q

List some causes of constrictive pericarditis.

A

TB
Trauma (or surgery)
Radiotherapy
Connective tissue disease (rheumatoid, SLE)

371
Q

What murmur is caused by ASD?

A

Ejection systolic murmur with fixed split-second heart sounds

372
Q

What murmur is caused by VSD?

A

Systolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge (no radiation)

373
Q

List some clinical signs of myotonic dystrophy.

A 
Myopathic facies (long, thin, expressionless)
Wasting of facial muscles and SCM 
Bilateral ptosis 
Frontal balding 
Dysarthria (myotonia of tongue and pharynx)
Test grip (wont be able to let go) 
Cataracts 
Cardiomyopathy 
Testicular atrophy
374
Q

What are dominant and non-dominant parietal lobe signs?

A

Dominant: dysphasia (receptive, expressive, global)

Non-Dominant: dressing/constructional apraxia, spatial neglect

375
Q

List some causes of mononeuritis multiplex.

A 
Diabetes mellitus 
Connective tissue disease (SLE, rheumatoid)
Vasculitis (e.g. PAN)
Infection (e.g. HIV)
Malignancy

Mononeuritis multiplex: painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas

376
Q

Outline the management of Bell’s palsy.

A 
Prednisolone if within 72 hours of onset of symptoms 
Eye protection (artificial tears, tape eyes closed at night)
377
Q

Outline the treatment of myasthenia gravis.

A

Acute: IVIG and plasmapheresis
Chronic: acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (e.g. pyridostigmine), steroids, thymectomy

378
Q

List some signs of tuberous sclerosis.

A

Angiofibromata on the face
Periungual fibromas
Shagreen patch (roughened, leathery skin in lumbar region)
Ash leaf hypopigmentation

Other: cystic lung disease, renal enlargement due to angiomyolipoma/PKD (and features of renal replacement), seizures, developmental delay, signs of antiepileptic treatment

379
Q

List some medical and surgical causes of 3rd nerve palsy.

A

Medical: mononeuritis multiplex (DM), midbrain infarction, MS, migraine
Surgical: posterior communicating arter aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, uncal herniation

380
Q

List some causes of tunnel vision.

A 
Papilloedema 
Glaucoma 
Choroidoretinitis 
Migraine 
Retinitis pigmentosa
381
Q

Describe the appearance of retinal artery occlusion on fundoscopy.

A

Pale, milky fundus with thread-like arterioles

Cherry red macula

382
Q

Describe the appearance of retinal vein occlusion on fundoscopy.

A

Flame haemorrhages (radiating out from swollen disc)
Engorged tortuous veins
Cotton wool spots
Look for diabetic or hypertensive changes

NOTE: causes include hypertension, diabetes, hyperviscocity and high IOP

383
Q

List some differentials for Parkinson’s disease.

A 
Parkinson's plus (PSP, CBD, MSA, LBD)
Basal ganglia infarct
Encephalitis 
Traumatic encephalopathy 
Metabolic (Wilson's)
Drugs (antipsychotics, metoclopramide)
384
Q

List some causes of unilatearl spastic paraparesis.

A

Hemisphere: stroke, MS, SOL, cerebral palsy
Hemicord: MS, compression

385
Q

What are the main clinical features of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and what is it caused by?

A

Pain on radial side of wrist
Tender radial styloid process
Abduction of thumb against resistance is painful
Finkelstein test - examiner pulls thumb in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction. It causes pain over radial styloid process

Tendons involved: extensor pollicis brevis + abductor pollicis longus

386
Q

What is a major indication for NIV in a patient with an infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Respiratory acidosis despite maximum medical treatment (PaCO2 > 6 kPa and pH < 7.35)

387
Q

List some indications for non-invasive ventilation.

A 
COPD with respiratory acidosis 
Type 2 respiratory failure (e.g. due to neuromuscular disease)
Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema 
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Weaning from endotracheal intubation
388
Q

List some causes of spider naevi.

A

Chronic liver disease
Pregnancy
COCP

389
Q

List some indications for CABG.

A

Left main stem disease
Triple vessel disease
Refractory angina
Unsuccessful angioplasty

NOTE: complications include MI, cardiac tamponade, haemothorax, post-op AF, graft stenosis

390
Q

List some causes of high-output cardiac failure.

A

Thyrotoxicosis
Anaemia
Paget’s disease
Pregnancy

391
Q

List some secondary causes of hypertension.

A

Renal artery stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta
Polycystic kidney disese
Conn’s, Cushing’s, Phaeochromocytoma, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis

392
Q

What are the indications for surgical valve replacement in aortic stenosis?

A

Symptomatic AS
Severe asymptomatic AS with reduced EF
Severe AS undergoing other operation (e.g. CABG)

393
Q

List some causes of an S4 heart sound.

A

Thickened ventricular wall due to hypertension or aortic stenosis
Coronary artery disease
Cardiomyopathy

394
Q

List some conditions that display Koebner phenomenon.

