Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

List the 4 syndromes of visceral pain.

A
  1. Distension
  2. Ischaemia
  3. Mesenteric tension
  4. Increased intraluminal pressure in hollow viscera
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the common causes of chest pain?

A

Usually parietal pleural.

  • pleuritis
  • pleuropneumonia
  • pneumonia
  • lung abscess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the possible causes of headshaking?

A
  1. Trigeminal neuralgia

2. Photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define hyperthermia.

A

Significant increase in body temperature where the core body temperature set point is unaltered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define fever.

A

Significant increase in temperature where temperature set point is elevated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List some causes of hypothermia.

A
  1. Accidental eg. cold damp environment, surgery

2. Pathological eg. sepsis, shock, intracranial disease, hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe possible treatment options for a headshaking horse.

A
  1. Trigeminal neurectomy (?)
  2. Caudal compression of infraorbital nerve
  3. Avoidance of stimuli eg. tinted contact lenses, face masks/hoods/nets
  4. Cyproheptadine +/- carbamazine (together may have short effect and cause drowsiness)
  5. Permanent tracheostomy- avoids stimulating airflow in nasal cavity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What empirical antibiotics should be used to treat neonatal pneumonia?

A

Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the potential sequelae to fractured ribs in the foal?

A

Haemothorax
Pneumothorax
Lacerated lung/pericardium/myocardium/diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the differentials for neonatal respiratory disease.

A
Pneumonia
Fractured ribs
Aspirated meconium
Prepartum EHV-1 infection
Inadequate lung maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outline the pathology and clinical signs of Rhodococcus equi infection in the growing foal.

A
Multifocal pulmonary abscessation +/- abscessation in other organs e.g. GIT.
Clinical signs:
-debility
-ill thrift
-progressive dyspnoea
-immune-mediated polysynovitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How might you treat Rhodococcus equi infection in the foal?

A

A/bs: macrolide (erythromycin) + rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can you prevent Rhodococcus equi infection in a group of growing foals?

A
  1. Improve husbandry e.g. reduce stocking density, prevent dusty areas, rotate paddocks
  2. Administer appropriate prophylactic antibiotics
  3. Administer specific hyperimmune serum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the clinical signs of strangles.

A
Dysphagia
Bilateral purulent nasal discharge
Lymphadenopathy (submandib/submax/pharyngeal)
Extended neck
Dyspnoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define ‘bastard strangles’.

A

Abscessation in other tissues besides usual LNs- including mediastinal + mesenteric LNs, joints. Dramatic weight loss and pyrexia occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the potential sequelae following a strangles infection.

A

Bastard strangles
Purpura haemorrhagica
Guttural pouch emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the aetiological agent of strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi var equi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What disease does EHV-1 cause?

A

Reproductive disease (abortion) and encephalomyelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What disease does EHV-2 cause?

A

Respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes recurrent airway obstruction (RAO)?

A

Airway inflammatory response to organic dust particles (endotoxins, moulds, particulates) inhaled from poorly conserved hay/straw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the clinical signs of recurrent airway obstruction (RAO).

A

Bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge
Coughing (!!!)
Heave line
Audible wheezes/crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) treated?

A
  1. Turn out or house in dust-free enviro e.g. shavings/paper bedding, haylage/chopped dred alfalfa/cubed diet, ventilation
  2. Bronchodilators e.g. atropine
  3. Prednisolone
  4. Maintain hydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease (SPAOD)?

A

Affects pastured horses with NO access to hay/straw in the Spring-Autumn. May be hypersensitivity to inhaled polens or outdoor moulds?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where does bleeding originate from in exercise-induced pulmonary haemorrhage (EIPH)?

