medicine Flashcards

1
Q

DVT prophylaxis

A

rivaroxaban
prophylaxis = 10 mg orally, once daily after surgery
treatment = 15mg bd for 21 days and then 20mg daily thereafter

apixaban
prophylaxis = 2.5mg bd
treatment = 10mg bd for 7 days and then 5mg bd
needs dose adjustment when CrCl <25

Enoxaparin
prophylaxis 40mg SC (20mg for reduced renal)
treatment = 1mg/kg bd or 1.5mg/kg daily (1mg/kg daily for reduced renal)

Methods of mechanical prophylaxis for VTE include:

  • graduated compression stockings providing 16 to 20 mmHg pressure at the ankle (stockings providing this pressure are also known as anti embolism stockings), which must be professionally fitted
  • intermittent pneumatic compression devices
  • pneumatic foot compression or pump
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2
Q

Fluid GI tract

A
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3
Q

Definition of:
Prevalence
Incidence
Mortality rate

A

Prevalence
Prevalence is the proportion of a population who have a specific characteristic in a given time period.

**Incidence **
The occurrence of new cases of disease or injury in a population over a specified period of time.

Mortality rate
A mortality rate is the number of deaths due to a disease divided by the total population.

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4
Q

TNM staging

A
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5
Q

CEA

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen

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6
Q

Label Caudate nucleus, putamen and substantia nigra in this picture:

A
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7
Q

3 medications for parkinson’s disease and their MOA

A

**Dopamine agonists: **
Levodopa/carbidopa MOA: stimulate dopamine receptors → stimulates direct pathway and relatively reduces the stimulation of the indirect pathway → allows more controlled movements
Side effects: Hallucinations, confusion, dyskinesia, impulse control disorders, NVD

Anticholinergics:
- Benztropine MOA: Block muscarinic actions of acetylcholine to produce a wide range of effects including reduction of relative excess of cholinergic activity that accompanies dopamine deficiency in Parkinson’s disease.
Side effects: Dry eyes, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation

Amantadine:
MOA: Increases dopamine release and blocks cholinergic receptors; acts as a N‑methyl-D‑aspartate (NMDA) antagonist in the glutamatergic pathway from subthalamic nucleus to globus pallidus.
Side Effects: nervousness, depression, hallucinations, insomnia

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8
Q

Risk factors for TB

A
  • <5yrs or >60years
  • Chronic lung disease
  • Exposure to an individual with known or suspected active TB
  • Travel or exposure to high TB prevalence areas
  • Exposure to high risk adults such as HIV infected, IV drug users, residents of congregate settings, migrant workers, homeless people
  • Immunosuppressive medical conditions/ medications
  • End-stage renal disease
  • Diabetes
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9
Q

Importance of femoral head blood supply in NOF

A

The blood supply to NOF is retrograde, passing from distal to proximal along the femoral neck to the femoral head. This is predominantly through the medial circumflex artery, which lies directly on the intracapsular femoral neck. This blood supply is vulnerable to disruption if there is a displaced intracapsular fracture → leads to Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

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10
Q

4 criteria for Consent

A
  • the patient giving consent must have capacity i.e. patient has to have capacity, they have to understand facts and choices, weigh up the consequences the decision and communicate the decision
  • the consent must be freely given
    voluntarily, consent is freely given i.e. not under coercion or duress
  • the consent must be sufficiently specific to the procedure or treatment proposed
  • the consent must be informed i.e. ensure the patient has a genuine understanding of the nature of the condition being treated, the proposed procedure or treatment, the expected outcomes and the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment
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11
Q

Benefits of using DOAC instead of warfarin

A
  • decreased major bleeding by 28% and intracranial bleeding by 50%
    fixed dose,
  • no monitoring required,
  • no interactions,
  • equally effective as warfarin to prevent stroke,
  • warfarin takes 5 days to reach therapeutic effect and all the DOACS have been proven for VTE prophylaxis
  • rapid onset/offset of action,
  • few drug interactions,
  • predictable pharmacokinetics
  • eliminating the requirement for regular coagulation monitoring
  • ease of patient use with a standard dose
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12
Q

