Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage?

A

Propanolol

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2
Q

What causes achalasia?

A

Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus i.e. LOS contracted, oesophagus above dilated.

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3
Q

What are the clinical features of achalasia?

A
  • dysphagia of BOTH liquids and solids
  • typically variation in severity of symptoms
  • heartburn
  • regurgitation of food
  • may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc
  • malignant change in small number of patients
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4
Q

What are the investigations of achalasia?

A
  • oesophageal manometry (excessive LOS tone which doesn’t relax on swallowing, considered the most important diagnostic test)
  • barium swallow shows grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level, ‘bird’s beak’ appearance)
  • chest x-ray (wide mediastinum, fluid level)
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5
Q

What are the treatments available for achalasia?

A
  1. pneumatic (balloon) dilation is increasingly the preferred first-line option
    - less invasive and quicker recovery time than surgery
    - patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur
  2. surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms
  3. intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk
  4. drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, calcium channel blockers) has a role but is limited by side-effects
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6
Q

Inheritance mode of wilson’s disease

A

Autosomal recessive

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7
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues. Metabolic abnormalities include increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. Wilson’s disease is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13.

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8
Q

Gene and chromosome defective in Wilson’s disease?

A

ATP7B chromosome 13

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9
Q

Age of onset and characteristics of Wilson’s disease

A

The onset of symptoms is usually between 10 - 25 years. Children usually present with liver disease whereas the first sign of disease in young adults is often neurological disease

Features result from excessive copper deposition in the tissues, especially the brain, liver and cornea:
- liver: hepatitis, cirrhosis
- neurological:
- basal ganglia degeneration: in the brain, most copper is deposited in the basal ganglia, particularly in the putamen and globus pallidus
- speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems are often the first manifestations
- also: asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism
- Kayser-Fleischer rings
- green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris
- due to copper accumulation in Descemet membrane
- present in around 50% of patients with isolated hepatic Wilson’s disease and 90% who have neurological involvement
- renal tubular acidosis (esp. Fanconi syndrome)
- haemolysis
- blue nails

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10
Q

What are the investigations for wilson’s disease?

A
  • slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings
  • reduced serum caeruloplasmin
  • reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin)
    - free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased
  • increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
  • the diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene
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11
Q

What’s the management for Wilson’s disease?

A
  • penicillamine (chelates copper) has been the traditional first-line treatment
  • trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent which may become first-line treatment in the future
  • tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation
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12
Q

What are the features of Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Diarrhoea usually non-bloody
  • Weight loss more prominent
  • Upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease
  • Abdominal mass palpable in the right iliac fossa
  • Gallstones are more common secondary to reduced bile acid reabsorption. Oxalate renal stones are formed as the impaired bile acid rebsorption (ileum) increases the loss calcium in the bile. Calcium normally binds oxalate.

Complications
- Obstruction, fistula, colorectal cancer (risk higher in UC)

Pathology
- Lesions may be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus
- Skip lesions may be present

Histology
- Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
- increased goblet cells
- granulomas

Endoscopy
- Deep ulcers, skip lesions - ‘cobble-stone’ appearance

Radiology (Small bowel enema)
- high sensitivity and specificity for examination of the terminal ileum
- strictures: ‘Kantor’s string sign’
- proximal bowel dilation
- ‘rose thorn’ ulcers
- fistulae

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13
Q

What are the features of Ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Bloody diarrhoea more common than in crohns
  • Abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant
  • Tenesmus
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis more common

Complications
- Risk of colorectal cancer high in UC than CD

Pathology
- Inflammation always starts at rectum and never spreads beyond ileocaecal valve
- Continuous disease

Histology
- No inflammation beyond submucosa (unless fulminant disease) - inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria
- neutrophils migrate through the walls of glands to form crypt abscesses
- depletion of goblet cells and mucin from gland epithelium
- granulomas are infrequent

Endoscopy
- Widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa which has the appearance of polyps (‘pseudopolyps’)

Radiology (Barium enema)
- loss of haustrations
- superficial ulceration, ‘pseudopolyps’
- long standing disease: colon is narrow and short -‘drainpipe colon’

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14
Q

Bacterial classification of c diff

A

Gram positive bacillus
Clostridium difficile

It produces an exotoxin which causes intestinal damage leading to a syndrome called pseudomembranous colitis.