A

Dorsocaudal lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
On bronchoscopy of a horse with EIPH, what might you expect to find post-exercise at: i) 30 minutes ii) few days iii) week iv) What would you find on BALF/tracheal aspirates after a few months?
i) Fresh blood in trachea ii) Blood in large bronchi iii) Haemosiderin tinged secretions iv) Macrophages containing haemosiderin
26
List the clinical signs of pulmonary abscesses/pleuropneumonia.
``` Pyrexia Anorexia Ventral oedema Pleural pain Lethargy ```
27
What parasite causes lungworm infestation in horses?
Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
28
List the causes of poor performance in the athletic horse.
1. Musculoskeletal 2. Respiratory 3. Lack of fitness 4. Unrealistic expectations (of horse/rider) 5. Inappropriate training 6. Cardiovascular 7. Other e.g. medical, neuro
29
Describe the features of atrial fibrillation i) on auscultation and ii) on ECG.
i) irregular rhythm with LOUD 3rd heart sound and NO 4th heart sound, may be tachycardic if secondary to mitral regurgitation ii) irregularly irregular rhythm with no p-waves and atrial fluttering- 'f-waves'
30
Describe the treatment options for atrial fibrillation.
DO NOT TREAT if: only diagnosed 2-3 days ago (may spontaneously resolve), no effect on exercise or if there is evidence of heart failure. 1. Quinidine sulphate via nasogastric tube every 2 hours (beware toxicity). 2. Electric defibrillation via direct shock under GA
31
Describe the ECG features of i) premature atrial beats, ii) premature ventricular contraction and iii) 3rd degree AV block.
i) abnormal p-wave shape, early p-wave and QRS complexes ii) no p-wave with wide bizarre QRS complexes iii) multiple p-waves with no QRS complexes
32
List the causes of pericardial effusion.
Idiopathic fibrinous/effusive pericarditis Neoplasia Traumatic H+ Septic disease
33
List the causes of cardiac murmurs.
Acquired valvular: mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation, aortic insufficiency Congenital: ventricular septal defect
34
Which pathology produces a pansystolic murmur loudest over the 5th intercostal space?
Mitral regurgitation
35
Which pathology produces a soft grade 2-3 pansystolic murmur loudest on the RHS?
Tricuspid regurgitation
36
Which pathology produces a diastolic musical murmur loudest over the 5th LHS intercostal space?
Aortic insufficiency
37
Describe the aetiology of tricuspid regurgitation.
LV failure -> pulmonary hypertension -> RV overload
38
Describe the aetiology of aortic insufficiency.
Progressive thickening and fibrosis of valve leaflets in older (>10yo) horses.
39
List the potential causes of mitral regurgitation.
Ruptured chordae tendinae Any condition causing dilation of valve annulus e.g. DCM, aortic insufficiency, VSD Congenital malformation of valve Infective endocarditis Eccentric hypertrophy and increased blood volume Degenerative thickening of the valve leaflets.
40
List the causes of icterus.
Regurgitation icterus: reduced excretion of bilirubin with liver of biliary tract disease Haemolytic/prehepatic icterus: increased production of bilirubin with haemolytic anaemia Hepatic icterus: reduced conjugation or hepatic uptake of bilirubin with liver disease
41
List the methods which can be used to determine the cause of icterus.
1. Relative amounts of conjugated vs. unconjugated bilirubin e. g. >25% conjugated = heptaocellular disease, >30% conjugated = cholestasis 2. Liver-derived enzymes- to assess if assoc w/ liver damage 3. Bile acids- to assess if assoc w/ liver failure 4. PCV + RBCC- to assess if assoc w/ haemolysis
42
What is the likely cause of icterus with increased unconjugated bilirubin in the serum and reduced PCV?
Haemolysis
43
What is the likely cause of icterus with increased unconjugated bilirubin in the serum, normal PCV and liver enzymes?
Anorexia
44