Features of osteoporosis on X-ray

A
  • cortical thinning
  • increased radiolucency
  • Altered trabecular pattern (loss of trabeculae in proximal femur area) - Singh’s index
  • Compression deformities (of the vertebra)
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13
Q

histology difference between Crohns and UC

A

Crohns: Transmural, cobblestone appearance, non-caseating granuloma, TH-1 mediated infiltration, bowel thickening, lymph node aggregates

UC: Mucosal and submucosal involvement only, friable mucosa, deep ulceration, crypt abscess, goblet cell depletion, bleeding, no granuloma, TH2-mediated immune infiltrates

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14
Q

Describe this

A

left proximal 1/3 mid shaft femur subtrochanteric,
closed,
oblique with lateral displacement, shortening and ~5-10% angulation

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15
Q

describe this

A

Left proximal subtrochanteric, spiral femur fracture, closed and laterally translated with a possible Avulsion fracture

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16
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication. Symptoms include high fever, confusion, rigid muscles, variable blood pressure, sweating, and fast heart rate.

Complications of neuroleptic malignant syndrome include dehydration from poor oral intake, acute renal failure from rhabdomyolysis, and deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism from rigidity and immobilization

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17
Q

serotonin syndrome

A

Agitation or restlessness.
Insomnia.
Confusion.
Rapid heart rate and high blood pressure.
Dilated pupils.
Loss of muscle coordination or twitching muscles.
High blood pressure.
Muscle rigidity.

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18
Q

define sensitivity and specificity (and how to calculate True positive, false positive, True neg and False neg)

A

Sensitivity relates to the test’s ability to correctly detect patients who do have a condition. Sensitivity of the test is the proportion of people known to have the disease, who test positive for it

**Specificity **relates to the test’s ability to correctly detect patients without a condition.
Specificity of a test is the proportion of healthy patients known not to have the disease, who will test negative for it

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19
Q

About screening test

A
  • Should accurately detect the target condition while it is still asymptomatic.
  • The Test should have high Sensitivity and Specificity
  • The Test results should be** reproducible** in a variety of settings
  • The Test must be safe and acceptable to the target individual or population and
    clinicians
  • The Test should be simple to perform and be cost effective
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20
Q

rectal bleeding diagnosis

A
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21
Q

Label circle of Willis

A
22
Q

4 types of non-seminoma testicular tumours

A
23
Q

breast cancer tumour markers

A

Ca 15-3, CA 27.29 and CEA

24
Q

types of ovarian cancer

A
25
Q

Breast disease

A
26
Q

Pre-requisites for instrumental delivery

A

FORCEPS

Fully dilated
one-fifth or nil abdominal palpable
Ruptured membrane
Contractions present
Empty bladder
Presentation and position known
Satisfactory analgesia

27
Q

ECG for hyperkalaemia

A
  • tented T wave,
  • flattened P wave,
  • prolonged PR interval,
  • ST depression, and
  • prolonged QRS duration
28
Q

5 features of US scan that suggest that it’s a malignancy

A

irregular solid tumour
ascites
at least 4 papillary structures
Irregular multilocular solid tumour with largest diameter >10 cm
Very good blood flow

29
Q

DBT

A

mindfulness,
interpersonal effectiveness,
distress tolerance,
and emotion regulation.

30
Q

4 features of emotional instability

A

Rapid changes in mood
Struggle to feel empathy
Moods feel extreme and hard to control
Impulsivity/risky behaviour
Fear criticism and rejection
Fear of abandonment
Struggle to stick to their word
Struggle coming down from extreme emotions

31
Q

BPD

A

fear of abandonment
unstable or changing relationships
unstable self-image, including struggles with sense of self and identity
stress-related paranoia
anger regulation problems, including frequent loss of temper or physical fights
consistent and constant feelings of sadness or worthlessness
self-injury, suicidal ideation, or suicidal behavior
frequent mood swings
impulsive behaviors such as unsafe sex, reckless driving, binge eating, substance abuse, or excessive spending

