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PTCB Exam > Medication 1-100 > Flashcards

Medication 1-100 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following ingredients are contained in Mylanta regular strength except

A

calcium carbonate

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2
Q

which of the following is an adverse effect of duloxetine

A

Hypertension

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3
Q

A prescriber wishes to prescribe a beta-blocker for a patient diagnosed with hypertension; which of the following would be an appropriate medication

A

metoprolol

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4
Q

which of the following dosage forms is a semisolid dosage form in which the base contains more water than the skin and penetrates well into the skin

A

lotions

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5
Q

Which of the following is the brand name for herpes zoster vaccine

A

Zostavax

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6
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about taking bisphosphonates

A

The medication should be taken 30 minutes after the first meal, beverage, or medication of the day

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7
Q

Which of the following is the generic drug name for Novolog

A

Insulin aspart

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8
Q

Which condition is adalimumab indicated to treat

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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9
Q

Why are medications stored in opaque bottles

A

Drugs are sensitive to light

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10
Q

A generic drug with suffix- glitazone is indicated in treating which condition

A

Diabetes mellitus

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a class of HIV medication therapy

A

Antiprotozoals

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12
Q

How is Byetta administered

A

SC - Subsutaneously

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13
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for an overdose of warfarin

A

phytonadione

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14
Q

Which of the following medications is administered using a loading dose

A

azithromycin

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15
Q

Which route of administration will provide the highest blood concentration in the shortest time

A

Intravenous

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16
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication

A

Symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would otherwise be advisable

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17
Q

Which dosage form is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic solution containing water and ethanol

A

Elixir

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18
Q

Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin product

A

insulin lispro

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19
Q

Which antibiotic is recommended to be taken every 12 hours

A

ciprofloxacin

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20
Q

Which of the following drug classifications will decrease blood glucose levels

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

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21
Q

A patient is complaining of muscle spasms; which medication is an appropriate treatment

A

cyclobenzaprine

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22
Q

A patient is cautioned that the medication she was prescribed might cause nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, tinnitus, and even permanent deafness. What class of antibiotic was the patient likely prescribe

A

Aminoglycoside

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23
Q

What is the brand name for hydrocodone/ acetaminophen

A

Vicodin

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24
Q

Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of influenza

A

oseltamivir

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25
Q

Which of the following is the generic name for Glucophage

A

Metformin

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26
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is prescribed lithium. What should their therapeutic blood levels be

A

0.6 - 0.8 mg/ml

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27
Q

a patient is prescribed enoxaparin; how should it be administered

A

subcutaneously

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28
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer; which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment

A

cisplatin

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29
Q

a deficiency of which vitamin will result in the patient experiencing scurvy

A

vitamin c

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30
Q

Which is the concentration of normal saline solution

A

0.9%

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31
Q

Which of the following ingredients found in OTC medications is classified as an antitussive agent

A

dextromethorphan

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32
Q

often patients confuse the need for a decongestant with an antihistamine for their cold symptoms. Which of the following represents a decongestant

A

pseudoephedrine

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33
Q

Which of the following is not addressed under the pregnancy and lactation labeling ruling

A

pediatrics

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34
Q

which of the following is the brand name for escitalopram

A

lexapro

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35
Q

Which is the meaning of the prefix brady

A

slow

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36
Q

A prescription is written for the antibiotic Zithromax. The physician indicated “Voluntary Formulary” permitted on the prescription. Which of the following medications would be dispensed

A

Azithromycin

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37
Q

A patient is diagnosed with diabete mellitus type 1; which of the following medications would be prescribed?

A

lispro insulin

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38
Q

What is the indication for Victoza

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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39
Q

A prescription is written for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg. Which of the following would be appropriate directions for use

A

Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice

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40
Q

All of the following drugs are indicated for asthma except

A

isoniazid

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41
Q

For which of the following conditions is adrucil indicated

A

breast cancer

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42
Q

Which insulin has peak activity of 6- 10 hours

A

Neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin

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43
Q

Which of the following medications is indicated for systemic fungal infections

A

amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate

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44
Q

which route should enoxaparin be administrated

A

Subcutaneously

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45
Q

What is the generic name for Januvia

A

sitagliptin

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46
Q

Which of the following medications could be used as a prophylactic for migraines

A

Inderal

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47
Q

Which of the following antiplatelet medications must be administered parenterally

A

abciximab

48
Q

Which of the following medications is a colony- stimulating factor indication for anemia

A

epoetin alfa recombinant

49
Q

which of the following medications should be tapered when discontinuing therapy

A

metoprolol

50
Q

which of the following conditions is enoxaparin indicated

A

Deep vein thrombosis

51
Q

What is the brand name for mupirocin

A

bactroban

52
Q

A patient takes pseudoephedrine (sudafed) for nasal congestion; however, the patient has high blood pressure. This would be considered a drug- ____ interaction.

A

disease

53
Q

How is Lovenox (enoxaparin) administered?

A

Subcutaneously

54
Q

What do we call the administration of a medication into a patient’s vein all at once rather than over several hours or days?

A

IV push

55
Q

HIV is caused by which type of microorganism?

A

Viral

56
Q

A patient overdoses on an opiate, and naloxone (Narcan) is given as an antidote to combat the effects of the opiate. Naloxone would then be considered a(n):

A

antagonist

57
Q

Which of the following medications is a vitamin K antagonist that is used as an anticoagulant?