A

Psoriasis
Vitiligo
Lichen planus

395
Q

Describe some symptoms and signs of subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

A 
Weakness (e.g. legs, arms, trunk)
Tingling and numbness
Bilateral spastic paresis 
Impaired find touch and vibration 
Upgoing plantars
396
Q

Describe the classical features of lumbar spinal stenosis.

A

Back pain extending to buttocks and backs of thighs
Pain is worse when standing or walking
Pain relieved by sitting down and leaning forward
Lower limb weakness

397
Q

Which investigations would you request in a patient with suspected thyroid disease?

A

TFTs (TSH, T3/4, antibodies)
Thyroid uptake scan (technetium 99m pertechnetate)
FBC, Calcium, ESR

398
Q

List some differentials for thyroid enlargement.

A

Graves
Thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s, De Quervain’s, Riedel)
Multinodular goitre
Follicular adenoma
Thyroid cancer (papillary, follicular, medullar, anaplastic)
Iodine deficiency

399
Q

What are the two different types of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

HSMN1 - more common, demyelinating, autosomal dominant (PMP22 gene)
HMSN2 - axonal degeneration, autosomal dominant

NOTE: CMT can also be recessive

400
Q

Outline the investigations that may be used in patients with suspected Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.

A 
Nerve conduction studies (demyelination will cause reduced velocity, axonal degeneration will cause reduced amplitude) 
Genetic testing (PMP22 gene)
401
Q

Outline the management options for patients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.

A

MDT: GP, neurologist, specialist nurses, physiotherapist, OT, orthotics
Foot care and careful shoe choice
Orthotics

402
Q

Describe the pathway of the direct and consensual light reflex.

A

Retina –> Optic Nerve –> Pre-Tectal Nucleus –> Edinger-Westphal Nucleus (both) –> Oculomotor Nerve –> Ciliary Ganglion –> Pupillary Sphincter

403
Q

Lesions in which parts of the nervous system could cause symmetrical weakness?

A

Cord lesions
Neuromuscular junction pathology (MG, LEMS)
Muscle pathology (e.g. myositis)

404
Q

What are the different patterns of sensory loss and which lesions are they typically associated with?

A

Distal sensory loss - peripheral neuropathy (e.g. DM, B12, alcohol)
Sensory level - cord lesion (e.g. cord compression)
Dissociated sensory loss (e.g. loss of pain/temp with conservation of light touch) - cervical cord lesions (e.g. syringomyelia

405
Q

Describe the main features of an anterior cerebral artery stroke.

A

Contralateral motor/sensory loss in LEGS > arms

Face is spared

406
Q

Describe the main features of a middle cerebral artery stroke.

A

Contralateral motor/sensory loss in FACE/ARMS > legs
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Cognitive changes (dominant = aphasia; non-dominant = neglect/apraxia)

407
Q

Describe the main features of a posterior cerebral artery stroke.

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macula sparing

408
Q

What are the different anatomical levels at which pathology can cause muscle weakness?

A

Cerebrum/Brainstem - stroke, SOL, MS
Cord - MS, injury
Anterior Horn - MND, Polio
Nerve Roots/Plexus - cauda equina, cord compression
Motor Nerve - compression, mononeuritis multiplex, CMT
NMJ - Myasthenia, LEMS
Muscle - myositis, muscular dystrophy

409
Q

List some causes of bilateral foot drop.

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Guillain Barre syndrome
Cauda equina

410
Q

List some causes of unilateral lower limb spasticity.

A

Stroke
MS
SOL

NOTE: it will cause a circumducting gait

411
Q

List some causes of bilateral lower limb spasticity.

A 
Spinal Cord (compression, trauma, transverse myelitis) 
Cerebral palsy (bihemispheric)
MS (bihemispheric)
412
Q

List some causes of mixed UMN and LMN symptoms.

A

Motor neurone disease
Friedreich ataxia
SACD
Taboparesis (syphylis)

413
Q

List some causes of sensory ataxia.

A

Vestibular - Meniere’s disease, viral labyrinthitis

Proprioceptive Loss - B12 deficiency, DM, alcohol

414
Q

List some causes of a postural tremor.

A 
Benign essential tremor 
Endocrine (thyrotoxicosis, hypoglycaemia)
Alcohol withdrawal
Beta-agonists 
Anxiety (physiological)
415
Q

What is idiopathic focal dystonia?

A

Most common form of dystonia
Confined to one body part
E.g. spasmodic torticollis, blepharospasm, Writer’s cramp

416
Q

List some causes of chorea.

A

Huntington’s chorea
Sydenham’s chorea (rheumatic fever)
Wilson’s disease
L-DOPA

417
Q

Define dementia.

A

Chronically impaired cognition that affects multiple domains (memory, attention, language) without impairment of consciousness

418
Q

List some causes of delirium.

A

Infection (UTI, sepsis)
Dehydration
Constipation
Drugs (e.g. opioids)
Metabolic (e.g. hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia)
Intracranial pathology (e.g. subdural haemorrhage)

419
Q

List some complications of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

A

Rebleeding
Cerebral ischaemia (vasospasm)
Hydrocephalus
Hyponatraemia

420
Q

Which members of the MDT would be involved in the management of patients who have had a stroke?