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15
Q

Risk factors for c diff

A
  • Second and third-generation cephalosporins are now the leading cause of C. difficile
  • clindamycin
  • PPIs
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16
Q

Pathophysiology of c diff

A
  • anaerobic gram-positive, spore-forming, toxin-producing bacillus
  • transmission: via the faecal-oral route by ingestion of spores
  • releases two exotoxins (toxin A and toxin B) that act on intestinal epithelial cells and inflammatory cells resulting in colitis
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17
Q

What are the features of c diff?

A
  • diarrhoea
  • abdominal pain
  • a raised white blood cell count (WCC) is characteristic
  • if severe toxic megacolon may develop
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18
Q

What’s the severity scale for c diff?

A

Mild
Normal WCC

Moderate
↑ WCC ( < 15 x 109/L)
Typically 3-5 loose stools per day

Severe
↑ WCC ( > 15 x 109/L)
or an acutely ↑ creatinine (> 50% above baseline)
or a temperature > 38.5°C
or evidence of severe colitis(abdominal or radiological signs)

Life threatening
Hypotension
Partial or complete ileus
Toxic megacolon, or CT evidence of severe disease

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19
Q

How do you diagnose c diff?

A
  • is made by detecting C. difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool
  • C. difficile antigen positivity only shows exposure to the bacteria, rather than current infection
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20
Q

How is c diff managed?

A

Current antibiotic therapy should be reviewed and antibiotics stopped if possible.

First episode of C. difficile infection
- first-line therapy is oral vancomycin for 10 days
- second-line therapy: oral fidaxomicin
- third-line therapy: oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole

Recurrent episode
- recurrent infection occurs in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode
- within 12 weeks of symptom resolution:
- oral fidaxomicin
- after 12 weeks of symptom resolution: oral vancomycin OR fidaxomicin

Life-threatening C. difficile infection
- oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
- specialist advice - surgery may be considered

Other therapies
- bezlotoxumab is a monoclonal antibody which targets C. difficile toxin B
NICE do not currently support its use to prevent recurrences as it is not cost-effective
- faecal microbiota transplant
may be considered for patients who’ve had 2 or more previous episodes

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21
Q

How do you prevent the spread of c diff?

A
  • isolation in side room: the patient should remain isolated until there has been no diarrhoea (types 5-7 on the Bristol Stool Chart) for at least 48 hours
  • all staff should wear disposable gloves and an apron during any contact with patients known to have C. difficile
  • hand washing is also essential - alcohol gel does not kill the spores of C. difficile
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22
Q

How do aminosalicylate drugs work? What are they used for?

A

5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) is released in the colon and is not absorbed. It acts locally as an anti-inflammatory. The mechanism of action is not fully understood but 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

Use: colitis and crohns

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23
Q

What is sulphasalazine? What are the side effects?

A
  • a combination of sulphapyridine (a sulphonamide) and 5-ASA
  • many side-effects are due to the sulphapyridine moiety: rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, lung fibrosis
  • other side-effects are common to 5-ASA drugs (GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, interstitial nephritis)
  • Aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis - FBC is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them.
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24
Q

What is mesalazine and what are the side effects?

A
  • a delayed release form of 5-ASA
  • sulphapyridine side-effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine are avoided
  • mesalazine is still however associated with side-effects such as GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis*, interstitial nephritis
    *pancreatitis is 7 times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine
  • Aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis - FBC is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them.
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25
Q

What is osalazine?