What is the likely cause of icterus with increased unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin in the serum and rincreased liver enzymes and bile acids?
Liver disease
45
Which liver-derived enzymes are specific to hepatocytes?
GLDH (spec), AST
46
Which liver-derived enzymes are specific to the biliary tract?
GGT (spec), AP
47
What are the clinical signs of equine liver disease?
Icterus Photosensitisation Severe pruritus Hepatic encephalopathy -> neuro signs e.g. dull vacant expression, yawning, ataxia, tremors, circling, head pressing, aggression Bilateral laryngeal paralysis -> dyspnoea, stridor at rest Petechiae Coagulopathy
48
Describe how you would treat hepatic encephalopathy.
Sedate with low dose alpha-2 agonists Correct metabolic, fluid and electrolyte abnormalities Reduce GIT production/absorption of potential neurotoxins through laxative and oral neomycin/metronidazole Lactulose- reduce intestinal neurotransmitter production/absorption
49
What would a negative response on the thoracolaryngeal reflex suggest?
Possibly recurrent laryngeal neuropathy
50
Describe where you would perform a CSF tap in horses.
1. Atlantooccipital (AO) 2. Lumbosacral Always tap closest to the lesion!
51
What is the most common cause of equine brain disease in the UK?
Hepatic encephalopathy
52
What is the causative agent of leukoencephalomalacia?
Fusarium species mycotoxicosis from mouldy feed.
53
What is the cause of polyneuritis equii?
Chronic granulomatous inflammation of extradural nerve roots of many peripheral nerves.
54
What are the clinical signs of polyneuritis equii?
Cranial nerve deficits (VII/VIII first)- progressive
55
What is the cause of temperohyoid osteoarthropathy?
Proliferative osteopathy of unknown cayse of temporal and hyoid bone and temperohyoid joint. Tongue movement can fracture the temporal or stylohyoid bone which damages facial and vestibulocochlear nerves.
56
What are the clinical signs of temperohyoid osteoarthropathy?
Vestibular/facial nerve signs Head shaking Dysphagia
57
Which cranial nerves are most commonly affected by guttural pouch mycosis?
7, 8-sympathetic, 9, 10, 12
58
Describe the clinical signs of cerebellar ataxia.
Loss of subconcious proprioception ONLY (so will still replace legs in normal positions if moved abnormally) Head movement Hypermetria Incoordination
59
Describe the clinical signs of vestibular ataxia.
Wide based stance (world is spinning!!) Head tilit Increased extensor tone on 1 side Nystagmus (rare)
60
What are the most common causes of equine ataxia in the UK?
Spinal cord trauma | Cervical vertebral malformation
61
Define type 1 cervical vertebral malformation.
Large young horses with developmental narrowing of canal at C3-4.
62
Define type 2 cervical vertebral malformation.
Large older horses with arthritis of the caudal cervical vertebrae compressing the spinal cord.
63
How is cervical vertebral malformation treated?
On radiography: vertebral canal width should be >50% width of vertebral body.
64
What is the aetiological agent of equine herpes myeloencephalopathy?
Equine herpes virus (EHV-1)
65
Where is the reservoir for EHV-1 in latently affected horses?
Trigeminal nerve ganglia.
66
What are the clinical signs of equine herpes myeloencephalopathy?
``` Penis out if male Cauda equine Poor anal/tail tone Pelvic > thoracic ataxia Poor urinary function Respiratory signs CSF = xanthochromic (due to breakdown products) ```
67
How is equine herpes myeloencephalopathy treated?
Dexamethasone and oral antivirals
68
What is the causal agent of equine protozial myeloencephalitis?
Sarcocystitis neurona
69
What are the clinical signs of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?
Atrophy of muscles of mastication
70
What are the causes of weight loss/failure to gain weight?
Mangement/physiology e.g. poor nutrition, increased metabolic demands- pregnancy, old age Disease e.g. dysphagia, maldigestion, increased consumption v. loss