A 
Neurologist 
Physiotherapist 
SALT 
Dietician 
OT 
Specialist nurse
421
Q

Which investigations should be done to find a potential source of an embolus in a patient with a TIA?

A

ECG
Echocardiogram
Carotid artery doppler

Check Risk Factors: FBC, U&E, ESR, glucose, lipids

422
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess the risk of future stroke in a patient who has had a TIA?

A

ABCD2
4 or more = TIA clinic within 24 hours
< 4 = TIA clinic within 1 week

423
Q

What are the typical features of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis?

A 
Headache 
Vomiting 
Seizures 
Reduced visual acuity 
Papilloedema 
Proptosis (cavernous sinus thrombosis)

NOTE: DDx - SAH, meningitis, managed with LMWH/warfarin, fibrinolytics

424
Q

List some risk factors for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis.

A 
Pregnancy 
OCP 
Head injury 
Dehydration 
Malignancy 
Thrombophilia
425
Q

List some contraindications for lumbar puncture.

A

Raised ICP
Thrombocytopaenia
Coagulopathy
Infection at LP site

426
Q

List some causes of provoked seizures.

A

Withdrawal (alcohol, opiates)
Metabolic (hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia)
Raised ICP (trauma, haemorrhage, SOL)
Infection (encephalitis)

427
Q

Which investigations should be requested in a patient who has had a seizure?

A 
FBC, U&E, Glucose 
AED levels 
Urine toxicology 
ECG 
EEG 
MRI (if adult and risk of SOL)
428
Q

What are the types of cerebral oedema?

A

Vasogenic (increased capillary permeability) - trauma, tumour, ischaemia, infection
Cytotoxic - e.g. hypoxia
Interstitial - e.g. obstructive hydrocephalus, hyponatraemia

429
Q

Which sensory and motor signs might you see in a patient with multiple sclerosis?

A

MOTOR: spastic weakness, transverse myelitis (weakness + numbness)
SENSORY: paraesthesia, reduced vibration sense

NOTE: patients may also have cerebellar signs (e.g. ataxia, dysarthria)

430
Q

What are some differentials for multiple sclerosis?

A

CNS sarcoidosis

SLE

431
Q

Which signs might you see in a patient with spinal cord compression?

A

Back pain
Progressive UMN weakness and sensory loss below the lesion (e.g. bilateral spasticity in lower limbs)
Radicular pain in dermatomal distribution

NOTE: tone and reflexes are initially REDUCED in acute cord compression

432
Q

Describe the clinical features of conus medullaris lesions.

A

Early constipation/retention
Mixed UMN/LMN weakness
Back pain
Sacral sensory disturbance

433
Q 
Which muscles are weak in the following nerve lesions?
C5fac
C6
C7
C8
A

C5 - deltoid, supraspinatus
C6 - biceps, brachioradialis (reduced biceps jerk)
C7 - triceps, finger extension (reduced triceps jerk)
C8 - finger flexors, intrinsic hand muscles

434
Q

How does L5 radiculopathy manifest?

A

Weak hallux extension
Foot drop
Reduced sensation on inner dorsum of foot

NOTE: MRI lumbar spine would be useful to check for compression

435
Q

How does S1 radiculopathy manifest?

A

Weak plantarflexion and eversion
Loss of ankle jerk
Reduced sensation over sole of foot and back of calf

NOTE: MRI lumbar spine would be useful to check for compression

436
Q

What are some complications of Bell’s palsy?

A 
Synkinesis (e.g. blinking causes upturning of mouth)
Crocodile tears (eating stimulates unilateral lacrimation)
437
Q

What are the features of radial nerve palsy?

A 
Finger drop (low)
Wrist drop (high) 
Triceps paralysis (very high) 
Loss of sensation of first dorsal web space
438
Q

What are the features of sciatic nerve palsy?

A

Weakness of knee flexion
Weakness of all muscles below the knee
Loss of sensation below knee laterally and foot

439
Q

What are the features of common peroneal nerve palsy?

A

Foot drop
Week dorsiflexion and eversion
Loss of sensation below knee laterally

440
Q

What are the features of tibial nerve injury?

A

Weak plantarflexion (can’t stand on toes)
Weak toe flexion
Loss of sensation to sole of foot

441
Q

List some causes of peripheral motor neuropathy.

A

Guillain Barre syndrome
Botulism
Charcot-Marie-Tooth
Lead poisoning

442
Q

List some causes of autonomic neuropathy.

A

Diabetes mellitus
HIV
SLE
Guillain-barre syndrome

443
Q

Outline the management of motor neurone disease.

A

MDT: neurologist, physio, OT, dietician, specialist nurse, GP
Medical: riluzole (antiglutamatergic)
Symptomatic: NG/PEG feeding, NIV for respiratory failure, analgesia, baclofen for spasticity

NOTE: most die of respiratory failure or infection

444
Q

List some causes of bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy.