A

two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken by colonic bacteria

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26
Q

Features of whipples disease

A

Diarrhoea, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, fever

D WALF

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27
Q

What is the underlying aetiology of Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

Thrombosis of the hepatic vein

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28
Q

Severe vomiting –> haematemesis in a question is most likely to indicate:

A

Mallory Weiss syndrome

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29
Q

What is gardners syndrome? What are the features of gardner’s syndrome?

A

A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma and epidermoid cysts on the skin

Multiple colonic polyps, osteomas, epidermoid cysts

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30
Q

What are the types of colon cancer?

A
  • sporadic (95%)
  • hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC, 5%)
  • familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP, <1%)
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31
Q

What’s the most common form of inherited colon cancer? And what’s its inheritance mode

A

HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)
Autosomal dominant

Around 90% of patients develop cancers, often of the proximal colon, which are usually poorly differentiated and highly aggressive.

32
Q

What are the most common genes mutated in HNPCC?

A

MSH2 (60% of cases)
MLH1 (30%)

Mismatch repair genes

33
Q

What’s the second most common cancer in HNPCC patients?

A

Endometiral

34
Q

Which criteria aids diagnosis of HNPCC?

A

The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis:
- at least 3 family members with colon cancer
- the cases span at least two generations
- at least one case diagnosed before the age of 50 years

35
Q

What is FAP?

A

FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. Patients inevitably develop carcinoma. It is due to a mutation in a tumour suppressor gene called adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), located on chromosome 5. Genetic testing can be done by analysing DNA from a patient’s white blood cells. Patients generally have a total proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis (IPAA) formation in their twenties.

36
Q

How is IBS diagnosed?

A

The diagnosis of IBS should be considered if the patient has had the following for at least 6 months:
- Abdominal pain, and/or
- Bloating, and/or
- Change in bowel habit

A positive diagnosis of IBS should be made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to 2 of the following 4 symptoms:
- altered stool passage (straining, urgency, incomplete evacuation)
- abdominal bloating (more common in women than men), distension, tension or hardness
- symptoms made worse by eating
- passage of mucus

Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis

37
Q

What are the red flag features of IBS you should ask about?

A
  • rectal bleeding
  • unexplained/unintentional weight loss
  • family history of bowel or ovarian cancer
  • onset after 60 years of age
38
Q

What are the investigations for IBS?

A
  • full blood count
  • ESR/CRP
  • coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies)
39
Q

Which conditions are associated with coeliac’s disease?

A
  • dermatitis herpetiformis (a vesicular, pruritic skin eruption)
  • autoimmune disorders (type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis).
  • strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 (95% of patients) and HLA-DQ8 (80%).
40
Q

What are the complications of coeliac disease?

A
  • anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)
  • hyposplenism
  • osteoporosis, osteomalacia
  • lactose intolerance
  • enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine
  • subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
  • rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies
41
Q

SeHCAT is the best investigation for….

A

bile acid malabsorption

42
Q

What are the causes of bile acid malabsorption?

A

Primary, due to excessive production of bile acid

Secondary causes are often seen in patients with ileal disease, such as with Crohn’s. Other secondary causes include:
- cholecystectomy
- coeliac disease
- small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

43
Q

How do you manage bile acid malabsorption?

A

bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

44
Q

Helicobacter pylori is associated with…

A
  • peptic ulcer disease
    95% of duodenal ulcers
    75% of gastric ulcers
  • gastric cancer
  • B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue (eradication of H pylori results causes regression in 80% of patients)
  • atrophic gastritis
45
Q

How is h pylori treated?

A

eradication may be achieved with a 7-day course of:
- a proton pump inhibitor + amoxicillin + (clarithromycin OR metronidazole)
PAC or PAM!
- if penicillin-allergic: a proton pump inhibitor + metronidazole + clarithromycin

46
Q

What is the treatment of choice for severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Prednisolone

47
Q

Alcoholic liver disease incorporates which conditions? What would you expect on examination?