71
How would you treat a generalised case of weight loss?
Assess weight and set date for re-evaluation Dietary change Stop/start any long-term medications e.g. bute may cause colitis/protein loss Anthelmintic therapy- larvicidal dfoses of anthelmintics even if apparently adequate worming regime
72
What 2 diagnostic tools are used to evaluate equine metabolic syndrome?
Fasting blood glucose and insulin: increased insulin = insulin resistance, increased gluc = severe insulin resistance/DM Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT): blood gluc should double within 2 hours of IV gluc admin then reduce to norm levels within 6 hours
73
How might you advise treating equine metabolic syndrome?
Control calorific intake e.g. feeds with low glycaemic index Exercise Medicate for obesity ???? Treat identifiable underlying cause
74
Define polyuria in the horse.
>50ml/kg/day
75
Define polydipsia in the horse.
>100ml/kg/day
76
What are the causes of PU/PD in the horse:
``` Psychogenic PD Equine cushing's syndrome Renal disease Psychogenic salt consumption Diabetes insipidus Drug induced/iatrogenic ```
77
What is a water deprivation test and when would you use it?
Take all fluid away and measure urine specific gravity over succeeding hours if no signs of renal or cushings disease. Tests the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine when water deprived.
78
What are the causes of urinary incontinence in the horse?
Reflex/UMN bladder Paralytic/LMN bladder Non-neurogenic
79
What are the causes of haematuria in the horse?
``` Urethral tears Cystitis Idiopathic renal haematuria Neoplasia of bladder/urethra/penis/sheath Drugs (NSAIDs) Vaginal varicosities (in gravid mares) Exercise induced haematuria Non-urinary systemic disease e.g. acute myopathies ```
80
What causes equine cushing's disease?
Overproduction of proopiomelanocortin (POMC) peptides from pars intermedia (PI) which causes increased ACTH levels causing dysregulated cortisol production
81
List the clinical signs of cushing's disease.
``` Hirsutism Hyperhidrosis Laminitis Lethargy Fat redistribution Weight loss PU/PD Polyphagia Blindness Seizures ```
82
What are the key diagnostic tools for cushing's disease?
Hirsuitism Basal glucose >5.5mmol Basal insulin >36IU/ml Dexamethasone stimulation test (DST): give dex at 5pm then 12pm next dat, cortisol >1ug/dl at second test Basal ACTH Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) response test: measure basal cortisol, inj TRH IV, measure cortisol 30m post-injection, +ve if 66% increase
83
How can equine cushing's disease be treated?
Conservative: clip hair, regular laminitis monitoring/farriery, exercise if no chronic othopaedic disease Medicate: if early case with hx of laminitis OR resting hyperglycaemia and sig increased insulin.... pergolide (dopamine agonist)
84
Which agents cause pediculosis?
LICE: Damalinia equi (biting) and Haematopinus asini (sucking)
85
Which agent causes chorioptic mange?
Chorioptes equi
86
What is the horse mite?
Trombicuoosis autumnalis
87
Describe the skin disease caused by oxyuris equi.
Pinworms which migrate from the small colon/rectum and lay eggs on perianal skin. Causes pruritis and tail rubbing.
88
Describe onchoceral dermatits.
Type 1/3 hypersensitivity to Onchocerca cervicalis microfilaria, transmitted by biting insects.
89
Describe the treatment of sweet itch.
``` Manage skin lesions Corticosteroids Immunotherapy/desensitisation treatment Fly repellants Prevent midges biting e.g. stabling at dawn/dusk, hooded rugs, insect-proof stables w/ ventilation ```
90
Which agent causes mud fever and rain scald?
Dermatophilus congolenis
91
Which agents cause ringworm in horses (and which is zoonotic)>
Trichophytan equinum var equinum/autotriphicum | Microspora gypseum/equinum/canis - ZOONOTIC
92
What causes purpura haemorrhagica?
Immune-mediated vasculitis associated with recovery from URT infection.