A

Bulbar: MND, GBS, myasthenia, central pontine myelinolysis
Pseudobulbar: MS, stroke, MND

445
Q

Describe the typical clinical features of polio.

A

Asymmetrical LMN paralysis

No sensory involvement

446
Q

What are the clinical features of fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?

A

Weakness of face, shoulders and upper arms (often asymmetrical)
Winging of the scapula
Foot drop

447
Q

List some causes of cafe au lait spots.

A

NF1
McCune Albright syndrome
Noonan syndrome

448
Q

Outline the management of NF1.

A

MDT approach
Epilepsy management
Excise some neurofibromas (cosmetic/sarcomatous)
Genetic counselling

NOTE: it is autosomal dominant

449
Q

Outline the management of benign essential tremor.

A 
Avoidance of exacerbating factors (coffee, stress)
Beta-blockers (e.g. propanolol)
Anti-epileptics (e.g. topiramate) 
Benzodiazepines (e.g. clonazepam) 
Botulinum injections 
MRI-guided high intensity ultrasound
450
Q

List some causes of a fixed dilated pupil.

A

3rd nerve palsy
Mydriatics (e.g. tropicamide)
Iris trauma
Acute glaucoma

451
Q

List some causes of optic atrophy.

A

MS
Glaucoma
Congenital (LHON, CMT, Friedreich ataxia)
Toxins (ethambutol, B12 deficiency)

452
Q

How can acute glaucoma be distinguished from anterior uveitis?

A

Cloudy cornea
Large pupil
Increased IOP

NOTE: both are painful

453
Q

How can episcleritis and scleritis be distinguished?

A

Scleritis: vasculitis of the sclera, PAINFUL, worse on eye movement
Episcleritis: painless, acuity preserved, redness can be moved over sclera

454
Q

Which imaging tool is used to give a 3D representation of the retina?

A

Optical coherence tomography

455
Q

Outline the management options for wet ARMD.

A

Photodynamic therapy
Intravitreal VEGF injections (bevacizumab)
Anti-oxidants and zinc may help early ARMD

456
Q

List some classes of medications that are used to reduced IOP in open angle glaucoma.

A

Beta-blockers (reduce production) - timolol
Prostaglandin analogue (increase uveoscleral outflow) - latanoprost
Alpha-agonists (reduce product and increase outflow) - brimonidine
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors - acetazolamide
Miotics - pilocarpine

457
Q

List some causes of cataracts.

A

Age
DM
Steroids
Congenital (Rubella, Wilson’s, myotonic dystrophy)

458
Q

What is the normal duration of the following parts of an ECG?
PR interval
QRS complex
QTc

A

PR interval: 120-200 ms (3-5 small squares)
QRS complex: < 120 ms (3 small squares)
QTc: 380-420 ms (~2 big squares)

NOTE: normal ECG calibration is 25 mm/s

459
Q

What is the difference between bifascicular and trifascicular block?

A

Bifascicular: RBBB + left anterior or posterior fascicular block
Trifascicular: RBBB + left anterior or posterior fascicular block + prolonged PR (1st degree)

460
Q

What are escape rhythms?

A

Appear after an anticipated beat
Atrial Escape: SAN fails to depolarise leading to failed sinus beat, followed by atrial escape (narrow complex)
Ventricular Escape: atrial wave fails to conduct due to AV block, followed by ventricular escape (broad complex - weird and wide)

461
Q

List some differentials for broad complex tachycardia.

A

VT
VF
Torsades de pointes
SVT with BBB

462
Q

List some causes of VT.

A 
Infarction
Myocarditis 
Long QT syndrome 
Cardiomyopathy 
Iatrogenic (antiarrhythmics)
463
Q

List some contraindications for thrombolysis.

A

GI bleeding
Recent haemorrhagic stroke
Severe hypertension
Trauma

464
Q

List some differentials for chest pain.

A 
ACS 
Angina
Aortic dissection 
Aortic aneurysm 
GORD 
Oesophageal spasm 
Musculoskeletal
465
Q

List some causes of heart failure.

A

SYSTOLIC: ischaemia, DCM, hypertension, myocarditis
DIASTOLIC: pericardial effusion, restrictive cardiomyopathy
ARRHYTHMIA: brady/tachy
Valve disease
HIGH OUTPUT: anaemia, thyrotoxicosis, pregnancy, Paget’s disease

466
Q

List the main CXR features of heart failure.

A 
Alveolar shaddowing 
Kerley B lines 
Cardiomegaly 
Upper lobe diversion 
Effusions
467
Q

What are the main indications for pharmacological management of hypertension?

A

< 80 yrs, stage 1 hypertension (140/90-160/100) and one of:
- target organ damage (retinopathy, LVH)
- 10 yr CVD > 10% (QRISK)
- established CVD
- diabetes mellitus
- renal disease
Anyone with stage 2 hypertension and above

NOTE: statin should also be offered if QRISK > 10%

468
Q

List some echocardiography features of severe mitral stenosis.