A

Alcoholic liver disease covers a spectrum of conditions:
- alcoholic fatty liver disease
- alcoholic hepatitis
- cirrhosis

Selected investigation findings:
- gamma-GT is characteristically elevated
- the ratio of AST:ALT is normally > 2, a ratio of > 3 is strongly suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis

48
Q

A man who presents with intussusception is noticed to have multiple polyps on colonoscopy. These are later shown to be hamartomatous. He also has pigmented lesions on his lips and palms is a stereotypical history of:

A

Peutz Jeghers Syndrome

49
Q

What’s the mode of inheritance of Peutz Jeghers syndrome? What’s the mutation?

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • responsible gene encodes serine threonine kinase LKB1 or STK11 (tumour suppressor gene)
50
Q

What does HbeAg imply?

A

It’s a marker of infectivity.

HbeAg results from breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells as is, therefore, a marker of infectivity. Marker of HBV replication and infectivity

51
Q

Anti HBs implies….

A

Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease

52
Q

Anti HBc implies….

A

Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

53
Q

Name 4 inherited causes of jaundice. Which are associated with conjugated bilirubin?

A

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Gilbert’s syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Rotor syndrome

Gilbert’s syndrome
- autosomal recessive
- mild deficiency of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase
- benign

Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 1
- autosomal recessive
- absolute deficiency of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase
- do not survive to adulthood

Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type 2
- slightly more common than type 1 and less severe
- may improve with phenobarbital

Dubin-Johnson syndrome
- autosomal recessive. Relatively common in Iranian Jews
- mutation in the canalicular multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) results in defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin
- results in a grossly black liver
- benign

Rotor syndrome
- autosomal recessive
- defect in the hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin
- benign

53
Q

HBsAg normally implies…..

A

HBsAg normally implies acute disease (present for 1-6 months)
if HBsAg is present for > 6 months then this implies chronic disease (i.e. Infective).
HBsAg is the first marker

54
Q

What’s the best investigation for pharyngeal pouch?

A

Dynamic swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy

55
Q

Which antibiotics are given to patients with liver cirrhosis and variceal haemorrhage?

A

IV quinolones

56
Q

What’s the management for suspected variceal haemorrhage?

A
  • ABC
  • correct clotting: FFP, vitamin K, platelet transfusions may be required
  • vasoactive agent (terlipressin)
  • prophylactic antibiotics if liver cirrhosis
  • both terlipressin and antibiotics should be given before endoscopy in patients with suspected variceal haemorrhage
  • endoscopy: endoscopic variceal band ligation is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy. NICE recommend band ligation
  • Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage
  • Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) if above measures fail
    connects the hepatic vein to the portal vein
    exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy is a common complication
57
Q

What’s the ELF test? What does it test for?

A

the ELF blood test is a combination of hyaluronic acid + procollagen III + tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase 1. An algorithm based on these values results in an ELF blood test score, similar to triple testing for Down’s syndrome. Tests for NAFLD

58
Q

What causes haemachromatosis? What’s the inheritance pattern? What chromosome is the gene on?

A

Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation. It is caused by inheritance of mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6*. It is often asymptomatic in early disease and initial symptoms often non-specific e.g. lethargy and arthralgia

59
Q

What are the features of haemachromatosis?

A
  • early symptoms include fatigue, erectile dysfunction and arthralgia (often of the hands)
  • ‘bronze’ skin pigmentation (reversible)
  • diabetes mellitus
  • liver: stigmata of chronic liver disease, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, hepatocellular deposition)
  • cardiac failure (2nd to dilated cardiomyopathy) (reversible)
  • hypogonadism (2nd to cirrhosis and pituitary dysfunction - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)
  • arthritis (especially of the hands)
60
Q

What is the Budd Chiari triad?

A
  • abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
  • ascites → abdominal distension
  • tender hepatomegaly
60
Q

What are the causes of Budd Chiari syndrome?

