Medicine MSRA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Paracetamol overdose?

A

Activated charcoal if ingested < 1 hour ago, N-acetylcysteine (NAC), liver transplantation

Activated charcoal is effective only if administered shortly after ingestion.

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2
Q

What are the main treatments for Salicylate overdose?

A

Urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate, haemodialysis

Urinary alkalinization helps in promoting the excretion of salicylate.

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3
Q

What is the antidote for opioid/opiates overdose?

A

Naloxone

Naloxone is a specific opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose.

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4
Q

What is the management for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

Flumazenil is generally avoided due to the risk of seizures, especially in severe cases.

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5
Q

True or False: Flumazenil is safe to use in all benzodiazepine overdoses.

A

False

It is generally only used in severe or iatrogenic overdoses due to seizure risk.

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6
Q

What is the management for tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

IV bicarbonate, avoid class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, avoid class III drugs, correct acidosis first

Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

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7
Q

In lithium toxicity, what may be used for mild-moderate cases?

A

Volume resuscitation with normal saline

Severe toxicity may require haemodialysis.

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8
Q

What is the treatment for Warfarin overdose?

A

Vitamin K, prothrombin complex

These treatments help reverse the anticoagulation effects of Warfarin.

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9
Q

What is the antidote for Heparin overdose?

A

Protamine sulphate

Protamine sulphate is used to neutralize the effects of heparin.

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10
Q

What should be administered if a patient is bradycardic due to beta-blocker overdose?

A

Atropine

Glucagon may be used in resistant cases.

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11
Q

What is the first-line treatment for ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

Fomepizole

Ethanol has historically been used but is now less favored.

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12
Q

What is the management for methanol poisoning?

A

Fomepizole or ethanol, haemodialysis

Both fomepizole and ethanol inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase to prevent toxic metabolite formation.

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13
Q

What is the primary treatment for organophosphate insecticide poisoning?

A

Atropine

The role of pralidoxime in treatment remains unclear.

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14
Q

What is used to treat digoxin toxicity?

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

These fragments bind to digoxin and help reverse its effects.

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15
Q

What is the treatment for iron overdose?

A

Desferrioxamine, a chelating agent

Desferrioxamine helps remove excess iron from the body.

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16
Q

What are the treatments for lead poisoning?

A

Dimercaprol, calcium edetate

These agents chelate lead to facilitate its excretion.

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17
Q

What is the management for carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

100% oxygen, hyperbaric oxygen

Administering high concentrations of oxygen helps displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin.

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18
Q

What is the treatment for cyanide poisoning?

A

Hydroxocobalamin; combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate

Hydroxocobalamin binds to cyanide, forming a non-toxic compound.

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

What are antipsychotics primarily used for?

A

Management of schizophrenia and other forms of psychosis, mania, and agitation

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21
Q

How are antipsychotics categorized?

A

Typical and atypical antipsychotics

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22
Q

What issue led to the development of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Problematic extrapyramidal side-effects associated with typical antipsychotics

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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action for typical antipsychotics?

A

Dopamine D2 receptor antagonists, blocking dopaminergic transmission in mesolimbic pathways

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24
Q

What receptors do atypical antipsychotics act on?

A

D2, D3, D4, 5-HT

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25
Q

What are common adverse effects of typical antipsychotics?

A

Extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia

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26
Q

What are examples of typical antipsychotics?

A
  • Haloperidol
  • Chlorpromazine
27
Q

What are examples of atypical antipsychotics?

A
  • Clozapine
  • Risperidone
  • Olanzapine
28
Q

What are extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs)?

A

Motor control symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications

29
Q

What are some types of extrapyramidal side-effects?

A
  • Parkinsonism
  • Acute dystonia
  • Akathisia
  • Tardive dyskinesia
30
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

Late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal and involuntary, may be irreversible

31
Q

What specific warnings has the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency issued for antipsychotics in elderly patients?