A

Valve orifice < 1 cm^2
Pressure gradient > 10 mm Hg
Pulmonary artery systolic pressure > 50 mm Hg

469
Q

Which investigations should be requested insuspected infective endocarditis?

A

Bloods: ESR, blood cultures (3 x 12 hours apart), serology for unusual organisms
Urine: microscopic haematuria
ECG: AV block
Echo: vegetations

470
Q

Which investigations should you request in a patient with suspected rheumatic fever?

A

Bloods: ASO titre, streptococcal antigen, FBC, ESR
Throat swab (if strep throat)
ECG
Echocardiogram (MR/AR)

471
Q

List some causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy.

A

Amyloidosis
Haemochromatosis
Sarcoidosis
Primary endomyocardial fibrosis

472
Q

List some causes of dilated cardiomyopathy.

A 
Muscular dystrophy 
Myocarditis 
Alcoholism
SLE 
Drugs (doxorubicin)
Thyrotoxicosis
473
Q

List some complications of congenital heart disease.

A

Infective endocarditis
Pulmonary hypertension
Paradoxical emboli
Eisenmenger syndrome

474
Q

List some features of Marfan syndrome.

A 
Cardiac: aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse 
Lens dislocation 
High-arched palate 
Arm span > height 
Pectus excavatum 
Scoliosis 
Hypermobility
475
Q

List some features of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.

A

Hyperelastic skin
Hypermobility (Beighton)
Cardiac (mitral prolapse, MR, AR, aneurysms)
Easy bruising (fragile blood vessels)

NOTE: cutis laxa is loose skin and hypermobile joints

476
Q

List some complications of pneumonia.

A 
Respiratory failure 
Sepsis 
AF 
Pleural effusion 
Empyema
477
Q

List the different diseases that can be caused by aspergillosis.

A 
Asthma 
ABPA
Aspergilloma
Invasive aspergillosis 
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
478
Q

List some causes of ARDS.

A

Pulmonary: pneumonia, aspiration, inhalational, contusion
Systemic: sepsis, pancreatitis, DIC, acute liver failure

479
Q

List some causes of pulmonary oedema.

A 
Heart failure 
Renal failure 
Liver failure 
Iatrogenic fluid overload 
Nephrotic syndrome 
Lymphatic obstruction 
ARDS (exudative)
480
Q

What concentration of oxygen should be used in acutely unwell COPD patients?

A

80-90% 15 L/min through non-rebreathe mask initially and perform ABG
If PCO2 < 6 kPa: aim for target SaO2 94-98%
If PCO2 > 6 kPa: maintain target SaO2 88-92%

481
Q

Outline the management of primary and secondary pneumothorax.

A

PRIMARY

  • < 2 cm rim and not SOB - consider discharge
  • otherwise: aspiration –> chest drain

SECONDARY

  • > 2 cm rim OR SOB OR > 55 years –> chest drain
  • otherwise: aspiration –> chest drain
  • ALL patents should be admitted for at least 24 hours
482
Q

List some features of sarcoidosis.

A 
Constitutional upset 
Respiratory (fibrosis, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy) 
Arthralgia
Peripheral/cranial neuropathy (e.g. Bell's palsy) 
Uveitis/keratoconjunctivitis 
Restrictive cardiomyopathy 
Hepatosplenomegaly
Lupus pernio 
Erythema nodosum
483
Q

What pulmonary artery pressure counts as pulmonary hypertension?

A

> 25 mm Hg

NOTE: normal is 8-20 mm Hg

484
Q

Outline the management of pulmonary hypertension.

A 
Treat underlying condition
LTOT
CCB
Sildenafil 
Prostacyclin analogues 
Heart failure treatment 
Heart-lung transplant
485
Q

List some secondary causes of diabetes mellitus.

A

Drugs (steroids, tacrolimus, ciclosporin)
Pancreatic (chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, hereditary haemochromatosis)
Endocrinology (phaeo, Cushing’s, phaeo)

486
Q

What is usually checked at a routine diabetes check up?

A

Control (glycaemic) - HbA1c, BP, lipids, capillary blood glucose
Complications - BP, cardiac auscultation, fundoscopy, ACR, sensory testing
Competency - with treatment regime
Coping - psychosocial

487
Q

What are the two main types of insulin regime in diabetes?

A

Biphasic - 30 mins before breakfast and dinner, good for patients with regular lifestyle (e.g. children, elderly)
Basal-Bolus - bedtime long-acting insulin + short-acting insulin before meals, good for patients with flexible lifestyle

NOTE: once-daily long-acting before bed is initially used in patients switching from tablets in T2DM

488
Q

List some side-effects of insulin therapy.

A

Hypoglycamia (careful with alcohol and beta-blockers)
Lipohypertrophy
Weight gain

489
Q

What should patients with diabetes be informed about regarding diabetes management when they are ill?

