Medications Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What are the equivalent doses for oral Opioids [?]

A
  • Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1 mg PO. ( PO/IV 5/1)
  • Oxycodone 2.5 mg PO
  • Morphine 5 mg PO. ( PO/IV 3/1)
  • (Empracet) Codeine 30 mg PO

HOME is 1, 2.5, 5, 30; IV/SQ doses are generally half

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2
Q

Q: Conversion of Morphine to Fentanyl patch [?]

A

1- Calculate the total 24h morphine dose (or morphine equivalent)
2- Divide by 2
3- Fentanyl patch = mcg/h

  • Ex. Morphine 50mg PO = Fentanyl patch 25mcg/h
    As per emedicine:
    (i) Calculate total 24h morphine dose
    (ii) divide by 100 (100x potency of fentanyl)
    (iii) divide by 24h ( to convert to mcg/h)
    (iv) reduce dose by 25-50% due to incomplete cross toleranace
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3
Q

Q: Calculation for Breakthrough Opioids doses [?]

A
  • Prescribe 10% of the Total Daily Dose q1h
  • When using Fentanyl, calculate 10% for the Breakthrough dose of Morphine SQ q1h, or multiply by 2 for Morphine PO q1h
  • For Fentanyl 25 mcg/h, Breakthrough = Morphine 2.5 mg SQ or 5 mg PO q1h
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4
Q

Q: Calculation for Long-Acting Opioids [?]

A

Add up Total Daily Opioid Dose including Regular and Breakthrough, and divide by 2;
Prescribe L.A. form q12h

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5
Q

Q: What are the equivalent doses for Steroids and Half Life [?]

A

ED. HL
Dexamethasone (Decadron) 0.75mg 48h

Triamcinolone (Kenalog) 4mg 24h

Methylprednisone (Solumederol) 4mg 24h
Prednisone/Prednisolone 5mg 24h

Hydrocortisone (Solycortef). 20mg 12h
Cortisone. 25mg 12h

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6
Q

Q: Thirteen Side effects of corticosteroids [?]

A
  • Behavioral disturbances
  • Acne
  • Hirsutism
  • Cataracts
  • Central obesity/Cushingoid habitus
  • Osteoporosis
  • Avascular necrosis of the hip
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Electrolyte disturbances
  • Glycosuria
  • Fluid imbalance
  • Hypertension
  • Susceptibility to infections
  • Peptic ulcer disease
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7
Q

Q: Interferons: Actions, types, and SE [?]

A
  • Immunomodulatory secretory proteins:
  • Antitumor cytotoxicity
  • Inhibition of cell proliferation
  • Gene activation (p53)
  • Modulation of cell surface antigens
  • Stimulation of other cytokines and immune modulator
  • Immune cell activation
  • Decrease permeability of cell membrane to virus penetration

*Type 1: IFN-α (produced by leukocytes) and IFN-ß (produced by connective tissue cells)
- Production is stimulated by viral infection or exposure or dsRNA
- Anti viral effects → decreased viral replication, increase cell membrane proteins,
decreased lymphocyte mitogenesis

*Type 2: IFN-γ (produced by T-lymphocytes)
- Production stimulated by antigenic stimuli
- More potent immunomodulatory effect → increased cell membrane antigen
expression (MHC1, MHC2, Fc receptors)

*Side Effects:
- Early constitutional – Fatigue, headache, nausea, fever, chills
- Delayed – Leukopenia, alopecia, neurotoxicity, polymyalgia, arthralgia, growth
retardation
-Rare – Spastic diplegia

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8
Q

Q: Name 8 topical decongestants [?]

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Phenylephrine
  • Oxymetazoline
  • Xylometazoline ( MOA: alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist acting as a sympathomimetic with vasoconstriction)
  • Cocaine
  • Naphazoline
  • Tetrahydrozoline
  • Propylhexedrine
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9
Q

Q: Name 3 systemic decongestants [?]

A
  • Phenylephrine
  • Pseudoephedrine
  • Phenylpropanolamine
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10
Q

Q: Discuss the three Belladonna derivatives [?]

A

1- Scopolamine, Glycopyrrolate, Atropine
2- Antimuscarinics

  • Scopolamine & glycopyrrolate potent anti-sialogogues
  • Atropine the most vagolytic, produces greatest increase in HR
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11
Q

Q: Name 3 augmented penicillins [?]

A
  • Clavulanate = amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
  • Tazobactam = part of the Pip/Tazo family
  • Sulbactam: irreversible inhibitor of beta=lactamase
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12
Q

Q: Name 4 antibiotics which can cross the blood-brain barrier [?]

A
  • Ampicillin: broad spectrum penicillin (gram neg+ pos coverage); bacteiocidal - Ceftriaxone: 3rdG cephalosporin
  • Flagyl: anerobic coverage
  • Chloramphenicol
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13
Q

Q: What are the genetic mechanisms for antimicrobial resistance (4)[?]

A

1-Reduced intracellular accumulation of Abx
- Decreased influx/permeability of antibiotic
- Increased efflux (active) of antibiotic
2- Inactivation or modification of Abx by bacterial enzymes
3- Alterations of antibiotic target site → reduction in binding capacity
4-Modification of metabolic pathways to circumvent antibiotic effects/target amplification

Methods:

  • Vertical evolution: mutation of preexisting genes
  • Horizontal gene transfer: acquire new genes from other strains or species
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14
Q

Q: What are the contraindications to Ciprofloxacin [?]

A
  1. Allergy
  2. Concurrent use of tizanidine (Increase concentrations)
  3. Older patients
  4. Children
  5. Pregnancy
  6. Seizure disorders
  7. Organ transplant
  8. Steroid Use
  9. Renal failure
  10. MG
  11. Prolonged QT interval
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15
Q

Q: Mechanism of action for Ciprofloxacin [?]

A
  • DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II and IV) inhibitor → inhibit cell division
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16
Q

Q: Name 5 Ester anaesthetics and metabolism [?]

A
Metabolized by (i)plasma and (ii) liver cholinesterases
Decreased local uptake vs amide anaesthetics
  • Cocaine (inhibits NE and dobutamine)
  • Procaine
  • Tetracaine
  • Benzocaine
  • Chloroprocaine
17
Q

Q: Name 7 Amide anasthetics and metabolism [?]

A

Metabolized via liver dealkylation

  • Bupivicane
  • Prilocaine (causes methemoglobinemia with doses > 600mg)
  • Ropivicaine
  • Dibucaine
  • Mepivicaine
  • Etidocaine
18
Q

Q: (LK) What are the maximum dosages of local anaesthetics (and durations) [?]

A
19
Q

Q (DO): Calculating Local anaesthetic concentration, amounts, etc…?

A
  • Lidocaine 1% = 1g/100cc = 10mg/cc
  • Lidocaine 2% = 2g/100cc = 20mg/cc
  • Epinephrine 1:100 000 = 1000mg/100 000cc = 0.01mg/cc
20
Q

Q: Ingredient in Hurricaine spray [?]

A

20% benzocaine in polyethylene glycol base

21
Q

Q: Contents of EMLA [?]

A
  • Eutiectic mixture of local anaesthetics

- Emulsified Prilocaine and Lidocaine, reliability increases if applied for >1hr

22
Q

Q: Mechanism of action of miscillaneous medications

A
23
Q

Q: Xylocaine toxicity (plasma level), effect [?]

A
  • CNS stimulation (3mcg/mL)
  • CNS depression (5mcg/mL)
  • Cardiovascular depression (8mcg/mL)
24
Q

Q: 5 measure in initial management of xylocaine toxicity

A
  • Maintain ventilation
  • Give oxygen
  • Place IV
  • Fluids/pressors PRN
  • Anti-seizure meds (diazepam) PRN
25
Q

Q: Discuss Antiemetics: CNS targets and examples of rx [?]

A

Examples:
- Phenothiazines work well – Antidopaminergic and anticholinergic (medulla)
- Metoclopramide – Antidopaminergic (medulla)
- Ondansetron & granisetron – 5HT3 receptor antagonist, found on vagus in CRT zone
(4th ventricle)
————————

 Emetic center in medulla (reticular formation) → ACh & Histamine receptors
 Chemoreceptor trigger (CRT) zone in 4th ventricle → Dopamine, 5HT3 receptors
26
Q

Q: Discuss and name 3 expectorants[?]

A

1- Increase hydration of secretions via vagus → clearer + increased secretions → lubrication of
irritated resp tract + increased expulsion of mucous from air passages of the lungs
Examples: ammonium salts, iodide salts, guaifenesin

27
Q

Q: (LK) What is the treatment of anaphylaxis [?]

A
  • Establish an airway
  • Provide adequate oxygenation +/- ventilation
  • IV fluids
  • Monitor vitals
  • Epinephrine 0.2-0.5ng IM (1:1000 epi) q 5min PRN
  • Beta-agonists (ventolin) PRN
  • Steroids IV PRN
  • Anti histamines (benadryl anti-H1 vs. ranitidine anti-H2) PRN
28
Q

Q: Ten complications of Angio Embolization [?]

A
  • Recurrence of bleeding (10-20%)
  • CVA with permanent neurologic deficit (4%) - Pulmonary embolus
  • Blindness
  • Temporofacial pain
  • Temporofacial paresthesia
  • Trismus
  • Skin necrosis
  • Groin infection or hematoma
  • Death
29
Q

Q: Discuss Rhinophyma [?]

A
  • Development of a large, bulbous nose due to granulation infiltration and untreated rosacea (chronic skin condition small vessel dilation). Phymatous type of Rosacea is a sebaceous hyperplasia characterized by marked skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities of the nose, chin, forehead, one or both ears, and/or the eyelids; affects ~50 yo males, may harbor occult BCC
  • Histopathology:
  • Sebaceous gland hyperplasia
  • Marked fibrosis
  • Four distinct histologic variants Glandular,Fibrous, Fibroangiomatous, and Actinic

-Associated with Demodex folliculorum mite (inhabit hair follicles), and possibly H. pylori

  • Treatment :
  • Conservative/Medical: Defatting detergents, Anti-inflammatories, Antibiotics, Benzoyl peroxide, and Isotretinoin topical application
  • Surgical: Electrosurgery, Dermabrasion, Argon or CO2 Laser, +/- STSG
30
Q

Q: Name 4 benign skin appendage tumors [?]

A

1- Pilomatrixoma: hair matrix cell tumour (follicular matrical cornification)
2- Rhinophyma:Rosaea/Sebaceous hyperplasia
3- Syringomas: intraepidermal eccrine duct (sweat gland) adenoma)
4- Trichilemmomas: tumour of follicular outer root sheath (Cowden Disease)

“The skin appendages, such as hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands, make the skin function well in touch, temperature sensation, excretion, perspiration, and thermoregulation”