A

warfarin

58
Q

All the following drug classifications may interact with oral contraceptives EXCEPT ________.

A

beta blockers

59
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with advanced prostate cancer. Which medication would be an appropriate treatment?

A

leuprolide acetate injection

60
Q

All the following are orally administered medications for the management of type 2 diabetes EXCEPT _______.

A

Humulin 70/30 insulin

61
Q

A patient is taking warfarin 5 mg po qd. Which of the following products could the patient eat?

A

Oranges

62
Q

Which type of drug interaction occurs when a medication works against the action of another medication?

A

Antagonism

63
Q

Which of the following is an example of beta blocker?

A

metoprolol

64
Q

What unit of measurement is used to indicate the strength of heparin?

A

International units

65
Q

Which of the following medications does NOT possess antipyretic properties?

A

Tylenol

66
Q

What term refers to the removal of drugs and metabolites by the kidneys through the urine?

A

Excretion

67
Q

Which medication may decrease a patient’s LDL cholesterol?

A

metoprolol

68
Q

Which of the following will elevate blood glucose levels?

A

Thiazide diuretics

69
Q

Which of the following products will decrease a patient’s HDL?

A

Beta blockers

70
Q

How much codeine is contained in one tablet of acetaminophen/codeine #3?

A

1/2 gr

71
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with the pancreas?

A

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

72
Q

Which of the following is used to treat osteoarthritis?

A

Chondroitin

73
Q

Which is the generic name for Namenda?

A

memantine

74
Q

Which is the generic name for Levemir?

A

insulin detemir

75
Q

Which therapeutic equivalent code is assigned to a medication in conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems?

A

AA

76
Q

Which dosage form is described as “solid particles dispersed in liquid vehicle?”

A

Suspensions

77
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment?

A

pantoprazole

78
Q

A patient has been prescribed a fentanyl patch for severe chronic pain. How often should the patch be changed?

A

Every 3 days

79
Q

Each of the following factors will affect the route of administration EXCEPT ________.

A

shape of the dosage form

80
Q

Signs of physical instability that include precipitation, discoloration, haziness, gas formation, and microbial growth are associated with which dosage form?

A

Solutions, elixirs, and syrups

81
Q

How many milligrams are in Nitrostat 1/150 gr?

A

0.4

82
Q

Which of the following is the brand name for insulin glulisine?

A

Apidra

83
Q

Which of the following is an example of drug duplication?

A

Calan and Isoptin

84
Q

Which term refers to the substitution of one drug for another in the same therapeutic class?

A

Therapeutic interchange

85
Q

All of the following medications are indicated for osteoporosis EXCEPT ________.

A

rivastigmine

86
Q

Which of the following is the generic name for Taxotere?

A

docetaxel injection

87
Q

Which body system is treated using metformin?

A

Endocrine

88
Q

Methylphenidate is indicated for the treatment of ________.

A

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

89
Q

A patient complains of seeing a green-blue halo. This is an example of a toxicity associated with which medication?

A

digoxin

90
Q

Candesartan is the generic name for ________.

A

Altacand

91
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa is an adverse reaction associated with which drug classification?

A

Decongestants

92
Q

Which of the following medications may require a patient to take a potassium supplement?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

93
Q

What is the generic name for Dilantin?

A

phenytoin

94
Q

Which of the following insulins have an onset of action of 15 minutes?

A

lispro insulin

95
Q

Which of the following products is available as a transdermal patch?

A

fentanyl

96
Q

Heparin is measured in ________.

A

units

97
Q

Which of the following would require a potassium supplement?

A

furosemide

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT a route of administration for bleomycin sulfate?

A

Infiltration

99
Q

What is the brand name for enalapril?

A

Vasotec

100
Q

Which of the following medication is indicated for glaucoma?

A

latanoprost ophthalmic

101
Q

Which term defines the process of how drugs are handled in the body?

A

Pharmacokinetics

102
Q

A diabetic patient may take which of the following dosage forms?

A

Emulsion

103
Q

How is heparin administered to a patient?

A

Subcutaneously

104
Q

A patient is allergic to sulfa medications. Which of the following medications found in the patient’s profile should be brought to the attention of the pharmacist?

A

Bactrim DS

105
Q

At which USP temperature classification should Zostavax be stored?

A

Freezer

106
Q

Which of the following is an example of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

A

paroxetine

107
Q

Which of the following is the generic name for Ativan?

A

lorazepam

108
Q

If a patient is hypokalemic, her or she has which of the following?

A

Low potassium

109
Q

The generic name for Estrace is ________.

A

estradiol

110
Q

Which of the following is an example of a stool softener?

A

docusate

111
Q

Which classification of antidepressants needs to be washed out of the body before a patient switches to another antidepressant?

A

MAOIs

112
Q

A pharmacist compounds a sweetened, flavored product containing water and alcohol. This is most likely a(n) ________.

A

elixir

113
Q

All of the following are abbreviations used to indicate various extended-release dosage forms EXCEPT ________.

A

ERF

114
Q

What classification is citalopram?

A

SSRI

115
Q

Each of the following would be an appropriate auxiliary label for doxycycline EXCEPT ________.

A

avoid dairy products

116
Q

A patient has edema; which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

A

spironolactone

117
Q

Which is the generic name for Cordarone?

A

amiodarone

PTCB Exam (7 decks)

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