A
  • polycythaemia rubra vera
  • thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies
  • pregnancy
  • combined oral contraceptive pill: accounts for around 20% of cases
60
Q

What’s the investigation of choice for Budd Chiari syndrome?

A

ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

61
Q

Severe vomiting → oesophageal rupture

A

Boerhaave syndrome

62
Q

Severe vomiting → painful mucosal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction resulting in haematemesis. Common in alcoholics

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

63
Q

Which drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A

MANS

methotrexate
amiodarone
nitrofurantoin
sulphasalazine

63
Q

What’s the Plummer Vinson triad? What’s the treatment?

A

Triad of:
- dysphagia (secondary to oesophageal webs)
- glossitis
- iron-deficiency anaemia

Treatment includes iron supplementation and dilation of the webs

63
Q

How long in advance should PPIs be stopped before endoscopy?

A

2 weeks

64
Q

When would you do an endoscopy for GORD?

A

Indications for upper GI endoscopy:
- age > 55 years
- symptoms > 4 weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment
- dysphagia
- relapsing symptoms
- weight loss

If endoscopy is negative consider 24-hr oesophageal pH monitoring (the gold standard test for diagnosis)

65
Q

What’s the anatomy of a pharyngeal pouch?

A

Posteromedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles

66
Q

What are the causes of dysphagia?

A

OOO SAM GP

  • oesophageal cancer
  • oesophagitis
  • oesophageal candidia
  • systemic sclerosis
  • achalasia
  • myasthenia gravis
  • globus hystericus
  • pharyngeal pouch

Extrinsic
- Mediastinal masses
- Cervical spondylosis

Oesophageal wall
- Achalasia
- Diffuse oesophageal spasm
- Hypertensive lower oesophageal sphincter

Intrinsic
- Tumours
- Strictures
- Oesophageal web
- Schatzki rings

Neurological
- CVA (cerebrovascular accident)
- Parkinson’s disease
- Multiple Sclerosis
- Brainstem pathology
- Myasthenia Gravis

67
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected carcinoid tumours?

A

Urinary 5-HIAA
plasma chromogranin A y

68
Q

What are the features of carcinoid syndrome?

A
  • flushing
  • diarrhoea
  • bronchospasm
  • hypotension
  • weight loss
69
Q

What are the classifications of UC?

A

mild: < 4 stools/day, only a small amount of blood

moderate: 4-6 stools/day, varying amounts of blood, no systemic upset

severe: >6 bloody stools per day + features of systemic upset (pyrexia, tachycardia, anaemia, raised inflammatory markers)

70
Q

What are the 2 stages of treating UC patients?

A

Inducing remission
Maintaining remission

71
Q

How is remission induced in UC patients?

A

Treating mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis

Proctitis
- topical (rectal) aminosalicylate: for distal colitis rectal mesalazine has been shown to be superior to rectal steroids and oral aminosalicylates
- if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add an oral aminosalicylate
- if remission still not achieved add topical or oral corticosteroid

Proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis
- topical (rectal) aminosalicylate
- if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add a high-dose oral aminosalicylate OR switch to a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and a topical corticosteroid
- if remission still not achieved stop topical treatments and offer an oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

Extensive disease
- topical (rectal) aminosalicylate and a high-dose oral aminosalicylate:
- if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, stop topical treatments and offer a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

Severe colitis
- should be treated in hospital
intravenous steroids are usually given first-line
- intravenous ciclosporin may be used if steroid are contraindicated
- if after 72 hours there has been no improvement, consider adding intravenous ciclosporin to intravenous corticosteroids or consider surgery

72
Q

How do you maintain remission for UC patients?

A

Following a mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis flare

Proctitis and proctosigmoiditis
- topical (rectal) aminosalicylate alone (daily or intermittent) or
- an oral aminosalicylate plus a topical (rectal) aminosalicylate (daily or intermittent) or
- an oral aminosalicylate by itself: this may not be effective as the other two options

Left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis
- low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate

Following a severe relapse or >=2 exacerbations in the past year
- oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine