Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What QRISK2 score requires a patient to be started on statins?

A) 5%
B) 7%
C) 10%
D) 12.5%
E) 15%
A

C) 10%

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2
Q

Which antibiotic should be used to treat a recurrent episode of C. diff infection (<12 weeks)

A) ciprofloxacin
B) co-amoxiclav
C) fidaxomicin
D) prednisolone
E) vancomycin
A

C) fidaxomicin

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3
Q

Next step in management for C diff for a patient not responding PO vancomycin?

A) IV vancomycin
B) IV vancomycin + IV fidaxomicin
C) IV vancomycin + IV metronidazole
D) PO vancomycin + IV metronidazole
E) PO vancomycin + PO fidaxomicin
A

D) PO vancomycin + IV metronidazole

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4
Q

Management of patient with INR 6.1

A) oral vitamin k 5mg and continue warfarin at lower maintenance dose
B) give half the usual dose for 5 days then continue as normal
C) oral vitamin K 5mg and stop warfarin for 2 days
D) withhold 2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose
E) admit to hospital until inr normal

A

D) withhold 2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

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5
Q

Treatment for torsades de pointes?

A) IV naloxone 
B) IV MgSO4
C) DC cardioversion
D) IV amiodarone
E) IV verapamil
A

B) IV MgSO4

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6
Q
COPD management in patient unresponsive to salbutamol inhaler 
A) LTRA
B) Theophylline 
C) LABA + ICS
D) LABA + LAMA
E) LABA + LAMA + ICS
A

D) LABA + LAMA

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7
Q

3 day history of bloody diarrhoea and fever, stool samples have grown salmonella. Which abx?

A) metronidazole 
B) doxycycline 
C) clarithromycin
D) ciprofloxacin
E) amoxicillin
A

D) ciprofloxacin

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8
Q

HIV patient suffering with seizures - brain CT shows single lesion with homogenous enhancement, thallium SPECT scan shows increased uptake (positive). Most likely cause of symptoms?

A) cryptococcus
B) CNS lymphoma
C) CNS tuberculosis
D) HIV encephalitis
E) Toxoplasmosis
A

B) CNS lymphoma

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9
Q

A patient with a subarachnoid haemorrhage may become haemodynamically unstable - ECG feature?

A) no p waves
B) peaked t waves
C) polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
D) normal
E) prolonged qrs duration and s wave in v1
A

C) polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

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10
Q

What medication would be used first line to induce remission in an acute flare of Crohn’s disease?

A) azathioprine and sulfasalazine
B) azathioprine only
C) glucocorticoids and sulfasalazine
D) glucocorticoids only
E) sulfasalazine and infliximab
A

D) glucocorticoids only

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11
Q

After a stroke, a patient is suffering with speech, language and swallowing. She then becomes increasingly SOB, has developed a cough and is pyrexial. What will most likely be seen on the CXR?

A) raised left hemidiaphragm
B) bilateral pleural effusion
C) consolidation in right lung
D) consolidation in left lung
E) tracheal deviation to the right
A

C) consolidation in right lung

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12
Q

What ECG abnormality is seen with hypercalcaemia?

A) long PR interval
B) short PR interval
C) long QT interval
D) short QT interval
E) depressed T waves
A

D) short QT interval

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13
Q

T1DM patient presents with 6W history of worsening hbA1c, nausea, bloating and vomiting. Most likely cause?

A) gastropareses
B) crohns
C) ulcerative colitis
D) IBS
E) gastric cancer
A

A) gastropareses

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14
Q

80y/o M, persistent back pain, bony tenderness in thoracic spine, restricted range of movement, blood tests show raised calcium and leucopenia. Next most appropriate action?

A) measure serum PTH
B) urgent protein electrophoresis and bence jones protein testing
C) refer to physio
D) urgent spine MRI
E) appropriate analgesia
A

B) urgent protein electrophoresis and bence jones protein testing

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15
Q

66 y/o male with hypertension and hypokalaemia- abdo CT shows bilateral adrenal enlargement and adrenal vein sampling demonstrates production of excess aldosterone bilaterally. Most appropriate treatment?

A) chemotherapy
B) IV hydrocortisone
C) radiotherapy
D) spironolactone
E) surgery
A

D) spironolactone

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16
Q

52y/o M presents with central chest pain and vomiting - has drunk a bottle of vodka. There is mild crepitus in epigastric region.

A) Inferior MI
B) Anterior MI
C) pancreatitis
D) boerhaave syndrome
E) Mallory Weiss tear
A

D) boerhaave syndrome

17
Q

A 52 y/o F presents with weakness and pins and needles in her right hand. O/E she has wasting of the thenar eminence associated with sensory loss to palmar aspect of lateral (radial) 3 fingers. Which nerve is affected?

A) common peroneal nerve
B) median nerve
C) radial nerve
D) anterior interosseous nerve
E) ulnar nerve
A

B) median nerve

18
Q

A man is seen in diabetic food clinic with a chronic ulcer on his leg. It is well demarcated with no sensation at the base of the ulcer. The ulcer has grown the same bacteria from multiple swabs during the last 5 months. Patient is systemically well. The base of the ulcer is wet with a pale green slough over it and smells damp and offensive. Which organism is responsible?

A) pseudomonas aeruginosa 
B) streptococcus pyogenes
C) staphylococcus aureus
D) clostridium perfringens
E) klebsiella pneumoniae
A

A) pseudomonas aeruginosa

19
Q

In the GP, patient presents with symptoms suggestive of Graves’ disease. Along with referral to endocrinology, which medication should the GP commence?