A

Insulin requirements usually increase
Check BMs more frequently than every 4 hours (and check urine for ketonuria)
Increase insulin dose if glucose is rising
Maintain calories as much as possible

490
Q

Which investigation is used to check for proliferative diabetic nephropathy and wet ARMD?

A

Fluorescein angiography

491
Q

List some complications of DKA.

A

Cerebral oedema (excess fluid administration)
Aspiration
Hypokalaemia
Hypophosphataemia (resp and skeletal muscle weakness)
VTE

492
Q

List some causes of hypoglycaemia.

A 
Inappropriate insulin 
Drugs (sulphonylureas) 
Pituitary insufficiency 
Addison's disease 
Liver failure 
Insulinoma
493
Q

List some causes of hypothyroidism.

A 
Atrophic hypothyroidism 
Hashimoto's hypothyroidism 
Iodine deficiency 
De Quervain's thyroiditis
Drugs (thionamides, lithium)
Thyroidectomy
494
Q

What are the main features of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)?

A

MEN1: pituitary adenoma (prolactin, GH) + parathyroid adenoma/hyperplasia + pancreatic islet cell (gastrinoma, insulinoma)
MEN2: medullary thyroid cancer + phaeochromocytoma + parathyroid hyperplasia (2B - marfanoid body habitus)

495
Q

Which diseases fall under the autoimmune polyendocrine syndromes?

A 
Type 1 (recessive): Addison's, candidiasis, hypoparathyroidism 
Type 2 (polygenic): Addison's, thyroid disease, T1DM
496
Q

List some clinical features of acromegaly.

A 
Prominent supraorbital ridges 
Coarse facial features 
Prognathism 
Macroglossia
Wide-spaced teeth 
Thenar wasting (and CTS symptoms) 
Sweaty spade-like hands
497
Q

What are the initial steps in the management of a patient with suspected coeliac disease and a high TTG?

A

Refer for gastroscopy and duodenal biopsies
Referral for bone density scan
Screening of first-degree relatives
Referral to dieticians for gluten-free diet advice

498
Q

Which extra-GI manifestations of UC are related to the activity of colitis?

A 
Erythema nodosum
Aphthous ulcers
Episcleritis
Acute arthropathy
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Anterior uveitis
499
Q

List some medical treaments used for multiple sclerosis.

A

Steroids (IV methylprednisolone for optic neuritis)
1st line: Beta-interferon, glatiramer acetate
2nd line: natalizumab
Symptomatic: baclofen (spasticity)

500
Q

List some causes of bloody diarrhoea.

A

Vascular: ischaemic colitis
Infective: shigella, salmonella, E. coli, C. difficile
Inflammatory bowel disease
Neoplastic: colorectal cancer, polyps

501
Q

List the different types of laxative with examples.

A 
Bulking: fybogel, methylcellulose
Osmotic: movicol, lactulose 
Stimulant: senna, bisacodyl, docusate sodium, sodium picosulphate, co-danthramer
Softeners: liquid paraffin
Enemas: phosphate (osmotic) 
Suppositories: glycerol (stimulant)
502
Q

Outline the management options for achalasia.

A

Medical: CCBs, nitrates
Interventional: endoscopic balloon dilatation, botulinum toxin injection
Surgical: Heller cardiomyotomy

503
Q

Outline the management of new-onset dyspepsia.

A

OGD if > 55 years and red flags (anorexia, weight loss, anaemia, recent onset, melaena, dysphagia)
Conservative measures for 4 weeks
- stop drugs (NSAIDs, CCB)
- lose weight, stop smoking, reduce alcohol
- OTC antacids and alginates
Test H. pylori if no improvement (breath or serology)
- positive –> eradication
- negative –> PPI for 4 weeks, consider OGD if no improvement

504
Q

Describe the eradication therapy used to treat H. pylori.

A

Lansoprazole 30 mg BD + amoxicillin 1 g BD + clarithromycin 500 mg BD

Lansoprazole 30 mg BD + amoxicillin 1 g BD + metronidazole 400 mg BD

505
Q

Outline the management of peptic ulcer disease.

A

CONSERVATIVE: lose weight, stop smoking, reduce alcohol, stop NSAIDs/steroids
MEDICAL: OTC antacids, H. pylori eradication, PPI/H2RA
SURGERY: vagotomy, antrectomy, subtotal gastrectomy

NOTE: antrum contains most gastrin-producing cells (types of operation: BIlroth 1 and 2)

506
Q

List some causes of cirrhosis.

A 
Alcoholic liver disease 
Viral hepatitis 
NASH
Genetic: Wilson's, HH, a1AT 
Autoimmune: PSC, PBC, AIH 
Drugs: methotrexate, amiodarone, nitrofurantoin 
Neoplasia: HCC, metastases 
Vascular: Budd-Chiari, right heart failure, constrictive pericarditis
507
Q

Outline the management of cirrhosis.

A

Alcohol abstinence
Cholestyramine for pruritus
Screening (HCC and varices)
Treat cause (interferon for HCV, ursodeoxycholic acid for PBC or penicillamine for Wilson’s disease)

508
Q

List some causes of portal hypertension.