93
What are the clinical signs of purpura haemorrhagica?
``` Oedema of limbs Serum exudation Marked skin erosions petechial/ecchymotic H+ of skin/mucosa Pulmonary/cerebral oedema Depressed + inappetant ```
94
List the different types of chronic rhabdomyolysis.
Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis Idiopathic chronic exertional rhabdomyolysis Polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)- type 1 + 2 Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency
95
Which type of rhabdomyolysis is commonly seen in Quarter Horses?
Polysaccharide storage myopathy
96
How can chronic rhabdomyolysis be diagnosed?
Muscle biopsy Exercise tests: 3 days after returning to work, take a blood sample pre and 3-6 hours post-exercise. Is the response of the muscle to exercise normal? Fractional electrolyte excretion test Genetic testing for specific myopathies
97
How can chronic rhabdomyolysis be treated?
``` Dietary- reduced CHO diet with oils for supplementation if needed, don't feed in anticipation of work. Adequate warm-ups for exercise Avoid stress Supplement with salt if intense exercise Vit E/Se to soak up free radicals ```
98
What are the clinical signs of rhabdomyolysis?
These occur immediately post-exercise: Sweating Hot painful tense muscles- particularly femoral, gluteal and lumbar muscles Red/brown urine Slight gait change to full on reluctance to move
99
How can acute rhabdomyolysis be diagnosed?
Myoglobinuria Clinical signs Serum increased CK/AST/lactate dehydrogenase
100
How is acute rhabdomyolysis treated?
Rest Analgesia- NSAIDs Fluids- correct electrolyte balance Steriods (??) Calcium carbonate/gluconate if severe muscle damage Sedatives to relieve anxiety and stop muscle spasm
101
How is botulism transmitted and caused?
Through forage (preformed toxin in big bale silage), toxicoinfection botulism (growth in GIT), wound botulism. Clostrisium botulinum toxin- blocks Ach releasae at neuromuscular junctions and peripheral cholineric nerve terminals
102
What are the clinical signs of botulism?
``` Dysphagia Dirty weak tongue Increased salivation Weakness/trembling Tail flaccidity ```
103
What are the clinical signs and cause of shaker-foal syndrome?
Toxicoinfectious botulism in foals ``` Slow PLR Ptosis Dysphagia Reduced tail tone Constipation and urine retention ```
104
How is botulism diagnosed and treated?
Identify toxin in serum/GI contents/silage | Treat: a/bs if toxicoinfectious/wound, antitoxin (US)
105
How is tetanus caused?
Clostridium tetani exotoxins: Tetanolysin: local tissue necrosis Tetanospasm: prevents release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in CNS causing spasmic contractions of striated muscle
106
What are the clinical signs of tetanus?
``` Extended head and neck (stiff) Depressed Sweating Dysphagia Tachycardia Drooling Generalised muscle contractions provoked by stimuli e.g. touch, sound ```
107
How can tetanus be treated?
``` If recumbent- euthanise. Management: quiet gentle handing, dark stable, soft moist food with elevated food/water troughs Antitoxin Penicillin ACP (reduces stimuli) ```
108
Which factors may influence clinical pathology results?
``` Different labs Breeds: athletic v. drafts/ponies Age Sample collection Sample handing Physiological ```
109
Which enzyme is liver-specific in horses?
Glutamate dehydrogenase (GLDH)
110
Which enzymes indicate liver damage in horses?
AP, GGT, GLDH
111
Which enzymes indicate biliary stasis in horses?
AP + GGT
112
Which enzymes indicate muscle damage in horses?
CK, AST and lactate dehydrogenase
113
What are the causes of leucocytosis?
1. Inflam 2. Adrenaline release 3. Corticosteroids 4. Neoplasia
114
Whats the normal specific gravity of equine urine?
SG 1.020-1.050
115
Give examples of cases where antibiotics are usually NOT needed.
Strangles with only lymphadenopathy Subsolar abscess D+ Viral infections