32
Q

3 levels of pelvic floor support

A

Level I has long mesenteric attachments (cardinal and uterosacral ligaments),

Level II has more direct connections to the pelvic walls (e.g. paravaginal attachments),

Level III has a direct fusion of the vagina with the levator ani muscles, perineal membrane and body

33
Q

Definition pre-term labour

A
  • Pre-term Labour = Labour that occurs between 20 weeks and 36 + 6 weeks
34
Q

causes of pre-term labour

A
  • spontaneous
  • cervical incompetence
  • PROM
  • social stress
  • placental abruption
  • infection
  • immunological inflammation
  • uterine stretch
  • premature desidual activation
35
Q

Risk factors for pre-mature labour

A

-Previous premature labour
* Previous cervical trauma
* Previous induced abortion
* Maternal infections
* Multiple pregnancy
* Short cervical length
* Positive foetal fibronectin test
* PPROM
- High BMI
- smoking
- GDM
- domestic violence

36
Q

PBC Vs PSC

A
37
Q

UC Vs Crohns

A
38
Q

Clozapine MOA

A

Antipsychotic actions are thought to be mediated (at least in part) by blockade of dopaminergic transmission in various parts of the brain (in particular the limbic system). Evidence suggests:
all effective antipsychotics block D2 receptors
differential blockade of other dopamine receptors (eg D1) may influence therapeutic and adverse effects
antagonism of other receptors may influence antipsychotic activity, eg 5HT2 antagonism with some agents.

39
Q

Side effects and monitoring clozapine

A

SIDE EFFECTS and monitoring
- monitor response & compliance regular (4wkly initially, reduced subsequent once therapeutic dose is achieved) bloods → FBC, CRP
- Prolong QT interval - regular ECG
- myocarditis (CRP, trop)
- neutropenia (FBC)
- agranulocytosis (FBC)
- Seizures (drug concentration levels monitoring)
- EPSE - examine for rigidity, tremor and abnormal involuntary movements (i.e. tardive dyskinesia)

40
Q

4 dopamine pathways in the brain and how do they relate to schizophrenia

A

Mesolimbic
Mesocortical
Nigrastriatal
Tubero-infundibular

Dopamine hypothesis:
Believed in schizophrenia to be dysfunction in the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways leading to symptoms of schizophrenia.
Mesolimbic pathway: Increased dopamine in mesolimbic system causing positive symptoms
Mesocortical pathway: Decreased dopamine in mesocortical pathway causing negative symptoms

It is believed that dysregulation of dopamine signalling plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of schizophrenia, this is supported by the dopamine inhibiting effects of most antipsychotic medications

41
Q

Schizophrenia Symptoms

A

Positive symptoms

Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganised Thought Form & Content
Disorganised Speech
Bizarre behaviour

Negative symptoms
Anhedonia
Alogia
Avolition
Blunted affect
Asociality

42
Q

How does ovarian cancer spread?

A

Ovarian cancer spreads:
trans-coelomically, whereby tumour is ‘seeded’ onto the surfaces of the intraperitoneal structures and organs.
Those who die usually do so from intestinal obstruction and cachexia as a consequence of widespread intraperitoneal disease.
Intrahepatic metastases and malignant pleural effusions are seen, and paraaortic lymph node metastases are found in up to 18% of cases where the disease appears otherwise to be confined to the ovary.

43
Q

cardiac murmurs

A
44
Q

4 T’s of PPH

A
45
Q

NOF

A
  • Intracapsular – at risk of AVN due to blood supply
    ⁃ Subcapital (femoral head and neck junction)
    ⁃ Transcervical (mid femoral neck)
    ⁃ Basicervical (base of femoral neck)
  • Extracapsular
    ⁃ Intertrochanteric (btw greater and lesser troch)
    ⁃ Subtrochanteric (below trochanters)
46
Q

Paeds Dehydration

A
47
Q

Mania Vs Hypomania

A
48
Q

Review vaginal prolapse

A
49
Q

Review pharmacology questions

A
50
Q

Review Paeds MCQs if have time

A