A
  • Increased risk of stroke
  • Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
32
Q

What are some other side-effects of antipsychotics?

A
  • Dry mouth
  • Blurred vision
  • Urinary retention
  • Constipation
  • Sedation
  • Weight gain
  • Raised prolactin
33
Q

What can raised prolactin levels result in?

A

Galactorrhoea

34
Q

What syndrome is characterized by pyrexia and muscle stiffness?

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

35
Q

What effect do atypical antipsychotics have on seizure threshold?

A

Greater reduction in seizure threshold compared to typical antipsychotics

36
Q

Which antipsychotic is particularly associated with a prolonged QT interval?

A

Haloperidol

37
Q

Fill in the blank: Typical antipsychotics are primarily _______ receptor antagonists.

38
Q

True or False: Atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause extrapyramidal side-effects than typical antipsychotics.

39
Q

What percentage of intracranial tumors do vestibular schwannomas account for?

A

Approximately 5%

Vestibular schwannomas are also known as acoustic neuromas.

40
Q

What percentage of cerebellopontine angle tumors are vestibular schwannomas?

A

90%

This highlights their prevalence in that specific region.

41
Q

What are the classical symptoms of vestibular schwannoma?

A

Vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, absent corneal reflex

Symptoms vary based on the affected cranial nerves.

42
Q

Which cranial nerve is associated with vertigo and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss in vestibular schwannoma?

A

Cranial nerve VIII

This nerve is crucial for balance and hearing.

43
Q

What is the significance of cranial nerve V in vestibular schwannoma?

A

Absent corneal reflex

This indicates involvement of sensory function.

44
Q

What symptom is associated with cranial nerve VII in vestibular schwannoma?

A

Facial palsy

This indicates the impact on motor function.

45
Q

In which condition are bilateral vestibular schwannomas commonly seen?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

This genetic disorder is characterized by the development of tumors.

46
Q

What should be done for patients with a suspected vestibular schwannoma?

A

Refer urgently to ENT

Urgent referral is crucial for proper management.

47
Q

How do vestibular schwannomas typically behave?

A

Slow growing, benign, often observed initially

This means they may not require immediate intervention.

48
Q

What is the investigation of choice for vestibular schwannoma?

A

MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

MRI provides detailed imaging for diagnosis.

49
Q

What role does audiometry play in the evaluation of vestibular schwannoma?

A

Important as only 5% of patients will have a normal audiogram

Audiometry helps assess hearing function.

50
Q

What are the management options for vestibular schwannoma?

A

Surgery, radiotherapy, observation

Management depends on various factors including tumor size and symptoms.

52
Q

What condition has no exclusion from school?

A

Conjunctivitis

Other conditions with no exclusion include Fifth disease, Roseola, Infectious mononucleosis, Head lice, Threadworms, and Hand, foot and mouth.

53
Q

How long after commencing antibiotics can a child with scarlet fever return to school?

A

24 hours

Alternatively, a child may return 21 days from the onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

54
Q

What is the exclusion period for whooping cough?

A

2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms

If no antibiotics are administered.

55
Q

How many days after the onset of rash does measles require exclusion?

A

4 days

This is the period during which a child must be excluded from school.

56
Q

What is the exclusion period for rubella?

A

5 days from onset of rash

57
Q

When can a child with chickenpox return to school?

A

All lesions crusted over

The exclusion period has varied, but lesions must be crusted before returning.

58
Q

How long after swollen glands onset does mumps require exclusion?

59
Q

What is the exclusion requirement for diarrhea & vomiting?

A

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours

60
Q

What are the exclusion conditions for impetigo?

A

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

61
Q

What is the exclusion requirement for scabies?

A

Until treated

62
Q

When can a child with influenza return to school?

A

Until recovered

63
Q

Fill in the blank: Cases of chickenpox are generally infectious from 2 days before the rash appears to _______.

A

5 days after the onset of rash