A

Pre-hepatic: portal vein thrombosis
Hepatic: CIRRHOSIS, schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis
Post-hepatic: Budd-Chiari, RHF, constrictive pericarditis

509
Q

List some precipitants for decompensation of chronic liver failure.

A 
Haemorrhage (e.g. varices) 
Electrolyte abnormality (e.g. hypokalaemia)
Alcohol
HCC 
Infection (SBP, pneumonia, UTI)
Constipation (MOST COMMON cause)
Hypoglycaemia 
Drugs (e.g. sedatives, anaesthetics)
510
Q

Which infections should patients be screened for before starting dialysis?

A

Hep B
Hep C
HIV

511
Q

What is a key distinction between bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris?

A 
Pemphigus = oral involvement 
Pemphigoid = NO oral involvement
512
Q 
Define the following terms used to describe skin lesions.
Macule 
Nodule 
Papule 
Plaque
Vesicle
A

Macule - change in skin colour without change in elevation (called a patch if > 1 cm)
Nodule - raised lesion with a rounded surface > 1 cm
Papule - solid raised lesion < 1 cm in diameter
Plaque - elevated plateau of skin > 1 cm
Vesicle - fluid-filled lesion < 1 cm

513
Q

Describe the criteria by which left ventricular hypertrophy by voltage criteria?

A

Sokolow-Lyon Criteria: Add the S wave in V1 plus the R wave in V5 or V6. If the sum is > 35 mm, then LVH is present

514
Q

List some complciations of peptic ulcer disease.

A

Bleeding (haematemesis/melaenia)
Iron deficiency anaemia
Perforation and peritonitis
Malignancy

515
Q

Which red flag symptoms would warrant an OGD in patients with suspected peptic ulcer disease?

A

Anaemia
Weight loss
Dysphagia

NOTE: if no red flags and < 55 years, investigate with H. pylori breath test, stool antigen test and bloods (FBC)

516
Q

List some surgical management options for urinary tract calculi.

A

Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (small stone < 20 mm)
JJ stent (hydronephrosis)
Ureteroscopy and laster/fragmentation (proximal stone)
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy/ureterolithotom (large stone > 20 mm)

517
Q

Which medications are used to treat hepatitis C?

A

Pegylated interferon
Ribavirin
Boceprevir (protease inhibitor)
Sofosbuvir (NS5B inhibitor)

NOTE: all patients should be investigated to identify their HCV genotype

518
Q

What treatment options are used for diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy and proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

With maculopathy - intravitreal anti-VEGF injections
Proliferative - panretinal photocoagulation

NOTE: you can’t use photocoagulation on the macula because it will impair vision

519
Q

How is post-operative atelectasis treated?

A

Salbutamol nebulisers
Chest physiotherapy

NOTE: incentive spirometers are used to prevent atelectasis

520
Q

Outline the treatment options for plaque psoriasis.

A

Avoid precipitants (alcohol, smoking, stress)
Emollients
Steroids - FIRST LINE
Vitamin D analogues (calcipotrol) - FIRST LINE
Coal tar
Dithranol
Phototherapy (PUVA)
Systemic (ciclosporin, methotrexate, retinoids and biologics (infliximab, etanercep))

NOTE: for PUVA, psoralens are either applied or given orally and then a UV lamp is shone over the affected skin

521
Q

Outline the steps in the pharmacological management of COPD.

A

STEP 1: SABA

STEP 2 (steroid responsive): LABA + ICS
STEP 3 (steroid responsive): LABA + ICS + LAMA
STEP 2 (steroid non-responsive): LABA + LAMA 
Use combo inhalers where possible

NOTE: conservative management includes stopping smoking, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcus vaccine, pulmonary rehab

522
Q

Which causes of interstitial lung disease may respond to steroid treatment?

A

Sarcoidosis
Connective tissue diseases (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis)
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

523
Q

List some advantages and disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis.

A

PROS: simple to perform, can be done at home, less haemodynamic instability (good if cardiovascular disease)
CONS: body image, peritonitis, weight gain, exit site infection

524
Q

List some pros and cons of Tesio lines.

A

PROS: well concealed (unliked fistula), can be used straight away
CONS: increased infections risk, lower flow rates, adverse events on insertion (pneumothorax, line infection, retraction)

525
Q

Outline the aspects of managing chronic kidney disease.

A

General: correct reversible causes, stop nephrotoxic drugs, phosphate restriction
Hypertension: ACE inhibitor
Oedema: frusemide
Bone disease: phosphate binders, calcichew, vitamin D analogues
Anaemia: EPO

526
Q

Outline the criteria for diagnosing DKA.

A

Glucose > 11
Ketones > 3
pH < 7.3
Bicarbonate < 15

527
Q

Which infection is associated with tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma?

A

HPV

528
Q

How should a patient on oral morphine with inadequate pain control have their dose changed?