116
Why shouldn't TMPS be used with alpha-2 agonists?
Risk of fatal cardiac arrhythmias
117
What are the adverse effects of using aminoglycosides in horses?
Nephrotoxic Ototoxic IM- muscle irritation
118
What is the vaccination regime for equine influenza?
1st from 4-6m, 2nd = 3-12 weeks later, 3rd = 5-7m later. Annual boosters
119
What is the vaccination regime for tetanus?
Toxoid- 2 vaccinations 1 month apart, then boosters every 2-3 years. Antitoxin to all foals if mare not vacc within 24hr birth.
120
What is the vaccination regime for equine herpes?
Initial course 1 month apart, then boosters every 6m. Pregnant mares at 2/5/7/9m preg.
121
Which part of the passport must be signed for a horse to be declared not intended for human consumption?
Section 9 - must be signed by owner
122
What are the IgG levels for a normal foal, a foal with partial FPT and a foal with full-blown FPT?
Norm >8g/L Partial = 4-8g/L Complete
123
What is the treatment of a foal with FPT?
24 hours: 1-2L equine plasma IV (1L over 1hr, then the rest more slowly)
124
Which alloantigens do foals with neonatal isoerythrolysis have?
Aa and Qa
125
What are the signs of neonatal isoerythrolysis?
``` Icterus Anaemia with weakness Haemoglobinuria Depression Anorexia Collapse + death ```
126
How is neonatal septic meningioencephalitis diagnosed?
Increased CSF protein | Neutrophilia
127
What are the causes of patent urachus?
Navel ill Septicaemia Increased abdominal pressure e.g. due to straining with retained meconium Prolonged recumbency
128
What is the urachus?
Structure connecting foetal bladder to allantoic cavity
129
What is foal heat diarrhoea?
Transient self-curing D+ occuring due to altered colonic microflora during milk to grass fed diet transition
130
What is the most common cause of D+ in the foal?
Rotavirus
131
How is rotavirus prevented?
Vaccination in 8/9/10th month of gestation
132
What are the causes of gastroduodenal ulceration in the foal?
Stress Iatrogenic e.g. NSAIDs Infections
133
What treatment is given for neonatal gastroduodenal ulcers?
Omezaprole
134
What are the clinical signs of meconium retention?
Restlessness Straining Lifting tail Lying on back and rolling
135
How is meconium retention treated?
Warm soapy water enema with soft tube inserted 10-12 inches + GRAVITY! If doesn't work- oral paraffin stomach tubed Analgesia
136
What is the cause of uroperitoneum in the foal?
``` Ruptured bladder (from increased abdo pressure during parturition) Patent urachus/ureters ```
137
What are the clinical signs of uroperitoneum in the foal?
``` Abdominal distension Lethargy Tachypnoea Tachycardia Mild abdo pain ```
138
How is uroperitoneum diagnosed?
Peritoneal fluid analysis demonstrates creatinine : serum ratio > 2:1 Abdo U/S
139
How is uroperitoneum treated?
Drain abdo, admin IV saline and dextrose, a/bs. When stable- surgical bladder closure.
140
Describe the clinical signs of african horse sickness.
Affects endothelial cells causing visceral/body cavity effusions. PULMONARY = PYREXIA, severe dyspnoea, peracute, 95% mortality- death within hours CARDIAC = PYREXIA, s/c oedema of head/neck, acute, 50% mortality- death within 4-8d Can also have mix of the above or 'Horse sickness fever' = subclin or with pyrexia and anorexia
141
What is the cause of ryegrass staggers?
Certain weather- endophytes in grasses produce neurotoxic alkaloids causing staggers in grazing animals to prevent overgrazing
142
What are the clinical signs of ryegrass staggers?
``` Hypometric ataxia Proprioceptive deficits Wide-based stance Muscle tremors Ataxic eyeball movements ```
143
What are the clinical signs of monensin poisoning?
``` Ataxia Muscle weakness Anorexia Colic Sweating Haemolysis Myoglobinuria ORGAN FAILURE ```
144
List toxic plants to horses.
``` Yew Ragwort Cardiac aminoglycoside-containing plants e.g. foxglove Seleniferous plants Oak/acorns ```