A) bisoprolol
B) carvedilol
C) iodine
D) propranolol
E) propylthiouracil
A

D) propranolol

20
Q

Risk of long term PPI use?

A) MI
B) stroke
C) fractures
D) liver impairment
E) diabetes
A

C) fractures

21
Q

68 y/o M has ischaemic stroke with occlusion of proximal anterior circulation 5 hours ago, most appropriate management?

A) aspirin
B) clopidogrel
C) endoxaban 
D) thrombectomy
E) thrombolysis
A

D) thrombectomy

22
Q

Which medication should be avoided in a patient with HOCM?

A) amiodarone
B) atenolol
C) disopyramide
D) ramipril
E) verapamil
A

D) ramipril

23
Q

Which medication increases the risk of a patient developing intracranial hypertension?

A) ferrous sulphate
B) lymecycline
C) paracetamol
D) progesterone only pill
E) salbutamol
A

B) lymecycline

24
Q

75 y/o M presents to his GP with a resting tremor in right hand which disappears on movement and stiffness in fingers. No cerebellar signs and neurology is otherwise normal. History of hypertension for which he takes amlodipine.

Next step in management?

A) refer to neurology
B) refer for nerve conduction studies
C) start on propranolol
D) do nothing and monitor
E) start on levodopa
A

A) refer to neurology

25
Q

82 y/o F presents with an infective exacerbation of COPD. Has been given 4L O2, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, IV hydrocortisone and broad-spectrum antibiotics but still minimal improvement in clinical status (SOB, productive cough, wheeze)

A) IV aminophylline
B) IV magnesium sulphate
C) IV salbutamol
D) non-invasive ventilation 
E) increase supplementary oxygen to 15L via a non-rebreather mask
A

D) non-invasive ventilation

26
Q

CT scan shows an aortic dissection involving the descending aorta. BP is 178/102. Most appropriate management?

A) adrenaline and hydrocortisone IV
B) control BP with labetalol and supportive treatment
C) control BP with labetalol and then for emergency repair surgery
D) straight to theatre for emergency surgery
E) tranexamic acid and supportive treatment

A

B) control BP with labetalol and supportive treatment

27
Q

Patient develops a third nerve palsy and a headache with meningism. Which diagnoses needs to be excluded urgently?

A) Weber’s syndrome
B) internal carotid artery aneurysm
C) MS
D) posterior communicating artery aneurysm
E) anterior communicating artery aneurysm

A

D) posterior communicating artery aneurysm

28
Q

Patient with Addison’s is treated with hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone replacement therapy. During an intercurrent illness, what advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?

A) keep the same hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone dose
B) Double both the hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone dose
C) Double the hydrocortisone dose and keep the fludrocortisone dose the same
D) convert to prednisolone for duration of illness
E) stop the hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone until recovery

A

C) Double the hydrocortisone dose and keep the fludrocortisone dose the same

29
Q

In a non-urgent scenario, how quickly should you prescribe a unit of packed RBC?

A) 15 mins
B) 30 mins
C) 60 mins
D) 90 mins
E) 240 mins
A

D) 90 mins

30
Q

How long does it take for an AV fistula to develop?

A) 1-2W
B) 2-4W
C) 4-6W
D) 6-8W
E) 8-10W
A

D) 6-8W

31
Q

What is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis?

A) saddle shaped ST elevation
B) right bundle branch block
C) left axis deviation
D) narrow peaking t waves
E) PR depression
A

E) PR depression

32
Q

Management of patient with suspected Lyme disease and erythema migrans

A) conduct further tests and only start antibiotics if positive
B) no further tests or treatment needed
C) conduct further tests and start antibiotics whilst awaiting results
D) refer patient to specialist
E) start antibiotics immediately without further tests

A

E) start antibiotics immediately without further tests

33
Q

Indian alcoholic and diabetic presents with fever and productive cough. No recent travel. CXR shows cavitating lesion in right upper zone. Causative organism?

A) Haemophilus influenzas
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae 
C) mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) mycoplasma pneumoniae
E) streptococcus pneumoniae
A

B) Klebsiella pneumoniae

34
Q

How is genital herpes usually diagnosed?

A) high vaginal swab
B) blood test
C) NAAT on swab
D) clinically
E) cervical smear
A

C) NAAT on swab

35
Q

What advice should you give regarding Omeprazole prior to endoscopy?

A) stop taking omeprazole 1W before endoscopy
B) continue taking omeprazole 20mg until day of endoscopy
C) stop taking omeprazole 2W before endoscopy
D) increase omeprazole dose to 40mg for 2W before endoscopy
E) decrease omeprazole dose to 10mg 1W before endoscopy

A

C) stop taking omeprazole 2W before endoscopy

36
Q

First-line treatment in newly diagnosed focal seizures?

A) clonazepam
B) ethosuximide
C) sodium valproate 
D) levetiracetam
E) lamotrigine
A

E) lamotrigine

37
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures in women of child-bearing potential?

A) clonazepam
B) levetiracetem
C) sodium valproate
D) lamotrigine
E) phenytoin
A

D) lamotrigine

38
Q

Treatment of absence seizures if intolerant to sodium valproate?

A) clonazepam
B) ethosuximide
C) levetiracetam
D) phenytoin
E) lamotrigine
A

B) ethosuximide