A

Divide total daily dose by 2 (give you BD dose of oral morphine)
1/6 of the BD dose is the breakthrough dose

E.g. inadequate control with 30 mg BD + 10 mg PRN (used 3 times) = 90 mg per day –> 45 mg BD + 15 mg PRN

529
Q

Which investigation can be used to explore the extent of skin involvement in vitiligo

A

Woods lamp inspection

Areas of hyper and hypopigmentation will fluoresce (e.g. vitiligo, pityriasis versicolor, tinea capitis)

530
Q

Which medication is usually used first-line for patients with SLE primarily affecting the skin and joints?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

531
Q

How does urine sodium help you assess fluid status?

A

< 20 mmol/L = hypovolemia

> 40 mmol/L = SIADH

532
Q

Define cranial nerve.

A

Nerves that emerge directly from the brain (not the spinal cord)

533
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies a contralateral innervation as opposed to an ipsilateral innervation?

A

Trochlear - it crosses the midline before innervating the contralateral superior oblique

NOTE: all cranial nerves are considered peripheral nerves

534
Q

List some the components of a falls screen.

A 
Bloods (FBC, U&E, CRP)
Glucose 
ECG 
Urinalysis 
Lying-standing BP
535
Q

Describe the mechanisms responsible for the following types of transfusion reaction:
Febrile non-haemolytic
Haemolytic
Allergic
Transfusion-related acute lung injury
Transfusion-associated circulation overload

A

Febrile non-haemolytic: host antibodies against donor leucocyte antigens/pre-formed cytokines within donor plasma
Haemolytic: host antibodies against donor RBC antigens
Allergic: allergic reaction to plasma proteins
Transfusion-related acute lung injury: activation of donated leucocytes in the lungs
Transfusion-associated circulation overload: rapid volume expansion

536
Q

Which nerves innervate the lower limbs?

A

Femoral (L2-4)
Obturator (L2-4)
Sciatic (L3-S3)

537
Q

Under which conditions in DKA do you avoid giving K+ supplementation with the fluids?

A

Anuria

K+ > 5.5 mmol/L

538
Q

List some risk factors for falls in the elderly.

A 
Muscle weakness 
Gait abnormalities 
Visual impairment 
Postural hypotension 
Arthritis 
Cognitive impairment 
Drugs (e.g. antihypertensives, sedative, anti-arrhythmics)
539
Q

What are the main features of Yellow Nail Syndrome?

A

Yellow nails
Lymphoedema
Pleural effusion
Bronchiectasis

540
Q

What are the main features of anterior cord syndrome?

A

Motor paralysis at the level of the lesion
Loss of pain/temp at and below the level of the lesion
Normal fine touch/proprioception (dorsal columns are fine)
Autonomic dysfunction (hypotension)
Areflexia
Flaccid anal sphincter
Urinary retention

NOTE: caused by anterior spinal artery infarction

541
Q

List some differentials for Marfan syndrome.

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Homocystinuria

542
Q

What are the main aspects of managing non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A 
Weight loss (aim for 10% over 6 months)
Good diabetes control 
Good cholesterol control
Hepatitis immunisations 
Alcohol abstinence
543
Q

List some different types of long and short-acting insulin.

A

LONG: glargine (lantus), detemir (levemir), degludec (tresiba)
Short: actrapid, lispro (humolog), aspart (novolog), glulisine

544
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

> 10 mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
Associated with pericarditis and pericardial effusion
Interpreted as a sign of impending circulatory collapse due to tamponade

545
Q

In which circumstance would a DPPIV inhibitor be considered a better second-line agent than a sulphonylurea?

A

Overweight patients - sulphonylureas cause weight gain

546
Q

State the origin of each cranial nerve.

A 
Cerebrum: I and II
Midbrain: IV
Midbrain-Pontine Junction: III
Pons - V 
Pontine-Medulla Junction: VI, VII, VIII
Medulla: IX, X, XI, XII
547
Q

Outline the steps in the management of asthma.

A 
STEP 1: SABA
STEP 2: SABA + ICS
STEP 3: SABA + ICS + LTRA 
STEP 4: SABA + ICS + LABA 
STEP 5: Switch ICS/LABA to MART (continue SABA +/- LTRA)
STEP 6: Increase to moderate-dose ICS
548
Q

Damage to which part of the brain causes apraxia?

A

Posterior parietal lobe

549
Q

What are the main features of digoxin toxicity?

A 
Nausea
Diarrhoea 
Confusion 
Bradycardia
Hyperkalaemia

WARNING: AKI can lead to digoxin toxicity

550
Q

List some causes of bulbar palsy.

A 
Brainstem stroke 
Brainstem tumours 
Syringomyelia 
MND
Neurosyphylis
Poliomyelitis
GBS

NOTE: investigation include MRI, serology and CSF analysis

551
Q

Which nerves pass through the cavernous sinus?

A 
III
IV
V (1 and 2)
VI
Internal carotid artery
552
Q

List some examples of seronegative spondyloarthitides.

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthritis
Reactive arthritis

PACES (3 decks)

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